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ATI Ch 12-14: Acute Neurologic Disorders

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of hydrocephalus is characterized by no obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow but either inadequate absorption or overproduction of CSF?

a)

Communicating hydrocephalus

b)

Obstructive hydrocephalus with blocked CSF flow

c)

Congenital hydrocephalus from genetic abnormalities

d)

Ex-vacuo hydrocephalus due to degenerative disease

2.

What is a key difference between bacterial and viral meningitis in cerebrospinal fluid findings?

a)

Bacterial meningitis shows cloudy fluid with elevated WBC and protein, decreased glucose, and is gram positive; viral meningitis shows clear fluid, barely elevated WBC and protein, normal glucose, and is gram negative.

b)

Bacterial meningitis shows clear fluid with normal glucose and is gram negative; viral meningitis shows cloudy fluid with decreased glucose and is gram positive.

c)

Bacterial meningitis shows decreased protein and increased glucose; viral meningitis shows increased protein and decreased glucose.

d)

Bacterial meningitis and viral meningitis have identical cerebrospinal fluid findings.

3.

Which test is commonly used to diagnose meningitis?

a)

CSF lumbar puncture

b)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c)

Blood pressure measurement

d)

Urinalysis

4.

Which nursing intervention is appropriate during a seizure?

a)

Provide a patent airway

b)

Administer antibiotics

c)

Encourage oral intake of fluids

d)

Apply heat packs to the head

5.

What is the primary purpose of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) in seizure management?

a)

Decrease incidence and severity of seizures

b)

Increase blood pressure

c)

Reduce fever

d)

Promote muscle growth

6.

Which type of seizure is characterized by rhythmic contractions and relaxations of muscles, loss of consciousness, and confusion after the event?

a)

Tonic clonic (grand mal) seizure

b)

Absence seizure

c)

Atonic seizure

d)

Simple partial seizure

7.

Which seizure type involves a brief lapse in consciousness, often with little or no warning, and is common in children aged 4-12 years?

a)

Absence seizure

b)

Tonic clonic seizure

c)

Complex partial seizure

d)

Febrile seizure

8.

What is a characteristic feature of atonic seizures?

a)

Sudden loss of muscle tone and fall

b)

Rhythmic contractions and relaxations

c)

Brief lapse in consciousness

d)

Numbness or tingling in one area

9.

Which type of seizure involves impaired awareness and behavior changes, such as responding to stimuli in a confused way?

a)

Complex partial seizure

b)

Simple partial seizure

c)

Absence seizure

d)

Atonic seizure

10.

Febrile seizures are most commonly associated with which condition?

a)

Fever over 100.4°F

b)

Low blood pressure

c)

Dehydration

d)

Head trauma

11.

What is a recommended nursing action for an infant with a head injury?

a)

Monitor intracranial pressure (ICP) and assess for drainage from ears and nose

b)

Encourage vigorous physical activity

c)

Administer high doses of glucose

d)

Apply ice packs to the entire body

12.

For a suspected head injury, which intervention should be avoided?

a)

Use hypotonic solutions

b)

Maintain airway

c)

Cervical stabilization

d)

Monitor for bleeding and drainage

13.

What is the role of a nurse in the pediatric emergency room when caring for a child with a head injury?

a)

Perform ABC neuro check, manage spine and fluids, coordinate diagnostic tests, and educate parents

b)

Administer only oral medications

c)

Encourage immediate discharge without tests

d)

Focus solely on parent education

14.

Which of the following is a symptom of infantile spasms (West syndrome)?

a)

Sudden brief muscle spasm with flexed head and extended arms and legs

b)

Loss of consciousness for several minutes

c)

Persistent high fever

d)

Continuous crying without muscle movement

15.

Which type of hydrocephalus occurs in degenerative neurological disease, stroke, or trauma in older adults?

a)

Ex-vacuo hydrocephalus

b)

Communicating hydrocephalus

c)

Obstructive hydrocephalus

d)

Congenital hydrocephalus

16.

Which of the following is a common complication associated with Down Syndrome?

a)

Congenital heart defect

b)

Frequent bone fractures due to osteoporosis

c)

Type 1 diabetes

d)

Asthma

17.

What is a characteristic physical sign of Down Syndrome?

a)

Single palmar crease

b)

Multiple birthmarks

c)

Excessive hair growth

d)

Large ears

18.

Which symptom is most indicative of dehydration in a preschool-aged child?

a)

Lethargy and sunken eyes

b)

Frequent urination and increased appetite

c)

Rapid weight gain and flushed skin

d)

Persistent hiccups and sneezing

19.

What is the primary treatment for mild dehydration in children?

a)

Oral rehydration

b)

IV fluid boluses

c)

Surgical intervention

d)

Antibiotic therapy

20.

Hirschsprung Disease is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

a)

Down syndrome and congenital heart disease

b)

Asthma and diabetes

c)

Cystic fibrosis and sickle cell anemia

d)

Epilepsy and muscular dystrophy

21.

What is the main surgical intervention for Hirschsprung Disease?

a)

Removal of aganglionic section of bowel with temporary ostomy

b)

Appendectomy

c)

Gastric bypass surgery

d)

Liver transplant

22.

Which nutritional approach is recommended before surgery for Hirschsprung Disease?

a)

High protein, high calorie, low fiber diet, possibly TPN

b)

Low sodium, high potassium diet

c)

Gluten-free, dairy-free diet

d)

High fat, low carbohydrate diet

23.

Projectile vomiting in infants is most commonly associated with which condition?

a)

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

b)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

c)

Intussusception

d)

Appendicitis

24.

What is a classic sign seen on ultrasound in infants with pyloric stenosis?

a)

Mass at the pyloric canal

b)

Fluid-filled cyst in the liver

c)

Enlarged spleen

d)

Collapsed lung

25.

After surgery for pyloric stenosis, which nursing intervention is most important?

a)

Monitoring daily weight and intake/output

b)

Administering antibiotics every 4 hours

c)

Encouraging immediate oral feeding

d)

Applying heat packs to the abdomen

26.

Which developmental concern is most likely in infants who have had cleft lip and palate repairs?

a)

Speech production and coordination difficulties

b)

Frequent nosebleeds

c)

Excessive hair growth

d)

Early puberty

27.

What psychosocial effect may occur in children with cleft lip and palate repairs?

a)

Negative body image and self-esteem issues

b)

Improved athletic performance

c)

Increased risk of diabetes

d)

Enhanced memory

28.

Which teaching point is most important for decreasing the incidence of urinary tract infections in children?

a)

Regular voiding and proper hygiene practices

b)

Limiting fluid intake

c)

Avoiding all dairy products

d)

Taking vitamins daily

29.

Which symptom is commonly seen in infants with urinary tract infections?

a)

Irritable, fussy crying and diaper rash

b)

Persistent sneezing and coughing

c)

Excessive sweating and hair loss

d)

Rapid weight gain and flushed cheeks

30.

Why is it important for sexually active adolescents to urinate after intercourse?

a)

To reduce the risk of urinary tract infections

b)

To increase hydration levels

c)

To prevent pregnancy

d)

To improve kidney function

31.

What defines a recurrent urinary tract infection?

a)

Multiple occurrences of asymptomatic or symptomatic bacteriuria

b)

Single episode of fever and chills

c)

Continuous abdominal pain for one week

d)

Persistent cough and sore throat

32.

Which of the following is a common cause of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children?

a)

Constipation

b)

Frequent urination and high fluid intake

c)

Excessive antibiotic use

d)

Regular bathroom breaks

33.

Why is prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) important in pediatric patients?

a)

To avoid long-term kidney damage and excessive antibiotic exposure

b)

To reduce the need for frequent bathroom breaks

c)

To prevent constipation and infrequent urination

d)

To encourage social activities

34.

Which psychosocial impact may affect children with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

a)

Delayed psychosocial milestones and need for parental support

b)

Improved social skills due to frequent medical visits

c)

Increased participation in group activities

d)

Enhanced self-esteem from managing symptoms

35.

What is a recommended strategy to help children with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) minimize social disruption?

a)

Manage pain, urinary burning, and increased frequency

b)

Encourage excessive antibiotic use

c)

Limit fluid intake and bathroom breaks

d)

Avoid all social activities

36.

Which prenatal finding can indicate obstructive disorders of the kidneys and urinary tract?

a)

Oligohydramnios

b)

Polyhydramnios

c)

Normal amniotic fluid levels

d)

Increased fetal movement

37.

What is bladder exstrophy?

a)

A birth defect where the bladder develops outside the abdominal cavity, diagnosed during prenatal ultrasounds

b)

A condition where the bladder is enlarged but remains inside the body

c)

A disorder involving frequent urinary tract infections

d)

A temporary swelling of the bladder after birth

38.

Which diagnostic tool is commonly used prenatally to detect major genitourinary tract abnormalities?

a)

Prenatal ultrasound

b)

Postnatal CT scan

c)

Urinalysis

d)

Physical examination

39.

Which condition can be detected by prenatal ultrasound and confirmed by newborn examination?

a)

Hydronephrosis, hypospadias, and cryptorchidism

b)

Diabetes mellitus and hypertension

c)

Asthma and bronchitis

d)

Congenital heart defects

40.

Which imaging studies may be used postnatally to assess the extent of genitourinary anomalies?

a)

Ultrasounds, voiding cystourethrograms, and CT scans

b)

Prenatal ultrasounds only

c)

Blood tests and urinalysis

d)

Physical examination alone

41.

Which statement best describes Diabetes Insipidus (DI)?

a)

DI is a rare condition characterized by excessive urination and thirst, unrelated to diabetes mellitus.

b)

DI is a common complication of diabetes mellitus involving high blood sugar.

c)

DI is a disorder caused by insulin deficiency leading to weight loss.

d)

DI is a condition that only affects adults.

42.

Central Diabetes Insipidus is caused by which of the following?

a)

A deficiency of ADH production by the hypothalamus or release by the pituitary gland.

b)

Insulin resistance in the pancreas.

c)

Excessive glucose production in the liver.

d)

Improper kidney response to ADH despite normal production.

43.

Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus occurs when:

a)

The kidneys do not respond properly to ADH, despite normal production and release.

b)

The pituitary gland fails to produce ADH.

c)

There is excessive insulin production.

d)

The pancreas is destroyed by autoimmune processes.

44.

Which of the following is a significant consequence of Diabetes Insipidus?

a)

Significant fluid loss and the production of dilute urine.

b)

Elevated blood glucose and weight gain.

c)

Decreased urine output and fluid retention.

d)

Increased insulin resistance.

45.

Which symptoms are most commonly associated with the clinical presentation of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (DM1) in children?

a)

Polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss.

b)

Obesity, low birth weight, and poor diet.

c)

Elevated blood pressure and rapid heart rate.

d)

Frequent infections and delayed puberty.

46.

What is the primary diagnostic test for children with symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss to confirm DM1?

a)

Hemoglobin A1c test.

b)

Random plasma glucose test.

c)

Oral glucose tolerance test.

d)

Continuous glucose monitoring.

47.

Screening for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (DM2) is recommended for which group?

a)

Asymptomatic children and adolescents who are overweight or obese and have additional risk factors such as a family history of diabetes or certain ethnic backgrounds.

b)

All children regardless of risk factors.

c)

Only adults over the age of 40.

d)

Children with a history of thyroid disorders.

48.

What does Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) measure?

a)

The average blood glucose level over the past two to three months.

b)

The amount of insulin produced by the pancreas.

c)

The level of ADH in the blood.

d)

The concentration of electrolytes in the urine.

49.

Which diagnostic tool offers real-time glucose monitoring and provides more detailed information than HbA1c alone?

a)

Continuous Glucose Monitoring (CGM).

b)

Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT).

c)

Random Plasma Glucose Test.

d)

Fasting Insulin Test.

50.

Children with diabetes may also be screened for which additional conditions?

a)

Thyroid disorders, gastrointestinal conditions, lipid disorders, low albumin, and retinopathy.

b)

Asthma and allergies.

c)

Heart disease and hypertension.

d)

Bone density and vitamin D deficiency.

51.

Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (DM2)?

a)

Random plasma glucose level of 200 mg/dL or greater with symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, or weight loss.

b)

Fasting blood glucose level below 100 mg/dL.

c)

HbA1c less than 5%.

d)

Continuous glucose monitoring showing normal levels.

52.

What is the recommended treatment focus for Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) in hospitalized children?

a)

Rehydration, insulin administration, and correction of electrolyte imbalances, specifically potassium, and monitoring for cerebral edema.

b)

Immediate surgery and removal of the pancreas.

c)

High-protein diet and exercise.

d)

Antibiotic therapy and bed rest.

53.

Which risk factor is associated with the development of Type II Diabetes Mellitus in adolescents?

a)

Having a first-degree relative with diabetes, obesity, low birth weight, and certain ethnic backgrounds.

b)

Frequent infections and delayed puberty.

c)

High levels of physical activity and healthy diet.

d)

Excessive ADH production.

54.

Which hormone is produced by the pituitary gland and is associated with growth hormone deficiency?

a)

Growth hormone.

b)

Insulin.

c)

ADH (antidiuretic hormone).

d)

Thyroid hormone.

55.

Which laboratory test provides insight into how well diabetes is being managed over time?

a)

Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c).

b)

Random plasma glucose test.

c)

Fasting insulin test.

d)

Oral glucose tolerance test.

56.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended screening for children with diabetes?

a)

Screening for heart disease and hypertension.

b)

Screening for thyroid disorders.

c)

Screening for gastrointestinal conditions.

d)

Screening for retinopathy.

57.

Which hormone stimulates growth and repair in the body?

a)

Growth hormone (GH)

b)

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) with additional effects on metabolism

c)

Prolactin (PRL) with effects on breast milk production and growth

d)

Oxytocin, which also stimulates uterine contraction and growth

58.

What is the primary function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

a)

Controls body fluid and mineral levels retained by the kidneys

b)

Stimulates breast milk production and uterine contraction

c)

Regulates reproductive functioning and stimulates ovaries and testes

d)

Promotes muscle and bone development

59.

Which diagnostic test is commonly used to determine bone age in children with suspected growth hormone deficiency?

a)

X-ray of the hand and wrist

b)

MRI of the brain with additional blood tests

c)

CT scan of the pituitary gland

d)

Ultrasound of the thyroid gland

60.

Growth hormone deficiency (GHD) can be caused by which of the following?

a)

Congenital (hereditary) or acquired (cancer, surgery, traumatic brain injury)

b)

Only acquired causes such as surgery or trauma

c)

Only congenital causes such as genetic mutations

d)

Environmental factors like poor nutrition

61.

Which laboratory test is used to confirm the diagnosis of growth hormone deficiency?

a)

GH stimulation test and serum Igf1

b)

Thyroid function test and serum TSH

c)

Blood glucose test and insulin levels

d)

Urine analysis for protein content

62.

What is the most common pituitary hormone deficiency in children?

a)

Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)

b)

Thyroid hormone deficiency with additional metabolic effects

c)

Prolactin deficiency affecting breast milk production

d)

Adrenal hormone deficiency causing fluid imbalance

63.

Precocious puberty is more common in which group, and at what ages does it typically start?

a)

Females, starting at 8 years; males, starting at 9 years

b)

Males, starting at 7 years; females, starting at 10 years

c)

Females, starting at 9 years; males, starting at 8 years

d)

Both genders, starting at 7 years

64.

Which endocrine disorder is one of the more common in pediatric clients, with congenital incidence ranging from 1 in 3,000 to 4,000 live births?

a)

Hypothyroidism

b)

Hyperthyroidism with higher incidence in females

c)

Diabetes mellitus type 1 (DM1)

d)

Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)

65.

What dietary factor influences the production of thyroid hormones t3 and t4?

a)

Iodine intake

b)

Calcium intake with additional effects on bone health

c)

Protein intake

d)

Vitamin D intake

66.

Which symptom is commonly associated with congenital hypothyroidism in children?

a)

Short slow growth, cold intolerance, bruises easily, delayed puberty

b)

Rapid growth and early puberty

c)

Excessive weight gain and hyperactivity

d)

Frequent infections and high fever

67.

Which of the following is a common assessment finding in pediatric hyperthyroidism?

a)

Tachycardia, heat intolerance, exophthalmos, weight loss, tremors, enlarged thyroid gland, emotional lability, palpitations

b)

Short slow growth, cold intolerance, bruises easily, delayed puberty

c)

Rapid weight gain, sleepiness, and increased appetite

d)

Muscle weakness, joint pain, and hair loss

68.

Diabetes mellitus type 1 (DM1) commonly presents in children at which ages?

a)

Between ages 5 to 7 and around puberty

b)

At birth and during early infancy

c)

Between ages 10 to 12 only

d)

After age 18

69.

Which statement best describes the trend in incidence of diabetes mellitus type 1 (DM1) in recent decades?

a)

Incidence has increased significantly

b)

Incidence has remained stable

c)

Incidence has decreased

d)

Incidence is only increasing in adults

70.

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is more common in which group?

a)

Pediatric clients with DM1, but also occurs in pediatric clients with DM2

b)

Adults with DM2 only

c)

Children with hypothyroidism

d)

Females with hyperthyroidism

71.

Which ethnic groups have higher incidences of diabetes mellitus type 2 (DM2) in adolescence?

a)

Certain ethnic groups

b)

Only Caucasian children

c)

Only Asian children

d)

No ethnic differences