wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Brain Injury and Concussion Worksheet

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Diffuse axonal injuries (DAIs) of the brain often result in:

a)

Reduced levels of consciousness

b)

Mild but permanent dysfunction

c)

Fine motor tremors

d)

Visual disturbances

2.

What event is most likely to occur to the brain in a classic cerebral concussion?

a)

Brief period of vital sign instability

b)

Cerebral edema throughout the cerebral cortex

c)

Cerebral edema throughout the diencephalon

d)

Disruption of axons extending from the diencephalon and brainstem

3.

Which disorder has clinical manifestations that include decreased consciousness for up to 6 hours, as well as retrograde and posttraumatic amnesia?

a)

Mild concussion

b)

Classic concussion

c)

Cortical contusion

d)

Acute subdural hematoma

4.

What group is most at risk of spinal cord injury from minor trauma?

(a)  

5.

The edema of the upper cervical cord after spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?

a)

Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury

b)

Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm

c)

Head injury that likely occurred during the injury

d)

Spinal shock immediately after the injury

6.

What indicates that spinal shock is terminating?

a)

Voluntary movement below the level of injury

b)

Reflex emptying of the bladder

c)

Paresthesia below the level of injury

d)

Decreased deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis

7.

What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?

a)

Craniosacral dysreflexia

b)

Parasympathetic dysreflexia

c)

Autonomic hyperreflexia

8.

Why does a person who has a spinal cord injury experience faulty control of sweating?

a)

The hypothalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to the sympathetic nervous system.

b)

The thalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to the sympathetic nervous system.

c)

The hypothalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to the parasympathetic nervous system.

d)

The thalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to spinal nerve roots.

9.

Autonomic hyperreflexia-induced bradycardia is a result of stimulation of the:

a)

Sympathetic nervous system to ß-adrenergic receptors to the sinoatrial node

b)

Carotid sinus to the vagus nerve to the sinoatrial node

c)

Parasympathetic nervous system to the glossopharyngeal nerve to the atrioventricular node

d)

Bundle branches to the a-adrenergic receptors to the sinoatrial node

10.

A herniation of which disk will likely result in motor and sensory changes of the lateral lower legs and soles of the feet?

a)

L2-L3

b)

L3-L5

c)

L5-S1

d)

S2-S3

11.

Which condition poses the highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

a)

Insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus

b)

Hypertension

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Smoking

12.

A right hemisphere embolic CVA has resulted in left-sided paralysis and reduced sensation of the left foot and leg. Which cerebral artery is most likely affected by the emboli?

a)

Middle cerebral

b)

Vertebral

c)

Posterior cerebral

d)

Anterior cerebral

13.

High-risk sources for the onset of embolic stroke are atrial fibrillation (15% to 25% of strokes), left ventricular aneurysm or thrombus, left atrial thrombus, recent myocardial infarction, rheumatic valvular disease, mechanical prosthetic valve, nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis, bacterial endocarditis, patent foramen ovale, and primary intracardiac tumors. These are not risk factors for the other options provided. Which type of stroke is most likely to result from these high-risk sources?

a)

Hemorrhagic

b)

Thrombotic

c)

Embolic

d)

Lacunar

14.

Microinfarcts resulting in pure motor or pure sensory deficits are the result of which type of stroke?

a)

Embolic

b)

Hemorrhagic

c)

Lacunar

d)

Thrombotic

15.

Which vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins through vascular tangles of abnormal vessels?

a)

Cavernous angioma

b)

Capillary telangiectasia

c)

Arteriovenous angioma

d)

Arteriovenous malformation

16.

Which cerebral vascular hemorrhage causes meningeal irritation, photophobia, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs?

a)

Intracranial

b)

Subarachnoid

c)

Epidural

d)

Subdural

17.

In adults, most intracranial tumors are located:

a)

Infratentorially

b)

Supratentorially

c)

Laterally

d)

Posterolaterally

18.

In children, most intracranial tumors are located:

a)

Infratentorially

b)

Supratentorially

c)

Laterally

19.

The most common primary central nervous system (CNS) tumor is the:

a)

Microglioma

b)

Neuroblastoma

c)

Astrocytoma

d)

Neuroma

20.

Meningiomas characteristically compress from:

a)

Within neural tissues

b)

Outside spinal nerve roots

c)

Outside the spinal cord

d)

Within the subarachnoid space

21.

What is the central component of the pathogenic model of multiple sclerosis?

a)

Myelination of nerve fibers in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

b)

Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS

c)

Development of neurofibrillary tangles in the CNS

d)

Inherited autosomal dominant trait with high penetrance

22.

A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a contrecoup injury to which region of the brain?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

23.

Spinal cord injuries most likely occur in which region?

a)

Cervical and thoracic

b)

Thoracic and lumbar

c)

Lumbar and sacral

d)

Cervical and thoracic-lumbar

24.

The most likely rationale for body temperature fluctuations after cervical spinal cord injury is that the person has:

4 lines
25.

Spinal cord injuries result in disturbed thermal control because the sympathetic nervous system is damaged. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this complication?

a)

Developed septicemia from posttrauma infection

b)

Sustain sympathetic nervous system damage resulting in disturbed thermal control.

c)

Sustained a head injury that damaged the hypothalamus's ability to regulate temperature.

d)

Developed septicemia from posttrauma infection.

26.

A man who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe hypertension and bradycardia. He reports severe head pain and blurred vision. The most likely explanation for these clinical manifestations is that he is:

a)

Experiencing acute anxiety

b)

Developing spinal shock

c)

Developing autonomic hyperreflexia

d)

Experiencing parasympathetic areflexia

27.

The type of vascular malformation that most often results in hemorrhage is:

a)

Cavernous angioma

b)

Venous angioma

c)

Capillary telangiectasia

d)

Arteriovenous malformation

28.

Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:

a)

In larger veins

b)

Near capillary sphincters

c)

At branches of arteries

29.

Multiple sclerosis is best described as a(an):

a)

Central nervous system demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus

b)

Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder

c)

Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system as a result of a virus

d)

Degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors

30.

What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

a)

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

b)

Kaposi sarcoma

c)

Toxoplasmosis

d)

Cytomegalovirus

31.

It is true that Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS):

a)

Is preceded by a viral illness.

b)

Involves a deficit in acetylcholine.

c)

Results in asymmetric paralysis.

32.

Is it true that myasthenia gravis:

a)

Is an acute autoimmune disease.

b)

Affects the nerve roots.

c)

May result in adrenergic crisis.

d)

Causes muscle weakness.

33.

In which disorder are acetylcholine receptor antibodies (IgG antibodies) produced against acetylcholine receptors?

a)

Guillain-Barré syndrome

b)

Multiple sclerosis

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Parkinson disease

34.

Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barré syndrome are similar in that they both:

a)

Result from demyelination by an immune reaction.

b)

Cause permanent destruction of peripheral nerves.

c)

Result from inadequate production of neurotransmitters.

d)

Block acetylcholine receptor sites at the myoneuronal junction.

35.

Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of cluster headaches?

a)

Preheadache aura

b)

Severe unilateral tearing

c)

Gradual onset of a tight band around the head

d)

Significant unilateral, temporal pain

e)

Pain lasting from 30 to 120 minutes

36.

What are the initial clinical manifestations immediately noted after a spinal cord injury?

a)

Headache

b)

Bladder incontinence

c)

Loss of deep tendon reflexes

d)

Hypertension

e)

Flaccid paralysis

37.

Match the term with the corresponding description. Meningitis

a)

Complication of mastoiditis

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

CNS manifestation of tuberculosis

38.

Match the terms with the corresponding descriptions. 39. Encephalitis

a)

A. Complication of mastoiditis

b)

B. Opportunistic infection

c)

C. CNS manifestation of tuberculosis

d)

D. Mosquito-borne viral infection

e)

E. Tick-borne bacterial infection

39.

Match the terms with the corresponding descriptions. 40. Cryptococcus neoformans

a)

Complication of mastoiditis

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

CNS manifestation of tuberculosis

d)

Mosquito-borne viral infection

e)

Tick-borne bacterial infection

40.

Match the terms with the corresponding descriptions. 41. Brain abscess

a)

Complication of mastoiditis

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

CNS manifestation of tuberculosis

d)

Mosquito-borne viral infection

e)

Tick-borne bacterial infection

41.

Match the terms with the corresponding descriptions. 42. Lyme disease

a)

Complication of mastoiditis

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

CNS manifestation of tuberculosis

d)

Mosquito-borne viral infection

e)

Tick-borne bacterial infection

42.

The neural groove closes dorsally during which week of gestational life?

a)

Second

b)

Fourth

c)

Eighth

d)

Twelfth

43.

Which nutritional deficiency in a pregnant woman is associated with neural tube defect (NTD)?

a)

Iron

b)

Zinc

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Folate

44.

Which defect of neural tube closure is most common?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Lateral

d)

Midline

45.

What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is missing?

a)

Anencephaly

b)

Myelodysplasia

c)

Cranial meningocele

d)

Hydrocephaly

46.

The most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in infants is:

a)

Obstructed arachnoid villi

b)

Stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius

c)

Excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid

d)

Impaired cerebrospinal fluid circulation in the subarachnoid space

47.

What is the term for a herniation or protrusion of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull?

a)

Encephalocele

b)

Arachnoidocele

c)

Meningocele

d)

Cephalocele

48.

What is the result of a Chiari type II malformation associated with a myelomeningocele?

a)

Upward displacement of the cerebellum into the diencephalon

b)

Motor and sensory lesions below the level of the myelomeningocele

c)

Downward displacement of the cerebellum, brainstem, and fourth ventricle

d)

Generalized cerebral edema and hydrocephalus

49.

Prompt surgical repair of a myelomeningocele is critical to best prevent:

a)

Infection

b)

Paralysis

c)

Mental retardation

d)

Additional nervous system damage

50.

Which body system is the largest site for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in infants and children?

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Gastrointestinal system

c)

Integumentary system

d)

Musculoskeletal system

51.

An infant diagnosed with hydrocephalus is observed to demonstrate:

a)

Shrunken ventricles

b)

Bulging fontanels

c)

Retarded head growth

d)

Decreased production of cerebrospinal fluid

52.

Gait disturbances and instability are characteristic of which form of cerebral palsy?

a)

Spastic

b)

Dyskinetic

c)

Ataxic

d)

Biochemical

53.

Children with phenylketonuria (PKU) are unable to synthesize:

a)

Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine

b)

Renin, erythropoietin, and antidiuretic hormone

c)

Aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens

d)

Neurotransmitters gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine

54.

Benign febrile seizures are characterized by:

a)

A temperature lower than 39° C

b)

Respiratory or ear infections

c)

Onset after the fifth year of life

d)

Episodes lasting 30 minutes or longer

55.

What is the most common general symptom of a localized childhood brain tumor?

a)

Poor bonding

b)

Increased intracranial pressure

c)

Delayed extinction of newborn reflexes

d)

Failure to thrive

56.

The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:

a)

2 years

b)

1 year

c)

10 months

d)

5 months

57.

What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?

a)

Encephalocele

b)

Meningocele

c)

Spina bifida occulta

d)

Myelomeningocele

58.

What test is performed on amniotic fluid and maternal blood to test for neural tube defect?

a)

Total protein

b)

Culture

c)

a-fetoprotein

d)

C-reactive protein

59.

The clinical manifestations of dyskinetic cerebral palsy include:

a)

Increased muscle tone and prolonged primitive reflexes

b)

Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes, clonus, and rigidity of extremities

c)

Scoliosis, contractures, and stiffness of trunk muscles

d)

Jerky uncontrolled and abrupt fine musculoskeletal movements

60.

Which musculoskeletal deformities are associated with myelomeningocele?

a)

Extra digits on feet

b)

Clubfoot

c)

Dislocation of the hips

d)

Scoliosis

e)

Kyphosis

61.

True microcephaly can be caused by: (Select all that apply.)

a)

Autosomal gene alterations

b)

Prenatal physical abuse of the mother

c)

X-linked gene alterations

d)

Toxic-induced chromosomal defects

e)

Maternal anorexia

62.

Which statements regarding the term myelodysplasia are true? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Myelodysplasia is used to define a defect in the formation of the spinal cord.

b)

It can be used to refer to brain anomalies involving missing brain tissue.

c)

Myelodysplasia correctly includes encephaloceles.

d)

It is used to describe a herniation of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull.

e)

Myelodysplasia can be used to refer to a form of spina bifida.

63.

Neuroblastoma originates in the ________.

a)

neural crest that normally forms the sympathetic ganglia and adrenal medulla

b)

bone marrow

c)

pancreatic islets

d)

thyroid gland

64.

Ependymoma develops in the ________.

a)

fourth ventricle

b)

cerebral cortex

c)

basal ganglia

d)

cerebellar hemisphere

65.

Medulloblastoma develops in the ________.

a)

vermis of the cerebellum and may extend to the fourth ventricle

b)

frontal lobe of the cerebrum

c)

pons of the brainstem

d)

temporal lobe of the cerebrum

66.

Craniopharyngioma originates from the ________.

a)

pituitary or hypothalamus

b)

pineal gland

c)

cerebellum

d)

optic chiasm

67.

Cerebellar astrocytoma causes _______ symptoms such as nystagmus.

a)

unilateral

b)

bilateral

c)

systemic

d)

peripheral