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MKT quizzes

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Name common survey design pitfalls.

a)

Short questions, clear options, randomized order

b)

Leading wording, double‑barreled items, absolutes, no randomization, no attention checks.

c)

High sample size always fixes bias

d)

Open questions with neutral wording only

2.

What does SERVQUAL measure?

a)

Sales growth rate

b)

Gaps between expectations and perceptions across service dimensions.

c)

Brand awareness levels

d)

Price sensitivity over time

3.

What is IMC?

a)

International Marketing Council

b)

In‑store Merchandising Checklist

c)

Integrated Marketing Communications across channels with consistent messaging.

d)

Inventory Management Control

4.

Write the standard positioning sentence.

a)

[Brand] equals quality and price.

b)

For [target], [brand] is the [frame] that [POD] because [RTB].

c)

Buy [brand] now for a discount.

d)

[Brand] is the best because everyone uses it.

5.

What are the stages of the CDMP?

a)

Awareness → Interest → Desire → Action

b)

Problem recognition → Info search → Evaluation → Purchase → Post‑purchase.

c)

Plan → Do → Check → Act

d)

Segmentation → Targeting → Positioning

6.

List DENT‑PC factors.

a)

Design, Engagement, Negotiation, Testing, Pricing, Conversion

b)

Demand, Elasticity, Network, Technology, People, Cost

c)

Demographic, Economic, Natural, Technological, Political‑legal, Cultural.

d)

Discovery, Experiment, Nurture, Trade, Place, Culture

7.

Summarize the 4Ps.

a)

People, Process, Physical evidence, Partners

b)

Product, Price, Place, Promotion.

c)

Purpose, Profit, Planet, People

d)

Plan, Perform, Pay, Prove

8.

Funnel revenue formula?

a)

Revenue = Traffic × AOV − Cost

b)

Revenue = Reach ÷ CTR × CVR

c)

Revenue = Reach × CTR × CVR × AOV.

d)

Revenue = CTR × AOV only

9.

Define price elasticity.

a)

E = Price × Quantity

b)

E = AOV / CVR

c)

E = %ΔP / %ΔQ

d)

E = %ΔQ / %ΔP. |E| > 1 elastic; |E| < 1 inelastic.

10.

Differentiate needs, wants, and demand.

a)

Needs = basic; Wants = cultural/personal; Demand = wants + purchasing power.

b)

Needs = price; Wants = quality; Demand = promotions

c)

Needs = luxury; Wants = necessities; Demand = supply

d)

Needs = desires; Wants = needs; Demand = cost

11.

6‑step service recovery?

a)

Apologize only

b)

Acknowledge, apologize, explain, fix, compensate, follow up.

c)

Replace staff

d)

Ignore, wait, discount, repeat

12.

What is frame of reference?

a)

The store location

b)

The tagline of the brand

c)

The price tier

d)

The category/competitors used for comparison.

13.

What is AIDA?

a)

Awareness → Interest → Decision → Aftercare

b)

Acquire → Inspire → Deliver → Adjust

c)

Attention → Interest → Desire → Action.

d)

Attract → Inform → Decide → Act

14.

Define Point of Difference (POD).

a)

Evidence that supports claims

b)

Promotional discount

c)

Meaningful and sustainable differentiating benefit.

d)

Category frame customers compare to

15.

Target selection criteria?

a)

Random choice and highest margin only

b)

Size, growth, competition, reachability, firm fit.

c)

Any segment with low price

d)

Who follows the brand on social media

16.

Name IMC channels.

a)

Only social media

b)

Advertising, PR, personal selling, sales promotion, digital, events.

c)

Only TV ads

d)

Only PR

17.

What does NPS measure?

a)

Average purchase value

b)

Likelihood to recommend (Promoters − Detractors).

c)

Ad recall

d)

Brand awareness

18.

Direct vs. indirect channels?

a)

Direct = expensive; Indirect = cheap

b)

Direct = sell to consumer; Indirect = via intermediaries.

c)

Direct = online only; Indirect = offline only

d)

Direct = B2B; Indirect = B2C

19.

Lagging vs. leading metrics?

a)

Leading = past; Lagging = future

b)

Lagging = outcomes; Leading = predictors of future outcomes.

c)

Both are the same

d)

Neither relates to performance

20.

What is reference price?

a)

The lowest possible market price

b)

A price set by regulators

c)

A price standard consumers use to judge fairness.

d)

The firm's list price

21.

Define Reason to Believe (RTB).

a)

A distribution strategy

b)

Evidence that supports the POD (certifications, data, demos).

c)

The customer segment definition

d)

A temporary sales tactic

22.

Elements of an effective message?

a)

Lengthy text and jargon

b)

Benefit, proof, clear CTA.

c)

Random facts

d)

Only brand name repetition

23.

Define a Moment of Truth.

a)

A finance reporting period

b)

A production milestone

c)

A critical touchpoint that strongly shapes customer perception.

d)

A legal requirement

24.

Core vs. expected vs. augmented product?

a)

Service only; product only; price only

b)

All features are core

c)

Packaging; price; place

d)

Core benefit; minimum attributes; added services/value.

25.

What is cross‑price elasticity?

a)

Change in price when demand changes

b)

Percent change in demand for product A given a price change in product B.

c)

Revenue growth over time

d)

Price divided by quantity

26.

What are common segmentation bases?

a)

Price, profit, planet, people

b)

Geographic, demographic, psychographic, behavioral, benefits.

c)

Random selection

d)

Age only

27.

What is a category captain?

a)

A media buying role

b)

A logistics software

c)

A consumer focus group leader

d)

A lead supplier or retailer guiding category management for the retailer.

28.

Marketing ethics essentials?

a)

Maximize profit at all costs

b)

Use deceptive scarcity

c)

Honesty, transparency, respect for privacy, avoid manipulation.

d)

Hide terms and conditions

29.

When do channel conflicts arise?

a)

Only in direct channels

b)

When no discounts are used

c)

Misaligned goals, role overlap, pricing or discount policy differences.

d)

When all partners agree

30.

Effect of price fairness perceptions?

a)

Only affects shelf space

b)

Influences purchase intent, loyalty, and NPS.

c)

No effect on behavior

d)

Only affects cost of goods

31.

Standard NPD process?

a)

Plan → Do → Check → Act

b)

Opportunity → screening → concept → testing → commercialization.

c)

Ideate → Launch immediately

d)

Design → Advertise → Sell

32.

Common survey biases?

a)

Random assignment and blinding

b)

Social desirability, convenience sampling, nonresponse bias.

c)

Exporting to CSV

d)

Using large fonts

33.

Trade vs. consumer promotions?

a)

Consumer = discounts for retailers

b)

Trade = coupons for shoppers

c)

Both are the same

d)

Trade = incentives to channel partners; Consumer = incentives to end buyers.

34.

Effects of expectation–perception gaps?

a)

Higher price tolerance

b)

Dissatisfaction, negative word‑of‑mouth, churn.

c)

No measurable effect

d)

Better CLV by default

35.

Reliability vs. Validity?

a)

Reliability = accuracy; Validity = speed

b)

They are identical

c)

Reliability = sample size; Validity = response rate

d)

Reliability = consistency; Validity = measures intended construct.

36.

What is omnichannel?

a)

A pricing tactic

b)

A seamless customer experience across channels.

c)

Selling only in one channel

d)

A logistics provider

37.

Common channel KPIs?

a)

Employee headcount

b)

On‑shelf availability, fill rate, lead time, return rate.

c)

CEO salary

d)

Number of TV ads

38.

Define ROMI.

a)

Profit − Cost

b)

Revenue / Cost of Goods Sold

c)

(Incremental profit − cost) / cost.

d)

AOV × CVR

39.

What is incrementality testing?

a)

Counting impressions

b)

Measuring total sales only

c)

Allocating budget across channels

d)

Measuring the incremental lift caused by a campaign versus a baseline.

40.

Common pricing tactics?

a)

Always undercut competitors

b)

Set one price forever

c)

Skimming, penetration, bundling, price discrimination.

d)

Only value‑based pricing

41.

Types of channel coverage?

a)

Direct, indirect, hybrid

b)

Exclusive, selective, intensive.

c)

Online, offline, mobile

d)

Urban, suburban, rural

42.

CSAT vs. CES?

a)

CSAT = effort; CES = satisfaction

b)

Both are identical

c)

CSAT = overall satisfaction; CES = customer effort required.

d)

Neither is measurable

43.

Define market orientation.

a)

Finance‑driven orientation

b)

Sales‑only orientation

c)

Org‑wide generation, dissemination, and response to customer insights.

d)

Production‑only orientation

44.

Common brand architectures?

a)

Franchise vs. license only

b)

Branded house, house of brands, sub‑brands, endorsed brands.

c)

Private vs. national only

d)

Mono‑brand only

45.

CLV intuition?

a)

Price × quantity − cost

b)

AOV × CVR × traffic

c)

Margin × retention duration − CAC.

d)

Revenue − marketing spend

46.

Components of brand equity?

a)

Price, place, product, promotion

b)

Awareness, perceived quality, associations, loyalty.

c)

SEO, SEM, SMM, PR

d)

Average order value, CLV, CTR, CVR

47.

Control vs. Treatment in A/B tests?

a)

Control = higher price; Treatment = lower price

b)

Control = baseline version; Treatment = variant with change.

c)

Control = TV; Treatment = Search

d)

Control = more budget; Treatment = less budget

48.

When to use price skimming?

a)

Late maturity stage with price wars

b)

High innovation, inelastic demand, high WTP, IP protection.

c)

When aiming for immediate mass share

d)

Commodity products with many rivals

49.

BCG matrix quadrants and typical actions?

a)

Dogs = harvest/divest; Stars = invest; Cash Cows = milk; Question Marks = selective/exit.

b)

Cash Cows = invest heavily; Stars = divest

c)

Question Marks = ignore; Dogs = acquire

d)

All quadrants = same strategy

50.

SERVQUAL dimensions?

a)

Price, Place, Product, Promotion, People

b)

Tangibles, Reliability, Responsiveness, Assurance, Empathy.

c)

Need, Want, Demand, Value, Equity

d)

Awareness, Interest, Desire, Action, Loyalty

51.
When to use penetration pricing?
a)
To gain market share, exploit scale, in highly competitive markets.
b)
When demand is very inelastic
c)
When product is luxury niche
d)
When capacity is highly constrained
52.
Sample size drivers (basics)?
a)
Effect size, power, alpha, variance.
b)
Budget only
c)
Team size and tools
d)
Ad spend
53.
Conjoint analysis (intuition)?
a)
Estimate part‑worth utilities to predict preference and WTP for attribute combos.
b)
Collect only open‑ended feedback
c)
Set price by cost plus markup
d)
Analyze web traffic only
54.
GE/McKinsey matrix axes and use?
a)
Industry attractiveness × Business strength; guide invest/select/harvest decisions.
b)
Revenue × Profit to split customers
c)
Price × Quality for positioning only
d)
Awareness × Consideration for media only
55.
Versioning in pricing?
a)
Offer product tiers with different features to self‑segment by WTP.
b)
Use one universal price for all
c)
Hide features to charge more
d)
Always bundle everything
56.
Reach vs. frequency trade‑off?
a)
Fixed budget: higher reach lowers frequency and vice versa; balance by cycle and message complexity.
b)
Reach and frequency always rise together
c)
Only reach matters
d)
Only frequency matters
57.
GRP formula?
a)
GRP = Reach (%) × Average Frequency.
b)
GRP = Impressions / Clicks
c)
GRP = CTR × CVR
d)
GRP = Reach + Frequency
58.
Product life cycle stages and key strategies?
a)
Intro, Growth, Maturity, Decline with matching pricing, distribution, and promo strategies.
b)
Plan, Do, Check, Act
c)
Awareness, Interest, Desire, Action
d)
Launch, Hold, Stop
59.
Attribution: first‑touch vs. last‑touch?
a)
First credits first interaction; last credits the final interaction before conversion.
b)
Both credit every touch equally
c)
Neither credits any channel
d)
Always credit paid search
60.
Confidence interval interpretation (plain)?
a)
95% CI is a range likely to contain the true parameter under repeated sampling assumptions.
b)
It guarantees the true value 95% of the time after observed
c)
It equals margin of error only
d)
It is unrelated to sample size
61.
Price fences examples?
a)
Time, segment, quantity, version, channel, geography.
b)
TV, radio, OOH, social
c)
Cost, margin, markup
d)
Online, offline, mobile
62.
Value‑based pricing: core idea?
a)
Set price by customer perceived value rather than cost or competitors.
b)
Always undercut the lowest competitor
c)
Add a fixed markup to cost only
d)
Match competitor price exactly
63.
Which axis pair is used in GE/McKinsey?
a)
Industry attractiveness × Business strength
b)
Price × Quality
c)
Awareness × Consideration
d)
CTR × CVR
64.
Which is a price fence by segment?
a)
Student discount
b)
Bundle two SKUs
c)
Everyday low price
d)
Keystone markup
65.
Versioning works best when…
a)
Customers differ in WTP and value attributes differently
b)
All customers value the same features equally
c)
Capacity is fixed and no variants possible
d)
There is only one channel
66.
Increasing confidence level from 90% to 95% usually…
a)
Widens the interval
b)
Narrows the interval
c)
Leaves interval unchanged
d)
Invalidates the estimate
67.
First‑touch attribution biases toward…
a)
Upper‑funnel channels like search/awareness
b)
Lower‑funnel channels like retargeting
c)
Direct traffic only
d)
Organic only
68.
GRP of a campaign with 40% reach and 3 frequency equals…
a)
120.0
b)
43.0
c)
2025-05-07 00:00:00
d)
2025-04-03 00:00:00
69.
Product life cycle: which strategy fits Maturity stage?
a)
Differentiate and defend share, promotions to retain
b)
Build awareness from zero
c)
Rapid price skimming for novelty
d)
Cease distribution entirely
70.
With fixed budget, when message is complex you should favor…
a)
Higher frequency over reach
b)
Maximum reach at frequency 1
c)
Only one channel
d)
No frequency cap
71.
Which is NOT a typical BCG action for Dogs?
a)
Invest heavily to grow at all costs
b)
Harvest
c)
Divest unless strategic
d)
Minimal support
72.
Which research method estimates part‑worth utilities?
a)
Conjoint analysis
b)
Focus group
c)
Mystery shopping
d)
Ethnography only
73.
Which is a leading metric?
a)
Add‑to‑cart rate
b)
Revenue last quarter
c)
Total profit last year
d)
Historical CLV
74.
Which tactic suits elastic demand (|E| > 1)?
a)
Price decrease to raise revenue
b)
Price increase to raise revenue
c)
Hold price constant always
d)
Discontinue product
75.
Positioning map: choose axes that are…
a)
Meaningful to customers and not overlapping constructs
b)
Easiest for the team to draw
c)
Always price vs. quality only
d)
Any two internal KPIs
76.
Which persona element is LEAST important in exam answers?
a)
Character backstory unrelated to purchase
b)
Goal
c)
Pain points
d)
Preferred channels
77.
Which touchpoint is most likely a Moment of Truth for delivery apps?
a)
Order arrival condition and timing
b)
Number of app menu items
c)
The color of app icon
d)
Internal team meeting
78.
Safety stock increases when…
a)
Lead‑time variability rises
b)
Demand variability drops to zero
c)
Service level target falls
d)
Forecast error is nil
79.
Cohort analysis helps you…
a)
Track retention or revenue over time for a start group
b)
Measure only cross‑section at one time
c)
Replace A/B testing
d)
Predict macroeconomy
80.
Service recovery paradox holds mostly when…
a)
Failures are minor and recovery is excellent
b)
Failures are repeated and severe
c)
Company blames customers
d)
No compensation or fix is provided
81.
Endogeneity risk example?
a)
Ads shown more to already interested users
b)
Randomized A/B test
c)
Controlled lab experiment
d)
Balanced panel
82.
Benefit segmentation groups customers by…
a)
Desired outcomes sought from the product
b)
Their exact income value
c)
Where they live only
d)
Random assignment
83.
Which is a logistics KPI?
a)
On‑time delivery rate
b)
Share of voice
c)
Bounce rate
d)
Open rate
84.
Which channel KPI reflects availability on shelf?
a)
OSA
b)
CTR
c)
CES
d)
ROMI
85.
PESTEL adds which factor vs. DENT‑PC?
a)
Legal
b)
Cultural
c)
Technological
d)
Natural
86.
Which statement best defines customer value?
a)
Perceived benefits relative to perceived costs
b)
Lowest price available
c)
Maximum features regardless of cost
d)
Company profit margin
87.
Fairness perception improves when…
a)
Process is transparent with cost justification
b)
Prices change without notice
c)
Hidden fees are added
d)
Competitors charge less for same value
88.
Service blueprint includes which layer?
a)
Backstage processes
b)
Shareholder structure
c)
Tax schedule
d)
Code repository
89.
Simple CLV with churn formula (subscription) is approx…
a)
Monthly contribution × (1/churn rate) − CAC
b)
Revenue × churn
c)
Price − cost
d)
AOV × traffic
90.
Ethical red flag in ads?
a)
Hidden terms and manipulative scarcity
b)
Clear pricing and conditions
c)
Evidence‑based claims
d)
Opt‑out for data use
91.
Promo lift is…
a)
Observed sales minus baseline without promo
b)
Total sales including seasonality
c)
Media cost divided by sales
d)
Awareness change only
92.
Trial metric captures…
a)
First‑time use or purchase
b)
Cumulative revenue
c)
Total impressions
d)
Ad clicks
93.
Which statement about reference price is TRUE?
a)
It anchors fairness judgments and promo effects
b)
It is always the firm’s list price
c)
It never changes over time
d)
Customers don’t use it in low‑involvement buys
94.
Which SERVQUAL dimension is MOST about empathy?
a)
Caring, individualized attention to customers
b)
Fulfilling promises dependably
c)
Appearance of facilities and staff
d)
Knowledge and courtesy inspiring trust
95.
Which tactic best defends share in Maturity?
a)
Line extensions and targeted promotions
b)
Minimal distribution
c)
No advertising
d)
Maximum skimming
96.
Which is a valid RTB for ‘natural aroma’ claim?
a)
Third‑party lab certification
b)
We believe it’s natural
c)
Competitor said so
d)
Lower price than rivals
97.
Which is a research bias you should watch for in surveys?
a)
Social desirability
b)
Randomization
c)
Balanced options
d)
Clear wording
98.
Which segmentation base is ‘weekday morning commuter coffee’?
a)
Usage occasion
b)
Demographic
c)
Geographic
d)
Firmographic
99.
Which metric pair is BEST to evaluate acquisition quality?
a)
CVR and early repeat rate
b)
Impressions and likes
c)
Reach and GRP
d)
Open rate and followers
100.
Which channel coverage fits luxury watches?
a)
Exclusive
b)
Intensive
c)
Selective
d)
Any coverage works the same
101.
Which IMC metric directly captures conversion quality?
a)
CVR
b)
CTR
c)
Reach
d)
Frequency
102.
Which 4P lever most directly reduces journey friction at checkout?
a)
Place (UX, payment, convenience)
b)
Price
c)
Promotion
d)
Product
103.
Which KPI is most directly used for ROMI?
a)
Incremental profit and cost
b)
Total impressions
c)
Ad likes
d)
Store count
104.
Which promotion type is a consumer promotion?
a)
Coupon for shoppers
b)
Slotting allowance
c)
Trade discount to retailer
d)
Co‑op advertising credit
105.
A price cut raises revenue only if demand is…
a)
Elastic (|E| > 1)
b)
Inelastic (|E| < 1)
c)
Unit elastic
d)
Perfectly inelastic
106.
Which is a micro‑environment factor?
a)
Competitors
b)
Political‑legal climate
c)
Demographics
d)
Natural resources
107.
In STP, the ‘frame of reference’ primarily clarifies…
a)
Which category and competitors you compete against
b)
The price ceiling
c)
Media budget
d)
Distribution territory
108.
Which brand architecture allows endorsed sub‑brands?
a)
Endorsed brands
b)
House of brands
c)
Branded house only
d)
No architecture
109.
Which touchpoint belongs to Backstage in a service blueprint?
a)
Order routing to kitchen/warehouse system
b)
Cashier greets customer
c)
Store shelf signage
d)
Customer review
110.
Which is MOST aligned with market orientation?
a)
Sharing customer insights across teams and acting on them
b)
Prioritizing quarterly sales targets only
c)
Focusing only on production efficiency
d)
Budgeting purely by last year’s spend
111.
Which KPI reflects satisfaction vs. effort?
a)
CSAT vs. CES respectively
b)
CES vs. CSAT respectively
c)
Both measure the same
d)
Neither is actionable
112.
Which 4Ps decision most influences last‑mile experience?
a)
Place
b)
Price
c)
Promotion
d)
Product design only

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