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transistor review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What do you call an amplifier which has an output current flowing during the whole input current cycle?

a)

class AB amplifier

b)

class B amplifier

c)

class A amplifier

d)

class C amplifier

2.

Class A amplifier can be built from what transistor configuration?

a)

common base

b)

common emitter

c)

common collector

d)

all of the above

3.

If a transistor amplifier provides a 360° output signal, it is classified as

a)

class A

b)

class B

c)

class C

d)

class D

4.

An amplifier that delivers an output signal of 180° only.

a)

class A

b)

class B

c)

class AB

d)

class D

5.

A class of amplifiers wherein the output signal swings more than 180° but less than 360°.

a)

class A

b)

class B

c)

class C

d)

class AB

6.

What is the distinguishing feature of a class C amplifier?

a)

Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle

b)

Output is present for the entire signal cycle

c)

Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle

d)

Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees of the input signal cycle

7.

A full 360° sine-wave signal is applied as an input to an unknown class of amplifier, if the output delivers only a pulse of less than 180°, of what class does this amplifier belongs?

a)

class AB

b)

class B

c)

class C

d)

class D

8.

Which class of amplifiers that is intended for pulse operation?

a)

class B

b)

class C

c)

class D

d)

class S

9.

What is the efficiency of a series-fed class A amplifier?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

78.5%

d)

above 90%

10.

A class A amplifier has an efficiency of only 25%, but this can be increased if the output is coupled with a transformer. Up to how much is its efficiency will reach due to coupling?

a)

36.5%

b)

50%

c)

68.5%

d)

78.5%

11.

Class B amplifiers deliver an output signal of 180° and have a maximum efficiency of

a)

50%

b)

68.5%

c)

78.5%

d)

above 90%

12.

An amplifier of class AB means its output signal is between the output of class B and A, such that it varies from 180° (class B) to 360° (class A). How about its efficiency?

a)

Efficiency of class AB is in between the efficiency of class A and B, that is from 25% - 78.5%.

b)

It is always as efficient as class A (25%).

c)

It is always as efficient as class B (78.5%).

d)

The efficiency of class AB is the average of the efficiencies of both class A and class B (25% + 78.5%)/2 = 51.75%

13.

Among the given amplifiers below, which is the most efficient?

a)

class A (series-fed)

b)

class B (directly-coupled)

c)

class A (transformer-coupled)

d)

class A (capacitor-coupled)

14.

In order to have the best efficiency and stability, where at the loadline should a solid state power amplifier be operated?

a)

Just below the saturation point

b)

Just above the saturation point

c)

At 1.414 times the saturation point

d)

At the saturation point

15.

In most transistor class A amplifiers, the quiescent point is set

a)

near saturation

b)

near cutoff

c)

below cutoff

d)

at the center

16.

For a class B amplifier, the operating point or Q-point is set at

a)

the top of the load line

b)

saturation

c)

the center

d)

cutoff

17.

The Q-point for class A amplifier is at the active region, while for class B it is at cutoff region, how about for class AB?

a)

it is slightly below saturation

b)

it is slightly above saturation

c)

it is slightly above cutoff

d)

it is at the saturation region

18.

Where does the Q-point of a class C amplifier positioned?

a)

at saturation region

b)

at active region

c)

at cutoff region

d)

below cutoff region

19.

Which of the amplifiers given below that is considered as non-linear?

a)

class A

b)

class B

c)

class AB

d)

class C

20.

Which amplifiers can be used for linear amplification?

a)

class A

b)

class B

c)

class C

d)

class A or B

21.

Two class B amplifiers connected such that one amplifies the positive cycle and the other amplifies the remaining negative cycle. Both output signals are then coupled by a transformer to the load.

a)

transformer-coupled push –pull amplifier

b)

quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier

c)

complementary-symmetry amplifier

d)

transformer-coupled class A amplifier

22.

A push-pull amplifier that uses npn and pnp transistors to amplify the positive and negative cycles respectively.

a)

transformer-coupled push –pull amplifier

b)

quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier

c)

complementary-symmetry amplifier

d)

transformer-coupled class A amplifier

23.

A push-pull amplifier that uses either npn or pnp as its final stage. The circuit configuration looks like the complementary-symmetry.

a)

transformer-coupled push –pull amplifier

b)

quasi-complementary push-pull amplifier

c)

complementary-symmetry amplifier

d)

feed-back pair amplifier

24.

Basically, which class of amplifiers has the least distortion?

a)

class A

b)

class B

c)

class C

d)

class D

25.

The overall gain of an amplifier in cascade is

a)

the sum

b)

the average of each

c)

the product

d)

100% the sum

26.

If three amplifiers with a gain of 8 each are in cascade, how much is the overall gain?

a)

72

b)

24

c)

512

d)

8

27.

A multistage transistor amplifier arranged in a conventional series manner, the output of one stage is forward-coupled to the next stage.

a)

cascaded amplifier

b)

cascode amplifier

c)

darlington configuration

d)

feed-back pair configuration

28.

A direct-coupled two-stage transistor configuration wherein the output of the first transistor is directly coupled and amplified by the second transistor. This configuration gives a very high current gain.

a)

cascade configuration

b)

cascode configuration

c)

darlington configuration

d)

feed-back pair

29.

A two-stage transistor amplifier in which the output collector of the first stage provides input to the emitter of the second stage. The final output is then taken from the collector of the second stage.

a)

cascade configuration

b)

cascode configuration

c)

quasi-complementary

d)

complementary amplifier

30.

Transistor configuration known to have a super-beta (β2).

a)

Cascade

b)

cascade

c)

darlington

d)

differential

31.

Transistor arrangement that operates like a darlington but uses a combination of pnp and npn transistors instead of both npn.

a)

Differential

b)

common

c)

cascade

d)

feedback pair

32.

The three terminals of a bipolar junction transistor are called:

a)

p,n,p

b)

n,p,n

c)

input, output, ground

d)

base, emitter, collector

33.

In a pnp transistor, the p regions are:

a)

base and emitter

b)

base and collector

c)

emitter and collector

d)

any of these

34.

For operation as an amplifier, the base of an npn transistor must be:

a)

positive with respect to emitter

b)

negative with respect to emitter

c)

positive with respect to collector

d)

0 V

35.

35. The emitter current is always:

a)

greater than the collector current

b)

less than the base current

c)

equal to the collector current

d)

a and c

36.

The βDC of a transistor is its:

a)

current gain

b)

voltage gain

c)

power gain

d)

internal resistance

37.

If IC is 50 times larger than IB, then βDC is:

a)

0.02

b)

100

c)

50

d)

500

38.

The approximate voltage across the forward-biased base-emitter junction of a silicon BJT is:

a)

0 V

b)

0.7 V

c)

0.3 V

d)

VBB

39.

The bias condition for a transistor to be used as a linear amplifier is called:

a)

forward-reverse

b)

forward-forward

c)

reverse-reverse

d)

collector bias

40.

If the output of a transistor amplifier is 5 V rms and the input is 100 mV rms, the voltage gain is:

a)

5

b)

500

c)

50

d)

100

41.

When operated in cutoff saturation, the transistor acts like a:

a)

linear amplifier

b)

switch

c)

variable capacitor

d)

variable resistor

42.

Once in saturation, a further increase in base current will:

a)

cause the collector current to increase

b)

not affect the collector current

c)

cause the collector current to decrease

d)

turn the transistor off

43.

The parameter hfe corresponds to:

a)

βDC

b)

βac

c)

r’e

d)

r’c

44.

The input resistance of a common-base amplifier is:

a)

very low

b)

very high

c)

the same as a CE

d)

the same as a CC

45.

Each stage of a four stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 15. The overall voltage gain is:

a)

60

b)

15

c)

50,625

d)

3078

46.

An amplifier that operates in the linear region at all times is:

a)

Class A

b)

Class AB

c)

Class B

d)

Class C

47.

A certain class A power amplifier delivers 5 W to a load with an input signal power of 100 mW. The power gain is:

a)

100

b)

50

c)

250

d)

5

48.

The JFET is:

a)

A unipolar device

b)

A voltage-controlled device

c)

A current-controlled device

d)

answers (a) and (b)

49.

The channel of a JFET is between the:

a)

gate and drain

b)

drain and source

c)

gate and source

d)

input and output

50.

The constant-current region of FET lies between:

a)

Cutoff and saturation

b)

Cutoff and pinch-off

c)

0 and IDSS

d)

Pinch-off and breakdown

51.

IDSS is:

a)

The drain current with the source shorted

b)

The drain current at cut-off

c)

The maximum possible drain current

d)

The midpoint drain current

52.

At cutoff, the JFET channel is:

a)

At its widest point

b)

Completely closed by the depletion region

c)

Extremely narrow

d)

Reverse-biased

53.

A certain JFET data sheet gives VGS(off) = -4V. The pinch-off voltage, VP:

a)

Cannot be determined

b)

Is -4 V

c)

Depends on VGS

d)

Is +4 V

54.

To be used as a variable resistor, a JFET must be:

a)

An n-channel device

b)

A p-channel device

c)

Biased in the ohmic region

d)

Biased in saturation

55.

A MOSFET differs from a JFET mainly because

a)

Of the power rating

b)

The MOSFET has two gates

c)

The JFET has a pn junction

d)

MOSFETs do not have a physical channel

56.

A DE-MOSFET operates in

a)

The depletion mode only

b)

The enhancement mode only

c)

The ohmic region only

d)

Both the depletion and enhancement modes

57.

A transistor has how many doped regions?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

58.

What is one important thing transistors do?

a)

Amplify weak signals

b)

Rectify line voltage

c)

Regulate voltage

d)

Emit light

59.

The barrier potential across each silicon depletion layer is

a)

0

b)

0.3 V

c)

0.7 V

d)

1 V

60.

Which condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

a)

It must have a negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input

b)

It must have a gain of less than 1

c)

It must have a positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses

d)

It must be neutralized

61.

Circuits that produces alternating or pulsating current or voltage.

a)

Damper

b)

Generator

c)

Oscillator

d)

Mixer

62.

What do you call the oscillator circuit that uses a tapped coil in the tuned circuit?

a)

Pierce

b)

Colpitts

c)

Hartley

d)

Ultraudion

63.

What determines the resonant frequency of a crystal?

a)

external components

b)

the size and thickness of the crystal material

c)

the temperature of the crystal

d)

the hermitic seal

64.

A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is divided into input and feedback portions by a capacitive voltage divider.

a)

Hartley capacitor

b)

Colpitts oscillator

c)

Relaxation oscillator

d)

Klystron oscillator

65.

A self-excited oscillator in which the tank is divided into input and feedback portions by an inductive voltage divider or a tapped coil.

a)

Hartley oscillator

b)

Colpitts oscillator

c)

Relaxation oscillator

d)

Klystron oscillator

66.

A circuit usually containing two transistors or tubes in an RC-coupled amplifier, the two active devices switch each other alternately on and off.

a)

Multivibrator

b)

Signal generator

c)

Oscillator

d)

Thyristor

67.

A multivibrator that generates one output pulse for each input trigger pulse.

a)

Monostable

b)

astable

c)

bistable

d)

tristate

68.

Monostable multivibrator is also known as

a)

one shot

b)

single shot

c)

direct shot

d)

one shot or single shot

69.

What determines the pulse time in a monostable multivibrator?

a)

resistor combinations

b)

inductor combinations

c)

capacitor combinations

d)

resistor and capacitor combinations

70.

A multivibrator having two stable state

a)

Monostable

b)

bistable

c)

astable

d)

unstable

71.

Is also known as Eccles/Jordan circuit

a)

Monostable multivibrator

b)

astable multivibrator

c)

bistable multivibrator

d)

unstable multivibrator

72.

Flip-flop is actually a _______ multivibrator.

a)

Monostable

b)

bistable

c)

astable

d)

unstable

73.

Considered as a free-running multivibrator

a)

Monostable

b)

bistable

c)

astable

d)

unstable

74.

Filter that is characterized by a relatively flat passband and slow roll-off rate

a)

Butterworth

b)

Elliptic

c)

Chebyshev

d)

Notch

75.

Filter that is characterized by ripple at the passband and fast roll-off rate

a)

Butterworth

b)

Elliptic

c)

Chebyshev

d)

Notch

76.

An LC circuit resonates at 2000 kHz and has a Q of 100. Find the lower and upper cut-off frequencies.

a)

1980 kHz, 2020 kHz

b)

1950 kHz, 2050 kHz

c)

1990 kHz, 2010 kHz

d)

1900 kHz, 2100 kHz

77.

What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads are in series?

a)

50.3 MHz

b)

15.9 MHz

c)

15.9 kHz

d)

50.3 kHz

78.

What happens to the input resistance of an amplifier employing voltage-series feedback?

a)

It is increased

b)

It remains the same

c)

It is decreased

d)

Equals infinity

79.

What happens to the output resistance of an amplifier employing voltage-shunt feedback?

a)

It is increased

b)

It remains the same

c)

It is decreased

d)

Equals infinity

80.

If the gain of an amplifier without feedback is 10 and with negative feedback is 8, then the feedback fraction is

a)

0.025

b)

0.9

c)

0.8

d)

0.225

81.

_____ is the progressive decay with time in the amplitude of the free oscillation in a circuit.

a)

Decrement

b)

Pulse decay time

c)

Damping

d)

Dancing

82.

Negative feedback in an amplifier:

a)

Causes oscillation

b)

Increases sensitivity.

c)

Reduces the gain.

d)

Is used in an Armstrong oscillator.

83.

The base of an npn transistor is thin and

a)

Heavily doped

b)

Lightly doped

c)

Metallic

d)

Doped by a pentavalent material

84.

Most of the electrons in the base of an npn transistor flow

a)

Out of the base lead

b)

Into the collector

c)

Into the emitter

d)

Into the base supply

85.

The current gain of a transistor is the ratio of the

a)

Collector current to emitter current

b)

Collector current to base current

c)

Base current to collector current

d)

Emitter current to collector current

86.

The fact that only a few holes are in the base region means the base is

a)

Lightly doped

b)

Heavily doped

c)

Undoped

d)

None of the above

87.

What is the most important fact about the collector current?

a)

It is measured in milliamperes.

b)

It equals the base current divided by the current gain.

c)

It is small.

d)

It approximately equals the emitter current.

88.

If the current gain is 200 and the collector current is 100 mA, the base current is

a)

0.5 mA

b)

2 mA

c)

2 A

d)

20 A

89.

The current gain of a transistor is defined as the ratio of the collector current to the

a)

Base current

b)

Emitter current

c)

Supply current

d)

Collector current

90.

A JFET operates in the current-source region when

a)

VDS > Vp

b)

VDS < Vp

c)

VDS = 0 V

d)

VGS = 0 V

91.

A JFET parameter that describes how effective the gate-source voltage is in controlling the drain current is called its

a)

gamma, γ

b)

Beta, β

c)

transconductance, gm

d)

none of the above

92.

Which JFET amplifier is also known as a source follower?

a)

the common-source amplifier

b)

the common-gate amplifier

c)

the common-channel amplifier

d)

the common-drain amplifier

93.

In which JFET amplifier are the ac input and output voltages 180° out of phase?

a)

the common-gate amplifier

b)

the common-source amplifier

c)

the common-drain amplifier

d)

the source follower

94.

Which of the following JFET amplifiers has the lowest input impedance?

a)

the common-gate amplifier

b)

the common-source amplifier

c)

the common-drain amplifier

d)

the source follower

95.

Which of the following JFET amplifiers has a high Zin, a low Zout, and a voltage gain less than one?

a)

the common-gate amplifier

b)

the common-source amplifier

c)

the source follower

d)

both a and b

96.

A depletion-type MOSFET is a

a)

normally off device

b)

normally on device

c)

current-controlled device

d)

none of the above

97.

An enhancement type MOSFET

a)

normally off device

b)

normally on device

c)

low input impedance device

d)

current-controlled device

98.

Which of the following transistor amplifier configurations provides a 180° phase shift between the ac input and output voltages?

a)

the common-emitter amplifier

b)

the emitter-follower

c)

the common-base amplifier

d)

the common-collector amplifier

99.

Which type of transistor amplifier is also known as the emitter follower?

a)

the common-base amplifier

b)

the common-collector amplifier

c)

the common-emitter amplifier

d)

none of the above

100.

Which type of transistor amplifier has a voltage gain, AV, of approximately one, or unity?

a)

the common-base amplifier

b)

the common-emitter amplifier

c)

the common-collector amplifier

d)

none of the above

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