wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CPD CPD CPD MIDTERM 417CM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the short title of Republic Act No. 9280 as stated in Section 1?

a)

Customs Brokers Act of 2004

b)

Customs and Tariff Administration Law

c)

Professional Regulation Commission Act

d)

Import-Export Services Act

2.

Which statement best reflects the State policy declared in Section 2 regarding customs brokers?

a)

To privatize customs administration fully

b)

To give priority attention and support to professionalizing the customs brokers profession

c)

To limit customs brokerage to government entities only

d)

To abolish licensure for customs brokers

3.

According to the Objectives in Section 3, which area is NOT explicitly included?

a)

Standardization and regulation of customs administration education

b)

Examination and registration of customs brokers

c)

Supervision, control and regulation of the practice of customs broker profession

d)

Privatization of customs broker services

4.

In Section 4, which definition correctly matches the term with its reference?

a)

"Board" refers to the Professional Regulation Commission

b)

"Commission" refers to the Professional Regulatory Board for Customs Brokers

c)

"Customs Broker" is any person holding a valid Certificate of Registration/Professional Identification Card issued by the PRC

d)

"Act" refers to the Tariff and Customs Code

5.

Under Section 5, who appoints the chairman and two members of the Professional Regulatory Board for Customs Brokers?

a)

The Commission on Higher Education

b)

The Professional Regulation Commission

c)

The President of the Philippines

d)

The accredited professional organization of customs brokers

6.

What is the required list size of nominees per position from which the Commission submits recommendées to the President for the Board under Section 5?

a)

Three nominees per position

b)

Five nominees per position

c)

Seven nominees per position

d)

Nine nominees per position

7.

Within what period must the new Professional Regulatory Board for Customs Brokers be constituted from the effectivity of the Act?

a)

Within one month

b)

Within two months

c)

Within three months

d)

Within six months

8.

Which activity is part of the scope of practice of customs brokers as described in Section 6?

a)

Issuing import licenses

b)

Representing importers and exporters before government agencies in valuation and classification cases

c)

Setting tariff rates

d)

Auditing the Professional Regulation Commission

9.

Which is a power of the Board under Section 7?

a)

To legislate new tariff laws

b)

To promulgate and enforce rules and regulations, including the Code of Ethics and Code of Technical Standards for customs brokers

c)

To collect customs duties at ports of entry

d)

To appoint CHED officials

10.

Section 7 authorizes the Board to issue which of the following to secure attendance of respondents or witnesses or production of documents?

a)

Writ of habeas corpus

b)

Subpoena and subpoena duces tecum

c)

Search warrant

d)

Arrest warrant

11.

Which qualification is required for the chairman and members of the Board at the time of appointment under Section 8?

a)

Must be a graduate of any bachelor's degree

b)

Must be a registered and licensed customs broker with at least ten years of experience prior to appointment

c)

Must be a current faculty member teaching customs administration

d)

Must be an incumbent officer of the accredited national organization of customs brokers

12.

What is the term of office for members of the Board as provided in Section 9?

a)

One year, non-renewable

b)

Two years, renewable indefinitely

c)

Three years, with possible reappointment for a second term

d)

Six years, non-renewable

13.

Which section states that every applicant seeking to be registered and licensed as a professional customs broker shall undergo an examination?

a)

Section 14: Licensure Examination

b)

Section 16: Qualifications of Applicants

c)

Section 17: Ratings in the Examination

d)

Section 19: Issuance of the Certificate of Registration

14.

According to the scope of examination for customs broker licensure, which of the following is included?

a)

Maritime law litigation procedures

b)

Customs Laws and Implementing Rules and Regulations

c)

Corporate income tax auditing

d)

Airport security protocols

15.

Which topic is explicitly listed under the scope of examination as related to international agreements?

a)

International Maritime Safety Codes

b)

World Health Organization Regulations

c)

Tariff Laws and International Trade Agreements

d)

Foreign Exchange Control Acts

16.

What provision allows the Board to rearrange, modify, add, or exclude any of the examination subjects as the need arises?

a)

A standing order from the Commission

b)

A clause in Section 15 on conformity with technological and modern changes

c)

An annual resolution by professional organizations

d)

A presidential directive

17.

Which qualification is required at the time of filing an application for the licensure examination?

a)

Ownership of a customs brokerage firm

b)

Citizenship per reciprocity provisions

c)

Two years of field experience

d)

Passing a pre-board interview

18.

For a limited time after the Act’s effectivity, which alternative academic credential qualifies an applicant for the exam?

a)

Doctorate in International Law

b)

Master’s degree in Customs Administration within five years from the Act’s effectivity

c)

Associate degree in Logistics

d)

Certificate in Trade Facilitation

19.

What minimum average rating must a candidate obtain to pass the licensure examination, with no rating below the specified floor in any subject?

a)

70% average, no subject below 60%

b)

75% average, no subject below 60%

c)

80% average, no subject below 65%

d)

85% average, no subject below 70%

20.

Within how many days from the date of the examination must the Board release the results?

a)

5 days

b)

7 days

c)

10 days

d)

15 days

21.

Which statement about the Certificate of Registration is correct under Section 19?

a)

It does not require any signature from the Commission.

b)

It indicates entitlement to practice with benefits and privileges as a customs broker.

c)

It is valid only within the Bureau of Customs district where issued.

d)

It is automatically revoked after one year.

22.

How often must the Professional Identification Card be renewed according to Section 19?

a)

Annually

b)

Every two years

c)

Every three years

d)

Every five years

23.

Which is a ground for the Board’s refusal to register a successful examinee?

a)

Failure to attend an orientation seminar

b)

Conviction by a court of competent jurisdiction of a criminal offense involving moral turpitude

c)

Nonmembership in an accredited organization

d)

Missing the oath-taking ceremony date

24.

After proper notice and hearing, which sanction may the Board impose under Section 21?

a)

Imposing a monetary fine only

b)

Revocation of the Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card

c)

Transferring the registrant to another district

d)

Permanent disqualification without cause

25.

After how long from the date of revocation may the Board reinstate any revoked Certificate of Registration, per Section 22?

a)

One year

b)

Two years

c)

Three years

d)

Five years

26.

Which entity prepares, updates, and maintains the roster of professional customs brokers?

a)

The Bureau of Customs alone

b)

The Commission alone

c)

The Board in coordination with the accredited professional organization

d)

The Department of Finance

27.

According to the prohibition against unauthorized practice, which condition must be met before a person may use the title or hold themselves out as a customs broker in the Philippines?

a)

They must be employed by a licensed customs brokerage firm.

b)

They must have passed the licensure examination and hold a valid Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card or special/temporary permit.

c)

They must have completed a one-year apprenticeship under a licensed broker.

d)

They must be a member of the accredited professional organization.

28.

Which statement best explains the prohibition against corporate practice for customs brokers?

a)

Only corporations may be registered for customs brokerage services.

b)

Any firm or association can be licensed if it employs licensed individual brokers.

c)

The practice is a professional service based on individual and personal qualifications; no firm, company, or association may be registered or licensed as such.

d)

Sole proprietorships are exempt from licensing requirements.

29.

Under the prohibition against financing activities by customs brokers, which action is not allowed?

a)

Advising clients on required duties and taxes.

b)

Advancing and financing on behalf of client-importers the payment of duties and taxes, arrastre charges, wharfage dues, storage fees and other port charges.

c)

Submitting required documents to the Bureau of Customs.

d)

Coordinating with arrastre operators for cargo release.

30.

What is the status of the accredited professional organization for customs brokers under the Act?

a)

Multiple national organizations may be recognized by the Board.

b)

There shall be one national organization recognized by the Board and the Commission as the one and only accredited professional organization of customs brokers.

c)

No professional organization is recognized; only individual licensure matters.

d)

Only regional organizations may be accredited.

31.

Which of the following penalties may be imposed for violations of the Act, including its implementing rules and regulations?

a)

A fine of not more than Fifty thousand pesos (P50,000.00) only.

b)

Imprisonment of not more than three (3) months only.

c)

A fine between Fifty thousand pesos (P50,000.00) and Five hundred thousand pesos (P500,000.00), or imprisonment of not less than six (6) months nor more than six (6) years, or both at the court’s discretion.

d)

Community service mandated by the Board.

32.

Which body is responsible for adopting and promulgating the Code of Ethics and Code of Technical Standards for the customs broker profession?

a)

The accredited professional organization alone

b)

The Board, with issuance by the accredited professional organization

c)

The Commission alone

d)

The Bureau of Customs

33.

Which clause ensures that if any part of the Act is declared unconstitutional or invalid, the remaining parts are not affected?

a)

Repealing Clause

b)

Transitory Provision

c)

Appropriations Clause

d)

Separability Clause

34.

When does the Act take effect according to the Effectivity provision?

a)

Immediately upon signature by the President

b)

Fifteen (15) days after publication in the Official Gazette or in a major newspaper of general circulation in the Philippines

c)

Thirty (30) days after approval by Congress

d)

Upon issuance of implementing rules and regulations

35.

What does Republic Act No. 9853 primarily amend with respect to the Customs Brokers Act of 2004?

a)

Tariff schedules and rates

b)

Acts constituting practice and admission to professional practice

c)

Criminal penalties for smuggling

d)

Customs valuation methods

36.

For corporations engaged in customs brokering, what is the minimum paid-up capital required before accreditation by the Bureau of Customs (BOC)?

a)

Php100,000.00

b)

Php500,000.00

c)

Php1,000,000.00

d)

Php2,000,000.00

37.

In the context of RA 9853, the phrase "engaging in the business of customs brokerage" primarily means which of the following?

a)

Owning a customs warehouse

b)

Making representations on behalf of importer-clients in the BOC and other government agencies

c)

Operating a freight forwarding company

d)

Issuing bills of lading to importers

38.

What is the effectivity clause of RA 9853?

a)

Effective immediately upon presidential signature

b)

Takes effect 30 days after publication in the Official Gazette only

c)

Takes effect 15 days after publication in the Official Gazette or in any newspaper of general circulation in the Philippines

d)

Takes effect at the start of the next fiscal year

39.

Which statement best reflects the repealing clause under RA 9853?

a)

Previous laws remain fully in force regardless of conflict

b)

All conflicting or inconsistent laws, rules, and regulations are repealed, modified, or amended accordingly

c)

Only executive orders are affected by the repeal

d)

Only local ordinances are repealed if inconsistent

40.

What does a CPD credit unit represent according to the IRR?

a)

A certificate issued by the PRC

b)

The value of an amount of learning transferable to a qualification

c)

A membership in the CPD Council

d)

A diploma received after formal study

41.

Which entity is accredited by the CPD Council to conduct CPD Programs?

a)

CPD Council

b)

CPD Provider

c)

Professional

d)

PRC

42.

Formal learning is best described as which of the following?

a)

Learning that occurs in daily life and is assessed for recognition

b)

Educational arrangements in recognized institutions leading to diplomas and qualifications

c)

Learning acquired through hobbies and volunteer activities

d)

Unstructured online activities without accreditation

43.

Which term refers to learning that occurs in daily life and can contribute to a qualification through recognition, validation, and accreditation?

a)

Informal learning

b)

Nonformal learning

c)

Self-directed learning

d)

Online learning activities

44.

Learning outcomes refer to what a learner can be expected to do as a result of a learning experience. Which list best completes this definition?

a)

Know, understand, and/or demonstrate

b)

Enroll, attend, and graduate

c)

Search, browse, and download

d)

Plan, budget, and report

45.

Which statement best defines nonformal learning in the CPD context?

a)

Learning that takes place only in universities

b)

Structured or flexible learning acquired in addition or alternative to formal learning

c)

Learning that is unassessed and unrecognized

d)

Independent study counted only as prior learning

46.

What is the Philippine Qualifications Framework (PQF) described as in the IRR?

a)

A set of online modules for professionals

b)

A quality assured national system for development, recognition, and award of qualifications at defined levels

c)

A database of accredited CPD Providers

d)

An exam administered by the PRC

47.

Pathways and Equivalencies primarily aim to do which of the following?

a)

Restrict movement between sectors

b)

Provide access to qualifications and assist mobility between education, training sectors, and the labor market

c)

Eliminate the need for prior learning assessment

d)

Create new PRC IDs

48.

Which of the following is identified as self-directed learning in the IRR?

a)

Institutional seminars accredited by CPD Council only

b)

Learning activities such as online training or nondegree courses not undergoing CPD accreditation but may be applied for CPD units

c)

Only work-based apprenticeships

d)

Any activity that automatically grants CPD credit units

49.

According to Section 4 on Strengthening the CPD Program, which goal ensures alignment with international standards?

a)

Enhance competencies pursuant to the PQF, AQRF, and ASEANMRAs

b)

Issue Professional Identification Cards

c)

Mandate only formal learning

d)

Limit credit transfer mechanisms

50.

Which items are explicitly listed under the Nature of CPD Programs?

a)

Only formal classroom courses

b)

Formal learning, nonformal learning, informal learning, self-directed learning, online learning activities, and professional work experience

c)

Online learning only

d)

Volunteer activities only

51.

According to the IRR, who serves as the chairperson of the CPD Council for a profession?

a)

A member of the PRC appointed by the President

b)

A member of the PRB chosen by the PRB concerned to sit in the CPD Council

c)

The Executive Director of the CPD Council Secretariat

d)

The president of the AIPO/APO

52.

What is the minimum composition of a CPD Council as specified in the IRR?

a)

A chairperson and one member

b)

A chairperson and two members

c)

Two co-chairpersons and one member

d)

Three members without a chairperson

53.

Who provides the list of recommendees from national professional organizations when the AIPO/APO is absent?

a)

The PRC Council Secretariat

b)

The PRB concerned

c)

The Board of Governors of the PRC

d)

The national organization of deans

54.

Within how many working days shall the PRC designate the first CPD Council member after receipt of the list from national professional organizations?

a)

10 working days

b)

15 working days

c)

20 working days

d)

30 working days

55.

Who is designated as the second member of the CPD Council under normal circumstances?

a)

The president or officer of the national organization of deans or department chairpersons of schools, colleges, or universities offering the licensure course

b)

Any licensed professional nominated by the PRC

c)

A representative from the Civil Service Commission

d)

The Executive Director of the CPD Secretariat

56.

What is the regular term of office for the first and second members of the CPD Council?

a)

One year unless renewed

b)

Two years unless sooner replaced through a resolution by the concerned organizations

c)

Three years fixed with no replacements

d)

Six months pending PRC approval

57.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a power or function of the CPD Council?

a)

Evaluate applications for accreditation of CPD Providers and Programs

b)

Monitor implementation of CPD Programs

c)

Issue professional licenses to new registrants

d)

Develop mechanisms for validation and recognition of various learning processes

58.

What role does the CPD Council Secretariat play according to the IRR?

a)

It issues licenses to professionals

b)

It provides technical, administrative, and operational support to the CPD Councils and PRBs

c)

It replaces the CPD Council in decision-making

d)

It determines the number of CPD credit units required

59.

Who heads the CPD Council Secretariat?

a)

The PRC Chairperson

b)

An Executive Director appointed by the PRC

c)

The President of the AIPO/APO

d)

The Secretary of the CSC

60.

Under Article III, which statement best describes the status of CPD in the renewal of PICs for registered and licensed professionals?

a)

CPD is optional and purely voluntary

b)

CPD is mandatory for renewal of PICs

c)

CPD applies only to newly licensed professionals

d)

CPD is required only every five years

61.

How are duly validated and recognized CPD credit units treated under the IRR?

a)

They expire at the end of each year

b)

They are accumulated and transferred in accordance with the PQF pathways and equivalencies

c)

They can be converted to cash allowances

d)

They are recorded only at the provider level and not by professionals

62.

Which entities shall formulate and implement a Career Progression and Specialization Program that forms part of the CPD?

a)

The PRC alone

b)

The AIPO/APO alone

c)

The PRC and the PRBs, in consultation with the AIPO/APO, CSC, and other concerned government agencies and industry stakeholders

d)

Private firms only

63.

What is the funding arrangement for the implementation of the CPD Act provisions according to the Final Provisions?

a)

Funded exclusively by private donations

b)

Included in PRC programs and annual submissions for the General Appropriations Act

c)

Collected from mandatory provider fees only

d)

Charged to individual professionals’ renewal fees exclusively

64.

Within what period must the PRC and PRBs promulgate the IRR from the effectivity of the Act?

a)

Three months

b)

Six months

c)

One year

d)

Fifteen days

65.

What is the penalty for a professional adjudged guilty of fraudulent acts relating to the CPD aside from penalties under other laws?

a)

Permanent disqualification from any employment

b)

Suspension or revocation of PRC Certificate of Registration and/or Certificate of Specialization

c)

Payment of double license renewal fees

d)

Mandatory community service only

66.

What happens to laws and issuances inconsistent with the CPD Act’s provisions?

a)

They remain valid until separately repealed

b)

They are automatically extended for one year

c)

They are repealed or modified accordingly

d)

They are converted into PRC memoranda

67.

When does the Act take effect?

a)

Immediately upon presidential signature

b)

Fifteen days after complete publication in the Official Gazette or in two newspapers of general circulation

c)

Six months after the IRR is issued

d)

At the start of the next fiscal year

68.

Which primary purpose best describes Section 4 on strengthening the CPD Program under Resolution No. 1032?

a)

To mandate licensure exams annually for all professionals

b)

To formulate and implement CPD Programs across regulated professions

c)

To abolish nonformal and informal learning pathways

d)

To centralize accreditation exclusively under universities

69.

According to Section 4.1, CPD Programs aim to enhance competencies pursuant to which frameworks related to international arrangements?

a)

PQF and AQRF

b)

TESDA and CHED

c)

ISO 9001 and ISO 14001

d)

WTO and IMF

70.

Section 4.2 emphasizes alignment of competencies and qualifications at which levels?

a)

Local only

b)

National and international

c)

Regional only

d)

Institutional only

71.

What does Section 4.3 require for learning outcomes from formal, nonformal, and informal sources?

a)

Automatic credit without evaluation

b)

Development of quality assured mechanisms for validation, accreditation, and recognition

c)

Exclusion from CPD crediting

d)

Recognition only for university-based training

72.

Section 4.4 highlights maintaining core and developing new competencies to respond to what needs?

a)

Personal hobbies

b)

National, regional, and international labor market and industry needs

c)

Only government mandates

d)

Only employer requests

73.

Which is NOT listed as a type of CPD Program activity in Section 5?

a)

Formal learning

b)

Nonformal learning

c)

Volunteer community service unrelated to profession

d)

Online learning activities

74.

Section 5 states that CPD activities range from structured to nonstructured and include which of the following?

a)

Only classroom instruction

b)

Formal, nonformal, informal, self-directed, online learning, and professional work experience

c)

Only seminars conducted by PRC

d)

Only international conferences

75.

Under Section 6, which bodies undertake the overall implementation of CPD Programs?

a)

CHED and TESDA

b)

PRC and the Professional Regulatory Boards (PRBs)

c)

DOLE and DTI

d)

Local Government Units

76.

Which responsibility is specified in Section 6.1 for PRC and PRBs regarding CPD?

a)

To abolish CPD Councils

b)

To organize CPD Councils for each regulated profession and promulgate guidelines for their operation

c)

To delegate all tasks to private providers

d)

To accredit only foreign programs

77.

Who serves as chairperson of each CPD Council as provided in Section 7.1?

a)

An elected representative from CPD providers

b)

A member of the concerned PRB chosen by the PRB

c)

A university student leader

d)

The PRC Chairperson by default

78.

According to Section 7.4, what is the term of office for the first and second members of the CPD Council unless sooner replaced?

a)

One year

b)

Two years

c)

Three years

d)

Four years

79.

Section 8 assigns which core function to the CPD Council for each profession?

a)

Conduct licensure examinations

b)

Ensure adequate and appropriate provision of CPD Programs and evaluate accreditation applications

c)

Set national wage standards

d)

Issue professional identification cards

80.

Which of the following is a qualification for a local Individual/Sole Proprietor CPD provider?

a)

Being a student enrolled in a CPD program

b)

A registered and licensed professional of good standing

c)

Having at least 10 years of industry experience regardless of license

d)

Ownership of a CPD training venue

81.

For a local Individual/Sole Proprietor CPD provider, which condition is explicitly required regarding criminal history?

a)

Completion of community service hours

b)

Non-conviction of a crime involving moral turpitude

c)

Submission of police clearance annually

d)

No pending administrative cases

82.

Which registration is required for a local Individual/Sole Proprietor CPD provider to operate?

a)

Registration only with the Securities and Exchange Commission

b)

Registration with the Department of Trade and Industry and the Bureau of Internal Revenue

c)

Registration with the Department of Education

d)

No registration is required if licensed

83.

For a local Firm/Partnership/Corporation CPD provider, which document must include training and development of professionals as a purpose?

a)

Bylaws of the Professional Regulatory Board

b)

Articles of Incorporation/Partnership

c)

Employee handbook

d)

Annual financial statements

84.

A local Firm/Partnership/Corporation CPD provider must be duly registered with which bodies?

a)

Bureau of Internal Revenue and Securities and Exchange Commission and/or other pertinent government bodies

b)

Department of Education and Commission on Higher Education

c)

Department of Labor and Employment and Social Security System

d)

National Economic and Development Authority

85.

Which entity qualifies as a local Government Institution/Agency CPD provider?

a)

Any private institution with scholarships

b)

Any government institution/agency with programs on CPD for professionals

c)

Only national government agencies

d)

Only local government units

86.

What primary qualification must a Foreign CPD Provider (entity/firm/association) demonstrate?

a)

Ownership of property in the Philippines

b)

Existing capability and sustainability to provide CPD programs through in-house training and development of professionals

c)

A partnership with a local provider

d)

At least three years of prior CPD delivery in the Philippines

87.

Which group is disqualified from being a CPD provider during their incumbency, including their relatives within the fourth degree?

a)

University faculty members

b)

Members of the Commission, chairperson, vice chairperson, and members of the PRBs

c)

Employees of CPD providers

d)

Retired government officials

88.

How long does the disqualification for Commission and PRB members extend after separation from service?

a)

Six months

b)

One year

c)

Two years

d)

Three years

89.

Before applying for accreditation of CPD programs, what must be secured?

a)

Endorsement from a professional society

b)

Accreditation as CPD Provider

c)

Proof of venue availability

d)

List of speakers

90.

What is the validity period for the accreditation of a CPD Provider before renewal?

a)

One (1) year

b)

Two (2) years

c)

Three (3) years

d)

Five (5) years

91.

On what basis is the renewal of CPD Provider accreditation evaluated?

a)

Number of CPD units delivered annually

b)

Provider’s performance of responsibilities and obligations and compliance with guidelines during the previous three-year period

c)

Revenue growth from programs

d)

Feedback scores only

92.

Which statement best describes cross-application of programs by a duly approved CPD Provider?

a)

Programs may be applied to other professions without approval

b)

Programs may be applied to other professions subject to approval of the CPD Council concerned

c)

Programs cannot be shared across professions

d)

Programs automatically earn the same units across professions

93.

Who sets the number of units to be credited when a program is applied to another profession?

a)

The provider

b)

The participants

c)

The respective CPD Councils

d)

The PRC Chair only

94.

What must a CPD provider indicate when applying for accreditation of its program to determine the fee?

a)

The number of times the program shall be offered

b)

The number of available seats

c)

The list of facilitators

d)

The marketing plan

95.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a ground for suspension, cancellation, or non-renewal of a CPD Provider’s accreditation?

a)

Non-compliance with prescribed requirements

b)

Substantial deviations from approved programs

c)

Charging of unreasonable or unapproved additional substantial fees

d)

Providing scholarships to low-income participants

96.

Submitting false completion reports or issuing false statements by a provider is categorized as which ground?

a)

Misrepresentation

b)

Operational error

c)

Financial mismanagement

d)

Harassment

97.

Failure to conduct at least one CPD program within the year from issuance of accreditation and every year thereafter results in which consequence?

a)

Automatic renewal denial without hearing

b)

It is a ground for suspension, cancellation, or non-renewal

c)

Only a warning is issued

d)

No consequence if fees are paid

98.

Which individual is listed first in order of preference to act as CPD program monitor as approved by the CPD Council and PRC?

a)

PRC regional director

b)

CPD Council Member

c)

Professional organization representative

d)

Accredited provider staff

99.

Who determines the appropriate number of CPD program monitors for an accredited program?

a)

The CPD Provider

b)

The CPD Councils

c)

The PRC Chairperson

d)

The CPD Secretariat

100.

Within how many working days after the conduct of the program must the Monitoring Report be submitted to the Commission?

a)

7 working days

b)

10 working days

c)

15 working days

d)

20 working days