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Cancer – Cellular Regulation Concept

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which characteristic best describes malignant cells?

a)

Well differentiated

b)

Controlled growth

c)

Ability to invade and metastasize

d)

Programmed cell death (apoptosis)

2.

The process by which cancer spreads to other parts of the body is called:

a)

Initiation

b)

Promotion

c)

Progression

d)

Metastasis

3.

The TNM classification system is used to:

a)

Identify cancer cell type

b)

Determine nutritional needs

c)

Stage cancer based on tumor size, node, and metastasis

d)

Describe genetic mutations

4.

A client has a grade IV tumor. This indicates:

a)

Tumor cells resemble normal cells

b)

Tumor is benign

c)

Tumor cells are undifferentiated and aggressive

d)

Cancer is in situ only

5.

Which term describes new, uncontrolled growth of abnormal tissue?

a)

Neoplasm

b)

Metaplasia

c)

Dysplasia

d)

Apoptosis

6.

Common side effects of chemotherapy include:

a)

Hypertension and edema

b)

Alopecia, mucositis, bone marrow suppression

c)

Weight gain and bradycardia

d)

Constipation and urinary retention

7.

The most serious hematologic complication of chemotherapy is:

a)

Constipation

b)

Fatigue

c)

Myelosuppression

d)

Hair loss

8.

A patient receiving external radiation should be taught to:

a)

Wash treatment area with soap and scrub brush

b)

Apply heating pads

c)

Avoid applying lotions or creams to marked area

d)

Cover site tightly with adhesive dressings

9.

The nurse should wear gloves when handling the linens of a patient who:

a)

Has oral ulcers

b)

Has neutropenia

10.

The underlying problem in leukemia is:

a)

Decreased RBC production

b)

Overproduction of immature WBCs

c)

Overproduction of platelets

d)

Bone marrow fibrosis only

11.

Which type of leukemia is most common in children?

a)

CLL

b)

ALL

c)

AML

d)

CML

12.

Which leukemia is most common in adults?

a)

AML

b)

ALL

c)

CML

d)

CLL

13.

A hallmark of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is:

a)

A. Philadelphia chromosome

b)

B. Pancytopenia

c)

C. Reed–Sternberg cells

d)

D. Blast crisis

14.

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) primarily affects:

a)

Children

b)

Adults over 60 years old

c)

Middle-aged women

d)

Teenagers

15.

Common symptoms of leukemia include:

a)

Weight gain and edema

b)

Fatigue, bruising, recurrent infections

c)

Bradycardia and hypertension

d)

Constipation and jaundice

16.

The definitive diagnosis of leukemia is made by:

a)

CBC only

b)

Bone marrow biopsy

c)

CT scan

d)

Lymph node biopsy

17.

The priority nursing concern in a patient with leukemia is:

a)

Pain control

b)

Infection prevention

c)

Fluid restriction

d)

Weight monitoring

18.

Which finding is characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

a)

Bence–Jones proteins

b)

Reed–Sternberg cells

c)

Philadelphia chromosome

d)

Lymphocytosis

19.

Hodgkin lymphoma typically begins in:

a)

The spleen

b)

One localized group of lymph nodes

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Multiple distant sites simultaneously

20.

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma differs from Hodgkin in that it:

a)

Is localized to one node group

b)

Has Reed–Sternberg cells

c)

Spreads widely and unpredictably

d)

Occurs mostly in young adults only

21.

Common symptom of both Hodgkin and Non-Hodgkin lymphoma:

a)

Painless lymph node enlargement

b)

Painful swollen nodes

c)

Petechiae

d)

Weight gain

22.

Which factor is associated with development of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

a)

Epstein-Barr virus and immunosuppression

b)

Elevated calcium

c)

High-protein diet

d)

Dehydration

23.

The best diet teaching for a patient with lymphoma receiving chemo:

a)

Avoid all protein

b)

Eat small frequent high-calorie, high-protein meals

c)

Only eat soft, bland foods

d)

Avoid fluids during meals

24.

A neutropenic patient’s absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is 400. The nurse should:

a)

Continue regular diet

b)

Place on protective isolation

c)

Encourage raw fruits and vegetables

d)

Give live vaccines

25.

The nurse should teach a neutropenic patient to:

4 lines
26.

A neutropenic client develops a fever of 100.6°F (38.1°C). The nurse’s first action is:

a)

Notify provider immediately

b)

Recheck in 4 hours

c)

Give acetaminophen only

d)

Encourage fluids

27.

A platelet count of 40,000/mm³ indicates:

a)

Normal

b)

Mild thrombocytopenia

c)

Risk for bleeding

d)

Critical anemia

28.

The nurse teaches a patient with thrombocytopenia to:

a)

Use a soft toothbrush

b)

Take aspirin for pain

c)

Floss vigorously

d)

Receive IM injections

29.

Which finding requires immediate reporting in thrombocytopenia?

a)

Mild fatigue

b)

Small bruise on arm

c)

New petechiae or bleeding gums

d)

Loss of appetite

30.

Platelet transfusion is typically indicated when counts fall below:

a)

100,000

b)

50,000

31.

The nurse recognizes spontaneous bleeding risk when platelets are:

a)

< 150,000

b)

< 100,000

c)

< 50,000

d)

< 20,000

32.

A common side effect of radiation to the head and neck is:

a)

Alopecia

b)

Mucositis

c)

Constipation

d)

Urinary retention

33.

The nurse should instruct a patient undergoing chemotherapy to:

a)

Avoid crowds and sick contacts

b)

Eat raw vegetables for vitamins

c)

Receive live vaccines

d)

Use tampons for menstrual hygiene

34.

The primary reason to avoid rectal suppositories in patients with leukemia or thrombocytopenia is:

a)

They cause constipation

b)

They increase risk for bleeding and infection

c)

They interfere with absorption

d)

They cause mucositis

35.

Filgrastim (Neupogen) is used to:

a)

Increase platelet count

b)

Stimulate neutrophil production (Correct)

36.

Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is used to:

a)

Stimulate platelet production

b)

Increase RBC production

c)

Replace plasma proteins

d)

Treat infection

37.

The nurse knows that pancytopenia means:

a)

Low RBCs only

b)

Low WBCs only

c)

Low RBCs, WBCs, and platelets

d)

High platelets and low WBCs

38.

Which lab finding would the nurse expect with bone marrow suppression?

a)

Hgb 14, Platelets 200,000

b)

Hgb 8.2, WBC 2,500, Platelets 60,000

c)

Hgb 15, WBC 8,000, Platelets 300,000

d)

Hgb 12, WBC 12,000, Platelets 400,000

39.

Which symptom most strongly suggests leukemia relapse?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Fever and recurrent infections

c)

Constipation

d)

Bradycardia

40.

Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with bone marrow suppression?

a)

Risk for infection

b)

Risk for injury

c)

Disturbed body image

d)

Imbalanced nutrition

41.

A client receiving chemotherapy reports mouth pain and white patches on the tongue. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Encourage citrus juices for vitamin C

b)

Obtain a culture of the lesions

c)

Apply an alcohol-based mouth rinse

d)

Give a hard toothbrush for plaque removal

42.

The nurse provides teaching for a client starting chemotherapy. Which statement indicates understanding?

a)

I’ll avoid large crowds while my counts are low.

b)

I’ll use aspirin if I get a headache.

c)

I should floss twice daily to prevent gum bleeding.

d)

I’ll schedule my flu shot next week if I feel well.

43.

A patient with metastatic breast cancer is receiving doxorubicin. Which finding is most concerning?

(a)  

44.

During chemotherapy, a client's WBC drops to 2,000 /μL. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Encourage oral fluids

b)

Hold chemotherapy and implement neutropenic precautions

c)

Offer fresh fruit snacks

d)

Give acetaminophen for fever

45.

A patient receiving radiation therapy to the neck reports dry mouth. Which teaching is most appropriate?

a)

Rinse with alcohol-based mouthwash

b)

Suck on sugar-free candy or chew gum

c)

Increase salt intake

d)

Limit fluids

46.

Which lab result indicates the greatest need for platelet transfusion?

a)

Platelets 120,000 /μL

b)

Platelets 60,000 /μL

c)

Platelets 25,000 /μL

d)

Platelets 180,000 /μL

47.

The nurse is caring for a client 10 days post-chemotherapy who presents with a fever of 100.9°F (38.3°C). What should the nurse do first?

a)

Administer acetaminophen and reassess

b)

Notify the provider immediately

c)

Encourage oral fluids

d)

Document and monitor

48.

A client with lung cancer has developed SIADH. Which finding does the nurse expect?

a)

Serum sodium 150 mEq/L

b)

Serum sodium 128 mEq/L

c)

Polyuria

d)

Dry mucous membranes

49.

A client undergoing chemotherapy has an absolute neutrophil count of 400. Which meal selection is safest?

a)

Fresh fruit salad

b)

Yogurt parfait

c)

Canned peaches and pasteurized milk

d)

Spinach salad with vinaigrette

50.

A client with thrombocytopenia states, “I cut myself shaving this morning.” Which instruction is appropriate?

a)

Use an electric razor instead.

b)

Apply ice to stop the bleeding.

c)

Apply a tourniquet until it stops.

d)

Shave less often but continue using blades.

51.

Which statement by a patient receiving chemotherapy for leukemia indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

I will take my temperature every day.

b)

I should avoid people who are sick.

c)

I will use a rectal thermometer for accuracy.

d)

I will report any bleeding gums.

52.

A nurse caring for a patient with cancer notes facial swelling, distended neck veins, and shortness of breath. Which complication should the nurse suspect?

a)

Cardiac tamponade

b)

Superior vena cava syndrome

c)

Tumor lysis syndrome

d)

Spinal cord compression

53.

Which finding indicates possible spinal cord compression in a client with metastatic bone cancer?

a)

Nausea and vomiting

b)

Urinary retention and back pain

c)

Chest tightness

d)

Constipation only

54.

Which laboratory change suggests tumor lysis syndrome after chemotherapy?

a)

↓ Potassium, ↓ Uric acid

b)

↑ Potassium, ↑ Phosphorus

c)

↑ Calcium

d)

↓ Phosphorus

55.

The nurse anticipates which medication for prevention of tumor lysis syndrome?

a)

Filgrastim (Neupogen)

b)

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

c)

Epoetin alfa (Epogen)

d)

Ondansetron (Zofran)

56.

Which side effect of vincristine (Oncovin) requires immediate reporting?

a)

Numbness or tingling of fingers

b)

Hair loss

c)

Fatigue

d)

Nausea

57.

The nurse should explain to a client receiving cisplatin that the major toxicity is:

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Ototoxicity only

d)

Cardiotoxicity

58.

Which nursing action is priority for a client with internal radiation implants?

a)

Limit visitors to 30 minutes/day

b)

Keep lead apron 10 ft away

c)

Allow pregnant visitors

d)

Re-position frequently

59.

The nurse recognizes which lab as most consistent with bone marrow suppression from chemotherapy?

a)

Hgb 14 g/dL, WBC 8,000, Plt 250,000

b)

Hgb 8 g/dL, WBC 2,000, Plt 40,000

c)

Hgb 12 g/dL, WBC 5,000, Plt 200,000

d)

Hgb 10 g/dL, WBC 10,000, Plt 400,000

60.

The nurse is reinforcing teaching about the purpose of combination chemotherapy. Which statement is correct?

a)

It increases the chance of resistance.

b)

It allows smaller doses with better results.

c)

It prevents all side effects.

d)

It works only on one phase of the cell cycle.

61.

A client with prostate cancer reports new bone pain and fatigue. The nurse interprets this as possible:

a)

Local invasion

b)

Metastasis

c)

Remission

d)

Side effect of treatment

62.

Which is the most important nursing action for a patient with myelosuppression and a platelet count of 30,000/μL?

a)

Monitor for constipation

b)

Use stool softeners and avoid IM injections

c)

Encourage hard-bristled toothbrush use

d)

Administer iron supplements

63.

A nurse caring for a patient with leukemia explains the goal of bone marrow transplantation is to:

a)

Replace malignant cells with healthy stem cells

b)

Eliminate infection risk

c)

Provide temporary relief

d)

Cure anemia

64.

Which statement best explains the purpose of adjuvant therapy after tumor resection?

a)

It’s used to prevent regrowth or metastasis.

b)

It shrinks the tumor before surgery.

c)

It’s given instead of surgery.

d)

It reverses all side effects.

65.

Which clinical finding indicates superior vena cava syndrome is worsening?

a)

Decreased facial swelling

b)

Increased cyanosis and difficulty breathing

c)

Lower extremity edema only

d)

Improved urine output

66.

The nurse notes a patient with laryngeal cancer has hoarseness and difficulty swallowing. These symptoms most likely indicate:

a)

Metastasis to the brain

b)

Tumor obstruction of the airway

c)

Bone metastasis

d)

Radiation toxicity

67.

Which patient statement suggests radiation skin care teaching was effective?

a)

I’ll use mild soap and pat the area dry.

b)

I’ll use my usual perfume on the site.

c)

I’ll apply heating pads to sore spots.

d)

I’ll scrub the markings off after therapy.

68.

A nurse is evaluating lab results for a client with multiple myeloma. Which result is expected?

a)

Hypercalcemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Hypocalcemia

69.

The nurse should include which instruction for a client with bone metastasis–related hypercalcemia?

a)

Limit fluid intake

b)

Increase weight-bearing activity

c)

Eat more dairy products

d)

Restrict sodium

70.

The most appropriate goal for a client with fatigue due to cancer and anemia is:

a)

Maintain activity without rest

b)

Balance rest and activity periods

71.

A client receiving chemotherapy reports bleeding gums and numerous bruises. Which lab value should the nurse check first?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

White blood cell count

c)

Platelet count

d)

Serum calcium

72.

A client with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of 400. Which nursing action is most important?

a)

Provide a high-protein diet

b)

Initiate neutropenic precautions

c)

Encourage daily weights

d)

Administer platelet transfusion

73.

Which clinical manifestation is expected in a client with anemia secondary to chemotherapy?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Fatigue and pallor

c)

Hypertension

d)

Petechiae

74.

The nurse reviews labs for a client receiving chemotherapy: Hgb 7.8 g/dL, WBC 2,200/μL, Platelets 90,000/μL. Which order should the nurse question?

a)

Administer epoetin alfa

b)

Provide bleeding precautions

c)

Administer intramuscular vitamin B12

d)

Encourage rest periods

75.

A client receiving radiation to the chest reports difficulty swallowing and heartburn. The nurse recognizes these symptoms are due to:

a)

Mucositis of the esophagus

b)

Spinal cord compression

c)

Tumor lysis syndrome

d)

Anemia

76.

The nurse is caring for a client with multiple myeloma. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

Serum calcium 11.8 mg/dL

b)

Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL

c)

Fatigue

d)

Mild back pain

77.

A patient receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) reports shortness of breath and new swelling in the ankles. Which action should the nurse take?

a)

Hold the medication and notify the provider

b)

Administer antiemetic

c)

Encourage deep breathing

d)

Elevate the legs

78.

Which statement by a client receiving chemotherapy indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

I will avoid large crowds.

b)

I can take ibuprofen if I get a headache.

c)

I’ll wash my hands frequently.

d)

I’ll call if I have a fever.

79.

The nurse explains to a client that combination chemotherapy is used primarily to:

a)

Reduce toxicity and drug resistance

b)

Lower costs

c)

Shorten treatment time

d)

Minimize alopecia

80.

A client with bone metastasis reports new onset of confusion and muscle weakness. Which lab result explains this finding?

a)

Calcium 7.0 mg/dL

b)

Calcium 11.6 mg/dL

c)

Sodium 138 mEq/L

d)

Potassium 4.1 mEq/L

81.

A patient with leukemia develops petechiae and bleeding gums. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?

a)

Impaired skin integrity

b)

Risk for bleeding

c)

Risk for infection

d)

Disturbed body image

82.

A client with Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is receiving chemotherapy and develops severe nausea. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

a)

Provide clear liquids and administer ondansetron

b)

Encourage carbonated beverages

c)

Offer high-fat foods

d)

Restrict oral intake

83.

The nurse is caring for a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma. Which finding is expected?

a)

Night sweats and painless enlarged lymph nodes

b)

Petechiae and nosebleeds

c)

Polyuria and thirst

d)

Painful lymph nodes and rash

84.

Which client is at greatest risk for developing infection after chemotherapy?

a)

WBC 8,000/μL

b)

WBC 4,000/μL

85.

A client receiving chemotherapy asks why hair loss occurs. The nurse’s best response is:

a)

Chemotherapy damages rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles.

b)

It happens only in people with low protein intake.

c)

It’s due to a vitamin deficiency.

d)

It’s a sign of infection.

86.

A nurse cares for a patient with breast cancer taking tamoxifen. Which adverse effect should be reported immediately?

a)

Hot flashes

b)

Calf pain and swelling

c)

Nausea

d)

Headache

87.

A patient with small cell lung cancer develops hyponatremia and concentrated urine. The nurse recognizes this as:

a)

Diabetes insipidus

b)

SIADH

c)

Addison’s disease

d)

Cushing’s syndrome

88.

A nurse prepares to administer filgrastim (Neupogen). This medication is given to:

a)

Stimulate RBC production

b)

Increase neutrophil count

c)

Raise platelet count

d)

Replace plasma proteins

89.

A client with pancytopenia should avoid which activity?

a)

Eating cooked vegetables

b)

Using a soft toothbrush

c)

Receiving live vaccines

d)

Taking acetaminophen

90.

A patient with advanced cancer reports constant pain unrelieved by current medications. Which nursing action has the highest priority?

a)

Contact provider to reassess pain management plan

b)

Encourage distraction and deep breathing

c)

Increase rest periods

d)

Offer warm compresses