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Immune System Review Game

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

__________ are phagocytes that circulate in the blood.

a)

B cells

b)

macrophages

c)

Plasma cells

d)

T cells

e)

Monocytes

2.

__________ are helper and inducer cells.

a)

B cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Plasma cells

d)

T cells

e)

Monocytes

3.

_________ are the source of antibody-producing cells.

a)

B cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Plasma cells

d)

T cells

e)

Monocytes

4.

_________ are macrophage precursor cells.

a)

B cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Plasma cells

d)

T cells

e)

Monocytes

5.

_________ produce specific antibodies.

a)

B Cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Plasma Cells

d)

T Cells

e)

Monocytes

6.

The surface of most vertebrate cells possesses self-markers called major __________.

a)

histocompatibility complex proteins

b)

T-cell receptors

c)

antigens

d)

immunoglobulins

7.

The surface defenses of the body consist of the ______ and the mucous membranes lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.

a)

bone marrow

b)

skin

c)

T-cells

d)

lymphocytes

8.

__________ diseases are those abnormal conditions in which the body's defensive cells fail to make the self versus the non-self distinction correctly, and attack the body's own tissues.

a)

Septic

b)

Non Discrete

c)

Autoimmune

d)

Cancerous

9.

The cellular defenses of vertebrates are complemented by a very effective chemical defense called the _________ system.

a)

autoimmune

b)

relational

c)

lymphatic

d)

complement

10.

Virus-infected cells secrete a class of proteins called ________ that play a key role in body defense.

a)

interferon

b)

cytokines

c)

antigens

d)

interleukin-4

11.

_________ are molecules released by activated helper T cells.

a)

Antigens

b)

Immunoglobulins

c)

Cytokines

d)

Antibodies

12.

Lymphocyte receptors are encoded by genes that are assembled by _______ rearrangement and mutation.

a)

histochemical

b)

reversible

c)

gametic

d)

DNA

13.

Because of natural _______, a mature animal's immune system does not attack its own tissues.

a)

immunological tolerance

b)

homeostasis

c)

histochemicals

d)

differentiation

14.

The human immunodeficiency virus mounts a direct attack on TH cells by recognizing the _______ surface proteins associated with these cells.

a)

Fc

b)

CD4

c)

epitope

d)

cytokine

15.

The large, irregularly shaped cells that kill bacteria by digesting them are called

a)

monocytes

b)

erythrocytes

c)

macrophages

d)

bacteriophages

e)

antibodies

16.

The procedure of injecting a harmless microbe in order to confer resistance to a dangerous one is called

a)

vaccination

b)

immunity

c)

antibody modification

d)

interferon activation

e)

immunoglobulin synthesis

17.

Nonself molecules called antigens cause the vertebrate system to produce proteins known as

a)

interferons

b)

antibodies

c)

complements

d)

immunoglobulins

e)

phagocytes

18.

The molecule that provokes a specific immune response is

a)

antigen

b)

lymphocyte

c)

antibody

d)

lysozyme

19.

Which is not one of the blood types?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

e)

BB

20.

HIV mounts a direct attack on ___ cells

a)

TH Cells

b)

TC Cells

c)

HT Cells

d)

TB Cells

21.

_____ cause tissue rejection

a)

B-cells

b)

T-cells

c)

MHC

d)

all of the above

22.

_____ regulates other immune cells or attacks cells that carry specific antigens

a)

B cells

b)

A cells

c)

T cells

d)

Macrophages

23.

MAC’s are made of_____.

a)

T cells

b)

macrophages

c)

proteins

d)

B cells

24.

Innate immunity is ______

a)

response to invading pathogens that involves both soluble factors and different types of blood cells.

b)

potential routes of entry

c)

both answers are correct

25.

______ gives rise to the cells of the immune system.

a)

mast cells

b)

lymphocytes

c)

Hematopoiesis

d)

T cells

26.

The secondary response to an antigen is ____ effective than the primary response.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

the same

27.

Allergies are caused by _____ secretion in response to antigens

a)

IgE

b)

lympocytes

c)

T cells

d)

B cells

28.

______ eliminates virally infected cells and tumor cells

a)

B cells

b)

Cytotoxic T Cells

c)

Proteins

d)

Macrophages

29.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the adaptive immune system?

a)

Specificity of recognition of an antigen

b)

Ability to distinguish self- antigens from nonself

c)

Wide diversity of antigens that can be specifically recognized

d)

All of these are characteristics

30.

What type of bond holds together the four chains of an immunoglobulin molecule?

a)

Hydrogen Bond

b)

Hydrocarbon bond

c)

Disulfide bond

d)

Water-based bond

31.

How many alleles does the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) have?

a)

2

b)

64

c)

2000

d)

200

32.

The plus or minus symbol shown in a blood type represents

a)

the presence or absence of ‘A’ surface proteins

b)

The presence or absence of ‘B’ surface proteins

c)

The presence or absence of the Rh factor

d)

None of the above

33.

Immunoglobulin molecules are also known as what?

a)

Macrophages

b)

Antibodies

c)

B cells

d)

Mast cells

34.

Which of the following is a function of B cells?

a)

Helps stop immune response after antigen is eliminated.

b)

Attacks cells that carry specific antigens

c)

Consumes cell debris via phagocytosis

d)

Responds to antigens by secreting antibodies

35.

When B cells produce antibodies, the process as known as what?

a)

Autoimmunity

b)

Adaptive immunity

c)

Humoral immunity

d)

None of these

36.

Where do T cells mature?

a)

bone marrow

b)

Within blood plasma

c)

Thymus

d)

T cells do not mature.

37.

What is one way in which skin does not prevent the entrance of antigens?

a)

Having a pH of 3-5

b)

Normal flora outnumbering pathogenic bacteria

c)

Provides a strong barrier

d)

These are all ways in which skin prevents the entrance of antigens.

38.

Immunoglobulins come in five classes: IgM, IgD, IgG, IgA, and IgE. When an antigen is present, which of the classes can lead to an allergic response?

a)

IgA class

b)

IgE class

c)

IgD class

d)

IgM class

39.

Jenner discovered that people previously infected with cowpox did not become infected by smallpox because ________.

a)

he cowpox destroyed any smallpox introduced.

b)

The smallpox always mutated into a non harmful state when in the presence of cowpox.

c)

The smallpox had extremely similar surface proteins to the cowpox, meaning a quick immune response was produced to destroy the smallpox before symptoms could appear.

d)

None of the above

40.

The reason why the influenza vaccine is not permanent is due to the fact that:

a)

The vaccine only lasts for the course of one year before no longer reacting to the flu virus.

b)

The flu virus will alter its surface proteins to avoid recognition by the immune system.

c)

Both of these are correct

d)

None of these

41.

Immunoglobulin diversity is generated through what?

a)

Genetic recombination

b)

Hematopoiesis

c)

DNA rearrangement

d)

None of theses

42.

Interleukin-1 is an example of what?

a)

An antibody

b)

Mast cell

c)

Macrophage

d)

Cytokine

43.

Where does b-cell maturation occur?lymph nodes

a)

lymph nodes

b)

thymus

c)

bone marrow

d)

spleen

44.

What is the central dogma theory?

a)

DNA-RNA-Protein

b)

Protein-RNA-DNA

c)

RNA-DNA-Protein

d)

RNA-Protein-Antigen

45.

What is the largest organ in the human body?

a)

spleen

b)

colon

c)

liver

d)

skin

46.

What is the most abundant circulating leukocyte, that also use phagocytosis?

a)

macrophages

b)

NKC

c)

neutrophils

d)

phagocytes

47.

What is the meaning of macrophages?

a)

big eater

b)

little eater

c)

of bacteria

d)

matured cells

48.

Who made the vaccine for smallpox?

a)

Mendell

b)

Darwin

c)

Salk

d)

Jenner

49.

Who made the vaccine for Polio?

a)

Salk

b)

Darwin

c)

Mendell

d)

Jenner

50.

What is true of natural killer cells?

a)

Do not attack invading cells directly

b)

Use phagocytosis

c)

Monocytes mature into macrophage

d)

Kill microorganisms through phagocytosis

51.

What is the definition of inflammation?

a)

Genetic rearrangements that generate a diverse set of molecules to recognize any invader

b)

The process by which the body's white blood cells and substances they produce protect us from infection with foreign organisms, such as bacteria and viruses.

c)

Proteins aggregate to form a membrane attack complex on surface of pathogen

d)

perforations to form in the pathogen

52.

What does a fever do?

a)

slow reproduction rate of microorganisms

b)

promotes activity of phagocytic cells

c)

make the spleen and liver store iron which slows bacterial replication

d)

all of these

53.

What is an antigen?

a)

molecule that provokes a specific immune response

b)

a molecule that fights cancer

c)

a molecule that makes it easier to get a disease

d)

a molecule that makes you get a fever

54.

What do mast cells do?

a)

make testosterone

b)

secrete histamine

c)

make antigens

d)

make estrogen

55.

In immunoglobulin cells what are the 2 longer polypeptide chains called

a)

light chains

b)

medium chains

c)

heavy chains

d)

small chains

56.

In immunoglobulin cells what are the 2 short polypeptide chains?

a)

light chains

b)

heavy chains

c)

small chains

d)

medium chains

57.

What is immunological tolerance

a)

rejection of self cells

b)

acceptance of self cells

c)

acceptance of non self cells

d)

rejection of non self cells

58.

True or false ⅔ of people with autoimmune diseases are women?

a)

True

b)

False

59.

What is delayed type hypersensitivity?

a)

when you get symptoms immediately

b)

when you get symptoms that are mild

c)

when you get symptoms 24-48 hours later

d)

when you don't get symptoms

60.

What is immediate hypersensitivity?

a)

when you get symptoms immediately

b)

when you get mild symptoms

c)

when you get symptoms 24-48 hours later

d)

when you don't get symptoms

61.

What is the rh factor in blood typing?

a)

amount of blood platelets

b)

white blood cell count

c)

clotting ability

d)

the rhesus factor, additional small surface proteins that you have (+) or don't (-)

62.

What is the most common type of allergy?

a)

Immediate hyposensitivity

b)

Immediate hypersensitivity

c)

Delayed type sensitivity

d)

Allergen

e)

Pollen

63.

Immunoglobulins consist of 4 polypeptide chains, what chains would respond or interact with an antigen?

a)

2 light

b)

2 heavy

c)

both

d)

neith

64.

T(c) cells are:

a)

Cytotoxic T cells

b)

Cytopathic T cells

c)

Cytotropic T cells

d)

Cytokines T cells

65.

What does MALT stand for?

a)

Muscle-associated lymphoid tissue

b)

Muscosal-associated lysis tissue

c)

Molecule-associated lymphoid trouble

d)

Mammary-associated lymphoid tissue

e)

Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue

66.

Where is MALT found?

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Spleen

c)

Stomach

d)

Both spleen and stomach

e)

Both lymph nodes and spleen

67.

Monoclonal antibodies exhibit specificity for ____ epitope(s).

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

68.

Your friend got in an accident and cut themselves severely. They will need a blood transfusion and their blood type is AB positive. What blood type will your friend be able to receive?

a)

Type A pos.

b)

Type B neg.

c)

Type O pos.

d)

All types

e)

None

69.

What organism can you get salmonella from?

a)

goat

b)

Cow

c)

Chicken

d)

Sheep

e)

Duck

70.

What was invented as a treatment for tuberculosis in the middle of the 20th century?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Viruses

d)

Drugs

e)

Nothing

71.

What cells in the body does the HIV-human immunodeficiency viruses target?

a)

Cytotoxic T cells

b)

CD4+ Helper T cells

c)

All cells

d)

Nice

72.

Which group/s of organism do we know as being potential pathogens?

a)

Protists

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Virus

e)

All of these are potentially pathogenic

73.

Why do we need NSAIDs?

a)

To get rid of allergies

b)

To alleviate inflammation and fever

c)

To increase autoimmune diseases

d)

To become resistant to everything

e)

We don't need NSAIDs

74.

When macrophages are in their immature phase they are called _______.

a)

Phagocytes

b)

Microcytes

c)

Monocytes

d)

Neutrophils

e)

Cytotoxins

75.

What is false about skin?

a)

Largest organ of the body

b)

Low pH level

c)

Can be reinforced with chemical weapons

d)

Provides a niche for harmless or beneficial bacteria

e)

None of these

76.

A PAMP is a

a)

molecular pattern.

b)

leukocyte

c)

bacterium

d)

tissue

77.

An incubation period is

a)

the time it takes for a disease to become infectious.

b)

the time in which the symptoms of a disease are observable.

c)

the time between the exposure and the onset of a disease.

d)

the period in which the disease is transmittable.

78.

_____ is a sign of an inflammatory response.

a)

Redness

b)

Swelling

c)

Pain

d)

Warmth

e)

All of these are correct

79.

Natural Killer Cells destroy infected cells causing ______.

a)

apoptosis.

b)

phagocytosis

c)

producing antibodies.

d)

triggering other responses.

80.

The possible genotypes of person who exhibits the A+ blood phenotype are

a)

A+ A-, A+ O+, A+ A+, A+ O-, A- O+

b)

A- A-, A+ O-, A+ A-

c)

A+ O+, A- B+, A+ A+, A+ O-

d)

A+ A-, A+ B-, A- O+

81.

_____ occurs when a blood type is rejected and attacked by the immune system.

a)

Coagulation

b)

Agglutination

c)

Inflammatory Response

d)

Phagocytosis

82.

There are about ______ different proteins in the complement system.

a)

40

b)

20

c)

30

d)

15

83.

Adaptive immunity is characterized by

a)

specificity of antigens.

b)

memory

c)

distinguishing antigens.

d)

all of these are correct

84.

Erythroblastosis Fetalis is when

a)

a mother's blood is incompatible with the baby’s.

b)

a fetus does not develop beyond a handful of cells.

c)

a baby is born prematurely.

d)

a mother’s antigens see the baby itself as an invader.

85.

_____ was the first virus used to inoculate against another virus.

a)

Influenza

b)

HIV

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Cowpox

86.

B cells produce _____ antibodies a minute.

a)

500

b)

2000

c)

5000

d)

1500

87.

____ & ____ use phagocytosis to eliminate invaders.

a)

Neutrophils, Macrophages

b)

NKCs, Macrophages

c)

NKCs, Neutrophils

d)

PAMP, Macrophage

88.

What enzyme is released when Natural Killer Cells find a cell with damaged surface proteins?

a)

Perforin

b)

Intererleukin-1

c)

Lysis

d)

Histamine

89.

The _____________ is a nonspecific response to infection or tissue injury.

a)

bleeding

b)

inflammatory response

c)

breathing

d)

allergic

90.

What is the MALT?

a)

A system that includes the tonsils, the appendix, and a large number of follicles located in the connective tissue under mucosal surfaces.

b)

mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue

c)

All of these are correct

d)

None of the Above

91.

The _____ response to an antigen is more effective than the ______ response.

a)

tenth, seventh

b)

third, fourth

c)

primary, secondary

d)

secondary, primary

92.

Who discovered ABO blood typing?

a)

Jenner

b)

Mullins

c)

Kary

d)

Landsteiner

93.

HIV infection kills ___ cells and causes immunosuppression

a)

Cytotoxic

b)

memory

c)

helper T

d)

plasma

94.

Which blood type is the universal donor

a)

AB+

b)

AB-

c)

O+

d)

O-

95.

Complement proteins can perform all of the functions except

a)

amplify inflammatory response.

b)

attract phagocytes to the site of infection.

c)

coat invading microbes.

d)

insert themselves into the foreign cell's plasma membrane.

e)

activate interferons.

96.

Histamine and prostaglandins are called

a)

immunoglobulins

b)

antibodies

c)

inflammatory agents.

d)

allergic agents.

e)

pyrogens

97.

Which of the following is not part of the inflammatory response?

a)

Histamine and other chemicals are released, which produce redness, warmth, and edema.

b)

Neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages attack the invading microbes and contribute to the pus.

c)

Antibodies and interferons are produced against the antigens

d)

Invading agent causes the release of pyrogens, which produce a fever.

98.

Immunity gained by the transfer of antibodies across the placental barrier (mother to unborn child) is called

a)

passive immunity.

b)

acquired immunity.

c)

humoral immunity.

d)

cell-mediated immunity.

e)

autoimmunity.

99.

Some viral pathogens evade detection by the vertebrate immune system by a mechanism that involves

a)

becoming a symbiont.

b)

becoming nonvirulent.

c)

frequent changing of surface antigens.

d)

becoming metabolically inactive.

e)

becoming a spore.

100.

Antigen shifting allows the pathogens to escape from immune recognition. This mechanism is employed by all of the following except

a)

flu viruses.

b)

trypanosomes

c)

malarial protozoans.

d)

HIV

e)

Antigenic shifting occurs in all of the answers given in this question.