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Worksheets

Proper Medical Terminology

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the abbreviation 'DNR' stand for?

a)

Do Not Resuscitate

b)

Do Not Respond

c)

Doctor's Note Required

d)

Direct Nurse Response

2.

What does the abbreviation 'NPO' stand for?

a)

Nothing by Mouth

b)

No Pain Observed

c)

Nasal Passage Obstruction

d)

Nutritional Protein Order

3.

What does the abbreviation 'ADL' stand for?

a)

Activities of Daily Living

b)

Advanced Data Logic

c)

Automated Device Loader

d)

Applied Design Language

4.

What does the abbreviation 'AD LIB' stand for?

a)

As Desired

b)

After Lunch

c)

At Dawn

d)

All Done

5.

What does the abbreviation 'I&O' stand for?

a)

Intake & Output

b)

Input & Operation

c)

Inspection & Observation

d)

Inventory & Order

6.

What does the abbreviation 'BRP' stand for?

a)

Bathroom Privileges

b)

Bed Rest Period

c)

Blood Pressure Reading

d)

Basic Respiratory Procedure

7.

What does the abbreviation 'PRN' stand for?

a)

As Needed

b)

Every Hour

c)

Before Meals

d)

After Meals

8.

What does the abbreviation 'HS' stand for?

a)

Hour of Sleep/Bedtime

b)

High School

c)

Health Science

d)

Home Study

9.

What does the abbreviation 'ac' stand for?

a)

Before Meals

b)

After Meals

c)

With Food

d)

At Bedtime

10.

What does the abbreviation 'pc' stand for?

a)

After Meals

b)

Before Meals

c)

With Water

d)

On Empty Stomach

11.

What does the abbreviation 'Bid' stand for?

a)

2X per Day

b)

Once a week

c)

Before meals

d)

At bedtime

12.

What does the abbreviation 'č' stand for?

a)

With

b)

Without

c)

Before

d)

After

13.

What does the abbreviation 'š' stand for?

a)

Without

b)

With

c)

About

d)

After

14.

What does the abbreviation 'c/o' stand for?

a)

Complains of

b)

Care of

c)

Check out

d)

Carry on

15.

What does the abbreviation 'Tid' stand for?

a)

3X per Day

b)

Once a Day

c)

Every 4 Hours

d)

Before Meals

16.

What does the abbreviation 'gt; gtt' stand for?

a)

Drop; Drops

b)

Gram; Grams

c)

Glucose; Glutamate

d)

Gastric tube; Gastric tubes

17.

What does the abbreviation 'h.; hr' stand for?

a)

Hour

b)

Hectare

c)

Horsepower

d)

Hertz

18.

What does the abbreviation 'NKA' stand for?

a)

No Known Allergies

b)

No Known Ailments

c)

New Kidney Assessment

d)

Nutritional Knowledge Assessment

19.

What does the abbreviation 'OU' stand for?

a)

Both Eyes

b)

One Ear

c)

Only Upper

d)

Open Umbrella

20.

What does the abbreviation 'OS' stand for?

a)

Left Eye

b)

Operating System

c)

Open Source

d)

Optical Sensor

21.

What does the abbreviation 'OD' stand for?

a)

Right Eye

b)

Left Eye

c)

Once Daily

d)

Optic Disc

22.

What does the abbreviation 'AS; AD' stand for?

a)

Left Ear; Right Ear

b)

Anterior Segment; Anterior Depth

c)

Aortic Stenosis; Aortic Dissection

d)

Acute Sinusitis; Acute Dermatitis

23.

What does the abbreviation 'AU' stand for?

a)

Both Ears

b)

Left Ear

c)

Right Ear

d)

Both Eyes

24.

What does the abbreviation 'PERRLA' stand for?

a)

Pupils, Equal, Round, Reactive to Light & Accommodation

b)

Pupils, Enlarged, Reactive to Light & Accommodation

c)

Pupils, Equal, Reactive to Light & Astigmatism

d)

Pupils, Equal, Round, Reactive to Light & Anisocoria

25.

What does the abbreviation 'PO; po' stand for?

a)

Orally; By Mouth

b)

After Meals

c)

By Injection

d)

Under the Tongue

26.

What does the abbreviation 'Q; q' stand for?

a)

Every

b)

Quantity

c)

Quarter

d)

Quick

27.

What does the abbreviation 'Qid' stand for?

a)

4X per Day

b)

Once a Day

c)

Every Other Day

d)

Twice a Week

28.

What does the abbreviation 'RLQ' stand for?

a)

Right Lower Quad.

b)

Right Lateral Quadrant

c)

Rectal Lower Quadrant

d)

Right Lower Quarter

29.

What does the abbreviation 'RUQ' stand for?

a)

Right Upper Quad.

b)

Right Under Quadrant

c)

Rear Upper Quadrant

d)

Right Upper Quarter

30.

What does the abbreviation 'LLQ' stand for?

a)

Left Lower Quad.

b)

Left Lateral Quadrant

c)

Lower Left Quadriceps

d)

Lateral Lumbar Quarter

31.

What does the abbreviation 'LUQ' stand for?

a)

Left Upper Quad.

b)

Lower Upper Quadrant

c)

Lateral Upper Quadrant

d)

Left Under Quadrant

e)

Lateral Under Quad

32.

What does the abbreviation 'ABD' stand for?

a)

Abdomen/Abdominal

b)

Above/Below/Diagonal

c)

Acute Brain Disorder

d)

Automatic Blood Detector

33.

What does the abbreviation 'Subq; Subcut; sq' stand for?

a)

Under the Skin

b)

Inside the Muscle

c)

On the Bone

d)

Within the Vein

34.

What does the abbreviation 'Stat' stand for?

a)

Immediately

b)

Slowly

c)

Carefully

d)

Eventually

35.

What does the abbreviation 'IM' stand for?

a)

Intramuscular

b)

Intravenous

c)

Intraocular

d)

Inframammary

36.

What does the abbreviation 'IV' stand for?

a)

Intravenious

b)

Internal Valve

c)

Intraocular Vision

d)

Intensive Volume

37.

What is proper communication?

a)

Involves verbal and non-verbal communication.

b)

Only involves verbal communication.

c)

Only involves non-verbal communication.

d)

Does not involve eye contact.

38.

Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

a)

Using medical jargon

b)

Tone, rate of speech, volume of speech

c)

Asking questions

d)

Giving written instructions

39.

Fill in the blank: Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs - The most important and basic needs are called ________ Needs.

a)

Physiological

b)

Esteem

c)

Cognitive

d)

Aesthetic

40.

In the Nursing Process (A-PIE), what does 'A' stand for? Choose the correct answer.

a)

Assessment

b)

Action

c)

Analysis

d)

Application

41.

Fill in the blank: In the Nursing Process (A-PIE), 'D' stands for ________.

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Documentation

c)

Delegation

d)

Discharge

42.

Which step in the Nursing Process involves developing goals and desired outcomes?

a)

A. Assessment

b)

B. Diagnosis

c)

C. Planning

d)

D. Evaluation

43.

Implementation in the Nursing Process includes educating the patient.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What is the final step in the Nursing Process (A-PIE)?

a)

Evaluation

b)

Assessment

c)

Planning

d)

Implementation

45.

Which type of precaution is used for infections spread through direct contact with contaminated surfaces or bodily fluids?

a)

Contact

b)

Droplet

c)

Airborne

46.

Which type of precaution is used for infections that spread through large respiratory droplets?

a)

Contact

b)

Droplet

c)

Airborne

47.

Which type of precaution is used for infections that spread through small particles in the air?

a)

Contact

b)

Droplet

c)

Airborne

48.

Fill in the blank: The most effective way to prevent infection is _________.

a)

Hand Hygiene

b)

Wearing heavy clothing

c)

Taking daily vitamins

d)

Avoiding all social contact

49.

Which of the following is required for contact precautions?

a)

N95 Mask

b)

Gown and Gloves

c)

Surgical Mask for contact <3 ft

d)

Negative-pressure airflow

50.

Which of the following is required for airborne precautions?

a)

Private room with same infection

b)

Gown and Gloves

c)

N95 Mask; PAPR fit-test

d)

Surgical mask for contact <3 ft

51.

Which of the following is required for droplet precautions?

a)

Negative-pressure airflow

b)

Surgical mask for contact <3 ft

c)

Patients wear surgical masks anytime they leave the room

d)

Hand sanitizer only

52.

Fill in the blank: For C-Diff, ________ requires soap and water, not hand sanitizer.

a)

Hand hygiene

b)

Wound care

c)

Oral care

d)

Sterile technique

53.

What is the goal of wound irrigation?

a)

To cleanse the wound, remove debris, and reduce bacterial contamination to promote healing.

b)

To increase bacterial contamination.

c)

To cause discomfort to the patient.

d)

To avoid using any sterile technique.

54.

Wound irrigation is an _______ technique procedure.

a)

aseptic

b)

septic

c)

casual

d)

random

55.

Before performing wound irrigation, what should be ensured for the patient?

a)

The patient is properly medicated before the procedure.

b)

The patient is not medicated.

c)

The patient is left alone.

d)

The patient is not informed about the procedure.

56.

Hand hygiene is important before wound irrigation.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

During wound irrigation, you should don gloves, gown, and ______ if there is a potential for splashing.

a)

goggles

b)

mask

c)

apron

d)

shoes

58.

Cleanse in the direction of the ______ contaminated area to the ______ contaminated area with sterile saline irrigant.

a)

least, most

b)

most, least

c)

cleanest, dirtiest

d)

dirtiest, cleanest

59.

The process of irrigation involves moving from clean areas of the wound to dirtier areas, using ______ pressure to flush out debris.

a)

gentle

b)

high

c)

random

d)

negative

60.

The irrigation solution should flow from the least contaminated to the most contaminated area.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Wound irrigation may be performed with various devices such as syringes, syringes with catheters attached, and syringes with needles.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

When using a syringe for wound irrigation, keep the tip ______ inch above the wound or area being cleansed.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

1/2

d)

3

63.

Which virtue is associated with the stage 'Industry v. Inferiority'?

a)

Hope

b)

Will

c)

Purpose

d)

Competence

e)

Fidelity

64.

In Erikson's stages, what is the main psychosocial crisis during adolescence (12-19 years)?

a)

Identity v. Role Confusion

b)

Intimacy v. Isolation

c)

Trust v. Mistrust

d)

Autonomy v. Shame and Doubt

65.

What is the virtue developed during the 'Intimacy v. Isolation' stage?

a)

Love

b)

Wisdom

c)

Courage

d)

Hope

66.

During which stage do adults create and nurture things that will outlast them, contributing to society?

a)

Generativity v. Stagnation

b)

Identity v. Role Confusion

c)

Intimacy v. Isolation

d)

Integrity v. Despair

67.

Fill in the blank: The ________ controls breathing respiration and blood pressure.

a)

Medulla Oblongata

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Cerebrum

68.

Which part of the brain is most important for respiration?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla

d)

Both B and C

69.

Fill in the blank: Surfactant is a substance that prevents the lungs from collapsing by reducing the ________ inside the alveoli.

a)

surface tension

b)

air pressure

c)

oxygen level

d)

carbon dioxide concentration

70.

Fill in the blank: Surfactant allows for proper gas exchange by keeping the ________ inflated, which allows for efficient exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

a)

alveoli

b)

bronchi

c)

trachea

d)

capillaries