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ANAT 1009 TEST 2

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structure anchors the thin filaments within a sarcomere?

a)

A. Z line

b)

B. M line

c)

C. H zone

d)

D. A band

2.

Which of the following are required for cross-bridge cycling?

a)

ATP binding

b)

Calcium binding to troponin

c)

Actin–myosin interaction

d)

Troponin degradation

3.

Which of the following accurately describes the sarcomere during contraction?

a)

A. A band shortens

b)

B. I band shortens

c)

C. H zone lengthens

d)

D. Z discs separate

4.

Which structure carries the action potential deep into the muscle fiber?

a)

T-tubules

b)

Sarcolemma

c)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Mitochondria

5.

Which of the following muscles is primarily involved in elbow flexion?

a)

Triceps brachii

b)

Deltoid

c)

Biceps brachii

d)

Supraspinatus

6.

Which of the following best describes isometric contraction?

a)

Muscle length shortens

b)

Muscle length stays the same but tension develops

c)

Tension decreases

d)

Sarcomeres lengthen

7.

Which of the following is a primary muscle for plantar flexion?

a)

Tibialis anterior

b)

Soleus

c)

Sartorius

d)

Hamstrings

8.

Which muscle group is located on the posterior thigh?

a)

Quadriceps femoris

b)

Hamstrings

c)

Adductor group

d)

Gluteal group

9.

Which of the following occurs during the power stroke?

a)

Myosin head pivots and pulls actin inward

b)

ATP binds to actin

c)

Calcium is pumped out of the cell

d)

Tropomyosin blocks binding sites

10.

Which structure is the site of neurotransmitter release in skeletal muscle?

a)

Neuromuscular junction

b)

Sarcolemma

c)

Myofibril

d)

Myofilament

11.

Which of the following is most likely involved in posture-related neck tension?

a)

Trapezius

b)

Gastrocnemius

c)

Sartorius

d)

Rectus femoris

12.

Which events occur during skeletal muscle contraction?

a)

Myosin binds actin

b)

Tropomyosin shifts

c)

ATP binds to actin

d)

Calcium binds troponin

13.

Which of the following muscle types is voluntary and striated?

a)

Smooth

b)

Skeletal

c)

Cardiac

d)

Mixed

14.

Which muscle is a major contributor to hip extension?

a)

Gluteus maximus

b)

Sartorius

c)

Psoas major

d)

Tensor fasciae latae

15.

Which structure stores calcium in skeletal muscle?

a)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

Mitochondria

c)

T-tubules

d)

Sarcolemma

16.

Which part of a neuron receives incoming signals?

(a)  

17.

Which of the following glial cells myelinates axons in the CNS?

a)

Schwann cell

b)

Oligodendrocyte

c)

Astrocyte

d)

Microglia

18.

Which glial cell is responsible for the blood–brain barrier?

a)

Astrocyte

b)

Schwann cell

c)

Ependymal cell

d)

Microglia

19.

Which ion movement is responsible for rapid depolarization during an action potential?

a)

Na+ influx

b)

K+ efflux

c)

Cl− influx

d)

Ca2+ efflux

20.

The dorsal root of a spinal nerve carries:

a)

Motor signals only

b)

Sensory signals only

c)

Both motor and sensory

d)

Autonomic signals only

21.

Which are components of a reflex arc?

a)

A. Sensory receptor

b)

B. Afferent neuron

c)

C. Integration center

d)

D. Efferent neuron

e)

E. Effector

22.

Which region of the brain is the main relay station for sensory information?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla

d)

Cerebellum

23.

Which region is primarily responsible for speech comprehension?

a)

Broca’s area

b)

Wernicke’s area

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Basal ganglia

24.

Which of the following nerves is both sensory and motor?

a)

Trigeminal (V)

b)

Olfactory (I)

c)

Optic (II)

d)

Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

25.

Which cranial nerve is purely sensory and involved in smell?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

V

d)

VII

26.

Which cranial nerve innervates most extraocular muscles?

a)

II Optic

b)

III Oculomotor

c)

V Trigeminal

d)

VII Facial

27.

Which cranial nerve controls heart rate and digestion?

a)

VII Facial

b)

X Vagus

c)

V Trigeminal

d)

IX Glossopharyngeal

28.

Which cranial nerve is associated with hearing and balance?

a)

VIII Vestibulocochlear

b)

IX Glossopharyngeal

c)

X Vagus

d)

VII Facial

29.

Which statement best explains saltatory conduction?

a)

Action potentials jump between nodes of Ranvier

b)

Action potentials slow down in myelinated axons

c)

Myelin prevents signal transmission

d)

It occurs only in dendrites

30.

Which of the following cranial nerves is purely motor?

a)

XII Hypoglossal

b)

IX Glossopharyngeal

c)

V Trigeminal

d)

VIII Vestibulocochlear

31.

Which part of the brain is responsible for coordination and balance?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Thalamus

d)

Midbrain

32.

Which structure produces cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

Choroid plexus

b)

Pineal gland

c)

Pons

d)

Basal nuclei

33.

Which region of the brain contains the respiratory centers?

a)

Medulla and pons

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Midbrain

d)

Hippocampus

34.

Which division of the ANS is responsible for rest and digest?

a)

Sympathetic

b)

Parasympathetic

c)

Somatic

d)

Central

35.

Which of the following effects is associated with sympathetic activation?

a)

Bronchodilation

b)

Decreased heart rate

c)

Pupil constriction

d)

Digestive stimulation

36.

Which of the following structures carries motor signals from the cortex to skeletal muscle?

a)

Corticospinal tract

b)

Spinothalamic tract

c)

Dorsal columns

d)

Basal nuclei

37.

Which of the following best describes contralateral control?

a)

A. Motor tracts cross at the medulla

b)

B. Sensory pathways never cross

c)

C. Only cranial nerves cross

d)

D. None cross

38.

Which cranial nerve controls tongue movement?

a)

XII Hypoglossal

b)

IX Glossopharyngeal

c)

VII Facial

d)

II Optic

39.

Which cranial nerve carries sensory information from the face?

a)

V Trigeminal

b)

X Vagus

c)

VII Facial

d)

II Optic

40.

Which structure filters, warms, and humidifies inspired air?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Nasal cavity

c)

Bronchioles

d)

Pleura

41.

Which structure prevents food from entering the airway during swallowing?

a)

Vocal folds

b)

Cricoid cartilage

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Thyroid cartilage

42.

Which physiological principle explains how lung volume and pressure are related?

a)

Boyle’s law

b)

Dalton’s law

c)

Henry’s law

d)

LaPlace’s law

43.

Which muscle is the primary driver of quiet inspiration?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Internal intercostals

c)

Sternocleidomastoid

d)

Abdominals

44.

Which structure houses respiratory control centers?

a)

Pons and medulla

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Thalamus

d)

Temporal lobe

45.

Which structure is the functional unit of gas exchange?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Bronchi

c)

Bronchioles

d)

Trachea

46.

Which structure triggers the cough reflex?

a)

Nasal conchae

b)

Carina

c)

Bronchioles

d)

Pleura

47.

Which of the following best describes the role of surfactant?

a)

Reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse

b)

Increases airway resistance

c)

Causes bronchospasm

d)

Increases diffusion distance

48.

Which of the following best explains why the right bronchus is more prone to aspiration?

a)

It is wider and more vertical

b)

It is narrower and more curved

c)

It is less vascularized

d)

It has smaller alveoli

49.

Which respiratory event occurs during expiration?

a)

Alveolar pressure rises above atmospheric pressure

b)

Alveolar pressure falls

c)

Thoracic volume increases

d)

Air moves in

50.

Which respiratory structure is lined with simple squamous epithelium to allow gas diffusion?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Bronchi

c)

Trachea

d)

Nasal cavity

51.

Which factors influence alveolar gas exchange efficiency?

a)

A. Thin respiratory membrane

b)

B. High surface area

c)

C. Surfactant

d)

D. High capillary density

52.

Which lung volume increases during deep inspiration?

a)

Inspiratory reserve volume

b)

Tidal volume

c)

Residual volume

d)

Expiratory reserve

53.

Which of the following describes lung compliance?

a)

A. Ease with which the lungs expand

b)

B. Resistance to airflow

54.

Which system provides the fastest pH buffering?

a)

Respiratory

b)

Renal

c)

Endocrine

d)

Lymphatic

55.

A patient with pH 7.60, PCO₂ 40 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 35 mEq/L most likely has:

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

56.

Which are physiological buffering mechanisms?

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Renal system

c)

Chemical buffers

d)

Hormonal excretion

57.

Which acid–base disorder is most commonly associated with hypoventilation?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Metabolic acidosis

58.

In metabolic acidosis, the respiratory system compensates by:

a)

Increasing ventilation

b)

Decreasing ventilation

c)

Increasing bicarbonate retention

d)

Decreasing hydrogen secretion

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