WorksheetsDementia: MIND Diet, Types, and Cognitive Deficits
Total questions: 122
Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins
According to the MIND-style Mediterranean intervention for neurocognitive delay, which food choice aligns with the omega-3 component emphasized for cognitive support?
Processed poultry
Salmon
White bread
Sugary cereal
Which recommendation is included in teaching about the MIND diet to promote cognitive function?
Increase alcoholic drinks to relax
Use olive oil as the primary fat
Avoid all vegetables to prevent toxins
Choose only red meat for protein
Which set of foods matches the MIND diet guidance for plant-based proteins and legumes replacing meat?
Beans, lentils, and soybeans
Bacon, sausage, and ham
Yogurt, butter, and cream
Lobster, shrimp, and crab
General findings in dementia include a significant cognitive decline from previous performance in one or more domains. Which statement accurately reflects a general finding?
Loss of consciousness is commonly altered
Attention, learning, memory, language, perceptual-motor, or social cognition may be affected
Only motor skills are affected while cognition remains intact
Dementia resolves within days
Which time course best describes dementia progression as noted in the findings section?
Minutes to hours
Days to weeks
Months to years
Immediate and reversible
Which feature belongs to the cognitive domain of executive functioning in dementia?
Improved multitasking ability
Planning difficulties with complex tasks
Enhanced recall of recent events
Faster processing speed without distractions
Complex attention deficits in dementia are characterized by which presentation?
Rapid processing despite overstimulation
Overstimulated and distracted thinking; tasks take longer even without distractions
Unaffected processing speed regardless of environment
Improved task completion under pressure
Language changes in dementia may present as which difficulty?
Fluent expressive and receptive language
Forgetting item names and struggling to find the right words
Enhanced vocabulary and word retrieval
No impact on naming or language comprehension
Social cognition impairment in dementia is often marked by which behavior?
Strict adherence to social standards and safe decision-making
Increased empathy and inhibition
Insensitivity to standards with unsafe decisions, decreased empathy, and restlessness
No change in social judgment
Which vascular dementia descriptor is accurate based on its pathophysiology and clinical impact?
Hypertension increases cerebral perfusion, improving cognition
Hypertension reduces blood flow via cerebrovascular events leading to cognitive decline and decreased processing speed
Vascular disease exclusively causes motor symptoms without cognitive effects
Blood flow changes primarily enhance executive function
Which constellation best characterizes Lewy body dementia?
Pure language impairment without motor changes
Memory loss, increased falls, autonomic dysfunction, sleep issues, and fluctuating cognition with Parkinson’s-like signs
Only visual field loss and blind spots
Hyperactive social judgment and reduced restlessness
Which symptom is commonly associated with Lewy body dementia as highlighted?
Auditory hallucinations only
Visual hallucinations
Complete absence of tremors
Rigid adherence to slow-wave sleep
Which lobe association is correctly matched to its noted difficulty in dementia?
Parietal lobe — difficulty with reading and special misperception
Frontal lobe — improved focus and language
Occipital lobe — enhanced visual acuity
Temporal lobe — perfect short- and long-term memory
Which brain region change is paired with the correct functional impact?
Cerebellum — improved walking and fluent speech
Brainstem — changes in breathing and difficulty swallowing
Temporal lobe — better memory consolidation
Occipital lobe — sharper vision without blind spots
Which set reflects mild manifestations of impaired social cognition in dementia?
Subtle behavior or attitude changes; decreased empathy and inhibition with restlessness
Markedly unsafe decisions; overt disregard for social norms
Complete absence of restlessness with improved empathy
No behavior change but improved decision-making
Which grouping captures cognitive deficits common in Alzheimer’s disease, as summarized in the instructional material?
Only motor and visual deficits
Complex attention, learning and memory, executive function, and perceptual-motor deficits
Exclusive language improvement
Isolated processing speed increase
In Alzheimer’s-related complex attention deficits, which description is accurate?
Tasks speed up when distracted
Processing speed slows; overstimulation and distraction prolong task completion even without distractions
Processing speed remains normal despite overstimulation
Multitasking capacity improves
Parkinson’s disease dementia is associated with which risk factors or features listed?
Old age alone without motor symptoms
Destruction of the globus pallidus and more severe motor symptoms: tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability
Enhanced autonomic function
Exclusive cognitive improvement with aging
Which statement best describes Stage i in the Functional Assessment Stage Tool (FAST) for Alzheimer's disease?
No impairment with no memory issues
Very mild cognitive decline with mild forgetfulness
Mild decline with trouble planning and organizing
Moderate decline with difficulty in finances and shopping
In the FAST staging, which stage is characterized by mild forgetfulness but the person can still perform activities of daily living (ADLs)?
Stage i: No impairment
Stage ii: Very mild cognitive decline
Stage iii: Mild decline
Stage iv: Moderate decline
According to FAST, which stage involves noticeable trouble with planning, organizing, and complex tasks that family members can see?
Stage ii: Very mild cognitive decline
Stage iii: Mild decline
Stage v: Moderate severe decline
Stage vi: Severe decline
Which FAST stage specifies difficulty managing finances and shopping for complex tasks with a need for some assistance?
Stage iv: Moderate decline
Stage v: Moderate severe decline
Stage vi: Severe decline
Stage vii: Very severe
At which FAST stage does an individual require help choosing clothes and hygiene cues due to major memory gaps?
Stage iii: Mild decline
Stage iv: Moderate decline
Stage v: Moderate severe decline
Stage vi: Severe decline
Which FAST stage commonly includes help with toileting, dressing, bathing, and incontinence?
Stage iv: Moderate decline
Stage v: Moderate severe decline
Stage vi: Severe decline
Stage vii: Very severe
Using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), what score range indicates mild TBI with disorientation and confusion at initial assessment?
3 to 8
9 to 12
13 to 15 (not less than 13 at 30 minutes)
16 to 18
Which combination correctly matches moderate TBI criteria from the table?
Loss of consciousness less than 30 minutes; posttraumatic amnesia less than 24 hours; GCS 13–15
Loss of consciousness 30 minutes to 24 hours; posttraumatic amnesia 24 hours to 7 days; GCS 9–12
Loss of consciousness more than 24 hours; posttraumatic amnesia more than 7 days; GCS 3–8
Loss of consciousness 10–20 minutes; posttraumatic amnesia 8–12 hours; GCS 6–9
A patient had loss of consciousness for more than 24 hours and posttraumatic amnesia lasting over 7 days. Based on the table, what TBI severity is most consistent with these findings?
Mild TBI
Moderate TBI
Severe TBI
Cannot be classified using the table
Which dietary recommendation is linked to decreased progression of Alzheimer's disease?
Low-flavanol diet emphasizing refined grains
High intake of flavanol-rich foods such as olive oil, tea, beans, and leafy greens
High-protein diet with processed meats
Exclusive consumption of dairy products
Protease inhibitor medications are most directly indicated for management within which context?
Parkinson’s disease tremor control
Dementia related to HIV infection
Frontotemporal dementia behavioral symptoms
Huntington’s disease chorea
Which strategy addresses anosmia in dementia care?
Encouraging frequent use of incense to stimulate olfaction
Teaching smoke detection solely by smell
Monitoring for inability to smell smoke and food spoilage to improve safety
Avoiding any discussion of odors to reduce anxiety
In a client with dementia related to traumatic brain injury (TBI), which presentation indicates worsening condition?
Improved executive function and new learning
Loss of consciousness, posttraumatic amnesia, disorientation and confusion persisting beyond the acute post-injury period
Isolated hand tremor without cognitive changes
Stable mood with enhanced attention
Which comorbidity and context commonly accompany TBI-related dementia in clinical populations?
Chronic rhinitis in elementary school children
Fractures secondary to automobile accidents and co-occurring substance use disorders
Seasonal allergies and vegan diet
Congenital heart disease without injury history
Which preventive counseling point is appropriate for a patient with prior TBI to reduce compounded damage?
Encourage high-risk sports without protective gear
Stress avoiding further brain injury by preventing falls and wearing helmets; warn that intoxication can worsen TBI dementia; recognize domestic violence as a risk factor
Recommend alcohol to aid sleep after concussion
Limit physical therapy to reduce brain stimulation
Based on severity ratings for TBI, which combination aligns with moderate TBI?
Loss of consciousness 30 min or less; posttraumatic amnesia 1 day or less; GCS 13–15
Loss of consciousness 30 min to 24 hr; posttraumatic amnesia 1 to 7 days; GCS 9–12
Loss of consciousness 24 hr or more; posttraumatic amnesia 7 days or more; GCS 3–8
Loss of consciousness under 5 minutes; no amnesia; GCS 15
Which neuroimaging result is typical for mild TBI compared with complicated mild TBI?
Both show abnormal CT/MRI findings
Mild TBI: normal CT/MRI; Complicated mild TBI: abnormal CT/MRI
Mild TBI: abnormal CT/MRI; Complicated mild TBI: normal CT/MRI
Neither can be distinguished by CT/MRI
On MRI, frontotemporal dementia is best characterized by which feature?
Diffuse demyelination identical to Alzheimer’s plaques
Atrophy with Pick bodies distinct from Alzheimer’s tangles
Cerebellar infarcts only
Normal cortical thickness without changes
Chronic alcohol use is typically associated with which MRI finding relevant to substance/medication-related dementia?
Hippocampal enlargement
Cortical thinning
Basal ganglia calcification
Cerebellar hyperplasia
Beyond tetrabenazine, which pharmacologic classes may be used to control manifestations in Huntington’s disease?
Antipsychotics and benzodiazepines
Antibiotics and antihistamines
Anticoagulants and diuretics
Antivirals and antitussives
Which statement best describes frontotemporal dementia assessment priorities regarding neurocognitive disorders?
Focus solely on motor symptoms without cognitive testing
Assess cognitive and perception disturbances such as hallucinations and confabulations
Evaluate only sleep patterns
Screen only for depression
Which physical finding is most characteristic of anorexia nervosa resulting from self-starvation and restricted intake?
Elevated blood pressure and tachycardia
Thin/emaciated appearance with hypotension and bradycardia
Hyperthermia with flushed skin
Peripheral edema without weight loss
A client with anorexia nervosa presents with brittle hair and nails. Which additional finding aligns with the expected physical effects of AN?
Increased bone density and regular menstruation
Muscle weakness and gastrointestinal problems
Hyperglycemia and improved dental health
Enhanced cold tolerance and thick scalp hair
Which laboratory pattern is most consistent with anorexia nervosa?
Increased sodium and potassium, normal magnesium
Decreased sodium, potassium, phosphorus, magnesium, calcium, and chloride
Elevated chloride with normal calcium and phosphorus
Normal electrolytes with high serum glucose
Which behavior exemplifies the fear of gaining weight in anorexia nervosa?
Persistent engagement in weight-gaining activities
Stopping weight gain through persistent behaviors such as excessive exercise even when already underweight
Seeking professional help to increase BMI to a healthy range
Ignoring weight-related thoughts during the day
According to the prevalence data, which statement about eating disorders in the U.S. is accurate?
Eating disorders have one of the lowest mortality rates among mental health disorders
About 10% of people with eating disorders die within 10 years
Only adults over 25 develop eating disorders
Eating disorders are unrelated to occupations emphasizing weight or stature
Which fact best represents the burden of eating disorders across the lifespan and population groups?
Cases begin only after adolescence and affect primarily men
Approximately 30 million people in the U.S. have had an eating disorder at some point in life
No documented increase among transgender individuals or veterans
Cases rarely start before age 12
In dementia care, what is a documented benefit of therapy animals?
Increase agitation and social withdrawal
Reduce anxiety, agitation, and loneliness while improving mood and socialization
Decrease mood but increase independence
Eliminate cognitive decline through diet changes
Which pattern best defines bulimia nervosa as described: binge eating followed by which compensatory behavior occurring at least once a week for 3 months?
Strict calorie counting without purging
Self-induced vomiting or use of laxatives, medications, fasting, or excessive exercise
Complete avoidance of all solid foods
Night eating without any compensatory actions
A client with bulimia nervosa reports episodes of overeating. Which associated feeling commonly occurs during these episodes?
Sense of complete control over eating choices
Feeling of lack of control during the overeating episode
Indifference to food quantity
Strong aversion to sweet foods only
Which gastrointestinal finding is listed among bulimia nervosa complications?
Irritable bowel syndrome
GI disturbance
Peptic ulcer perforation
Crohn disease
Which physical change of the parotid gland is noted in bulimia nervosa findings?
Parotid gland shrinkage causing sunken cheeks
Parotid gland enlargement leading to chipmunk cheeks
Normal parotid size with jaw tenderness only
Parotid gland fibrosis causing trismus
Russell’s sign refers to which characteristic finding in bulimia nervosa?
Erosion of tooth enamel
Callus or scar on the knuckles
Redness of the soft palate
Ulceration of the tongue
Which treatment modality focuses on increasing self-worth, enhancing autonomy, and decreasing shame?
Interpersonal therapy
Humanistic therapy
Dialectical behavioral therapy
Cognitive therapy
Interpersonal therapy in eating disorders primarily targets which goal according to the material?
Challenge cognitive distortions only
Promote mindfulness and distress tolerance
Address grief, role transitions, and disputes to improve communication skills and social support
Empower and reunite the family system for long-term stabilization
Which statement best captures the focus of cognitive therapy for eating disorders as described?
Reframe dysfunctional thinking patterns and challenge distortions
Teach meal planning and calorie tracking
Increase aerobic exercise tolerance
Provide pharmacologic management only
Dialectical behavioral therapy in eating disorders aims to promote which set of skills?
Mindfulness, emotional regulation, distress tolerance, and interpersonal effectiveness
Exposure therapy and desensitization exclusively
Crisis management and medication adherence only
Psychoanalytic free association
Family-based therapy in eating disorders emphasizes which approach?
Separating the child from family influences
Empowering and reuniting the family system to address dependence and strained relationships for long-term stabilization
Focusing only on individual cognitive distortions
Limiting family involvement to monthly check-ins
Which nursing action is appropriate when weighing a client in an eating disorder treatment program?
Vary the time of day and scale for each weigh-in
Encourage different clothing to reduce anxiety
Use the same clothes and the same scale at each daily weight
Avoid bathroom inspection to protect privacy
Which nursing action helps monitor for purging behaviors around weigh-ins?
Inspect the bathroom for purging
Offer extra snacks after weighing
Allow unrestricted water intake immediately before weighing
Provide music during weigh-ins
Which medication is identified for bulimia nervosa management?
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Bupropion
Lithium
In the SCOFF screening questionnaire, which question addresses control related to eating?
Do you avoid breakfast every day?
Do you worry that you have lost control over how much you eat?
Do you count calories at every meal?
Do you prefer eating alone most days?
In the SCOFF screening questionnaire, which question screens for post-meal purging behaviors?
Do you make yourself sick or vomit after a meal because you feel uncomfortably full?
Do you exercise more than 2 hours daily?
Do you skip lunch on weekdays?
Do you drink more than 8 glasses of water per day?
Which question aligns with screening for unintentional rapid weight loss using the British unit of "stone"?
Have you lost more than 10 kilograms in the past year?
Have you recently lost more than 1 stone (14 pounds/6.4 kg) in a 3-month period?
Are you currently trying to lose weight for health reasons?
Do you weigh less than 50 kilograms right now?
Which statement is a direct screening question for problematic preoccupation with food control?
Would you like to learn new recipes?
Would you say that food dominates your life?
Do you often skip breakfast due to time constraints?
Do you count calories occasionally when dining out?
Which finding indicates a therapeutic response in a patient with an eating disorder?
Persistent weight loss despite meal plans
Steady weight gain
Increased food rituals before meals
Worsening electrolyte abnormalities
Which change in eating patterns suggests improvement during eating disorder treatment?
Normal eating patterns without rituals or compensation
Refusal to eat without performing specific rituals
Rigid adherence to a liquid-only diet
Daily self-induced vomiting as a coping mechanism
Which finding reflects reduced pathology and medical stabilization in eating disorder recovery?
Heart rate and blood pressure remain abnormal with low electrolytes
Reduced preoccupation with food and stable labs/electrolytes
Continued obsession with calorie counting and restrictive labs
Normal mood but persistent purging behaviors
Which characteristic is most consistent with orthorexia?
Focus on weight loss through any means, including purging
Obsession with clean foods leading to significant disturbance in nutritional intake and weight loss
Preference for high-protein diets to build muscle
Avoidance of food due to fear of contamination unrelated to health rules
Which behavior aligns with orthorexia’s rigid rule set?
Occasional dietary flexibility when eating with friends
Rigid rules that ban entire food groups
Counting macronutrients for athletic performance
Skipping dessert on weekdays only
Which cognitive preoccupation typifies orthorexia?
Researching food ingredients and purity
Tracking daily steps and sleep
Joining a weight-loss support group
Avoiding restaurants due to cost
Which emotional response is characteristic when orthorexic food rules are violated?
Relief and acceptance
Shame and guilt
Indifference
Anger at others but not self
In triage for a group of clients with depression, which client requires highest priority?
Stable mood on medications with improved coping skills
Persistent sadness and poor sleep but medically stable
Severe functional decline, not eating or taking meds
Active suicidal ideation, recent attempts, command hallucinations, hopelessness, and access to lethal means
Which scenario best represents a client ready for discharge in depression management?
Active suicidal ideation with a plan
Severe functional decline and inability to perform ADLs
Symptomatic with persistent anhedonia and low motivation
Improved coping skills, better mood, and stable on medications
Which is a recognized suicide risk factor?
Strong social support network
Having made a previous attempt at self-harm
No history of mental illness and robust coping skills
Stable employment and finances
Which item is NOT a suicide risk factor from the provided list?
Legal problems
Financial problems
Family history of suicide
Routine dental checkups
Which clinical feature increases suicide risk due to behavioral dyscontrol?
Risky and impulsive behaviors
Stable mood on medications
Consistent attendance at therapy
Active engagement in social support
Which social factor reduces suicide risk rather than increases it?
Lacking social support
Strong social support
Personal relationship problems
Having been bullied
Which set of vital sign and lab findings indicates therapeutic response in eating disorder care?
Bradycardia, hypotension, and abnormal electrolytes
Tachycardia, hypertension, and low potassium
Heart rate and blood pressure normal with electrolytes and labs stable
Normal mood but electrolyte derangements
When assessing a client for suicidal ideation, which direct question aligns with recommended nursing actions?
"Have you considered harming someone else?"
"Are you having thoughts of suicide?"
"Do you feel anxious today?"
"Would you like to speak to a social worker?"
Which step helps create a safe environment for a client at risk for suicide?
Remove harmful objects and search belongings
Increase visiting hours for family
Allow access to medications for autonomy
Provide open access to outdoor areas
Which behavior is a warning sign of ongoing suicidal ideation?
Withdrawing socially from family and friends
Joining a new support group
Requesting more counseling sessions
Improved appetite and sleep
A client begins arranging affairs and bidding goodbye to friends and family. What does this most likely signify?
Preparation for relocation
Resolution of legal issues
Continuation of suicidal ideation
Improved coping and recovery
Which understanding of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is accurate?
ECT is contraindicated when depression is treatment refractory
ECT induces seizures under anesthesia to treat depression
ECT is a first-line therapy before trying medications
ECT causes permanent memory loss in all patients
Which preparation aligns with safe ECT administration?
Encourage a large meal beforehand
Maintain NPO status before the treatment
Administer high-dose caffeine pre-procedure
Avoid anesthesia to reduce risks
Which option is a noninvasive treatment for depression?
Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
Lobotomy
Long-term electroconvulsive therapy without anesthesia
Deep brain stimulation surgery
Which list best represents noninvasive depression treatments mentioned together?
Behavioral therapy, group/support therapy, light therapy
Insulin shock therapy, psychosurgery, MAOI therapy
ECT only, without follow-up psychotherapy
Antibiotics, antihistamines, and vitamins
Which statement reflects feelings commonly associated with continued suicidal ideation?
Feeling trapped without solutions to problems
Feeling excited about future plans
Feeling bored but content
Feeling mildly nervous before a test
Which societal factor may contribute to suicide risk and warrants discussion during assessment?
Community cluster of suicides
Neighborhood watch program
Local recycling initiative
Public library expansion
Which cultural factor could elevate suicide risk and should be explored sensitively?
Belief that suicide is noble
Belief in balanced nutrition
Belief in regular exercise
Belief in time management
Which nursing action supports therapeutic engagement with a suicidal client in addition to safety measures?
Be therapeutic in communication
Limit all conversations to yes/no questions
Avoid discussing feelings to prevent triggering
Delegate all discussions to nonclinical staff
According to the SAD PERSON scale, which score range should lead to admission to hospital?
0–2
3–6
7–10
11–12
In the SAD PERSON scale, which factor corresponds to the letter D?
Depression
Drug overdose
Divorce
Detoxification
Which pair correctly matches the SAD PERSON letters with their factor?
S = sickness (major or chronic), N = no partner
S = sex female, N = nicotine use
S = social supports present, N = new job
S = suicidal ideation only, N = normal mood
A patient scores 3–6 on the SAD PERSON scale. Which disposition is most appropriate?
Discharge only without follow-up
Admit or discharge with appropriate follow-up
Home with no further care
Automatic hospital admission
Which item should be removed from a suicidal patient’s environment due to safety concerns?
Soft pillow
Plastic bags
Books
Hand sanitizer only
Which combination of items is unsafe for a suicidal patient?
Mirrors made of glass, razors/scissors/knives/cans, shoe laces
Nonbreakable cups, foam slippers, electric toothbrush
Plastic utensils, paper towels, rubber bands
Hairbrush, cotton swabs, cloth napkins
Which medication storage practice aligns with safety guidance for suicidal patients?
Meds left on bedside table
Meds kept unlocked for easy access
Meds locked
Meds hidden but accessible
Which social group is specifically listed as at higher risk for suicide?
Children under 10
Nonhispanic white people
College professors
Professional athletes
Which contextual setting is identified as higher risk for suicide?
Urban areas with tech startups
Rural areas with construction and mining
Suburban neighborhoods with new schools
Coastal tourist towns
Essential oils such as lavender, chamomile, and bergamot are described as helping anxiety primarily by which mechanism?
Slowing the fight-or-flight response and activating rest-and-digest
Directly increasing blood glucose to stabilize mood
Blocking serotonin reuptake in the synaptic cleft
Stimulating the sympathetic nervous system to enhance alertness
Which screening area is identified for older adults in the material?
Depression
Audiometry alone without functional assessment
Exclusive nutritional labs
Dermatologic cancer only
When planning screening for older adults, which combination best aligns with the recommended domains?
Cognitive status, functional ability, and fall risk/nutritional factors
Cardiac catheterization, genetic testing, and spirometry
Sports performance metrics, reaction time drills, and maximal VO2
Dental imaging, skin biopsies, and allergy panels
In the therapeutic relationship for eating disorders, which phase focuses on exploring triggers related to disordered eating behaviors?
Pre-interaction phase
Orientation phase
Working phase
Evaluation phase
Which statement exemplifies a patient’s cognitive experience commonly noted in eating disorder care?
"I feel imprisoned by my ED" and making "excuses to not go to holiday party"
"I feel completely cured without support"
"I have no thoughts about food or body image"
"I prefer group sports to individual therapy"
Which conceptual model is identified for understanding eating disorders in this material?
Biomedical model
Nature–nurture diathesis stress model
Social learning theory only
Cognitive dissonance model
Which condition is described as obsessive thoughts on food?
Anorexia nervosa
Bulimia nervosa
Binge eating
Pica
Bulimia is associated with medical changes from vomiting and binge–purge cycles. Which combination aligns with the review?
Increased potassium and decreased pancreatic enzymes
Decreased potassium, T3/T4, and sodium with increased pancreatic enzymes
Normal electrolytes with decreased pancreatic enzymes
Elevated T3/T4 with hypernatremia
Which therapy aims to restructure distorted thoughts to improve emotional status and perception of self and world in eating disorder care?
Humanistic therapy
CBT (Cognitive Behavioral Therapy)
Behavioral therapy only
Interpersonal therapy
Pica is characterized by eating inedible items without nutritional value. Which example fits the description?
High-protein bars
Raw vegetables
Dirt, hair, clay, or paint chips
Vitamin-fortified cereals
Based on the dementia functional assessment table, which stage is identified as incipient Alzheimer’s disease possible and is a good time to designate a financial or medical power of attorney?
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
Stage 5
Delirium in older adults can be precipitated by which common clinical scenario noted in the review?
High-dose omega-3 intake
Urinary tract infection
Amyloid plaque accumulation
Music therapy sessions
Which diagnostic modality is noted to show amyloid plaques in Alzheimer’s disease, with another imaging method improving plaque visualization?
MRI shows plaques; CT improves visualization
CT shows plaques; PET improves visualization
PET shows plaques; MRI improves visualization
Ultrasound shows plaques; PET improves visualization
Which nutritional guidance is included under the "Mind diet" to support cognitive function in dementia care?
Increase flavanol intake from oranges and tea
Increase omega-3 from leafy vegetables
Avoid leafy vegetables due to high omega-3
Eliminate tomatoes due to low antioxidants
Which behavioral feature is linked to Huntington’s disease in this review?
Memory improvement with music therapy
Jerky movements with impulsive behaviors; gene on chromosome 4
Restless mood swings from vitamin deficiency
Swelling of salivary glands with vomiting
Which statement best differentiates dementia from delirium as presented?
Delirium involves hallucinations, tremors, and altered level of consciousness; dementia includes impaired memory, agitation, incoherent speech, and agnosia
Dementia has sudden onset with tremors; delirium features progressive cognitive decline
Delirium is diagnosed only by PET; dementia is diagnosed only by lab tests
Delirium is triggered by omega-3 intake; dementia is caused by UTI
Which characteristic listed is specifically associated with Alzheimer's disease in this review summary?
Jerky eye movements
Agraphia and confabulation with sundowning
Rapid eye movement causing shuffle
Tantrums and irritability at school
According to the summary, which gait or movement pattern is linked to Lewy body dementia?
Jerky shuffle
Rapid eye movement
Rapid gait shuffle
Freezing of gait
Which statement best matches Parkinson’s dementia in the provided material?
Rapid eye movement and jerky movement
Rapid gait shuffle with falls
Jerky movement paired with rapid eye movement
Loss of object recognition (agnosia)
In home care for dementia, what is identified as the greatest risk factor for patient safety?
Lack of mobility aids
Being unsupervised with safety not ensured
Overuse of sedative medications
Exposure to excessive stimulation
Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) details include several features. Which is correct based on the text?
Requires general anesthesia and overnight stay
A 30-minute procedure with the patient remaining awake
Only a single treatment is needed
Ineffective when combined with psychotherapy
Which immediate clinical priority question aligns with suicide risk assessment in the summary?
Ask about past medical history
Ask about thoughts of suicidal ideation and specifics
Assess dietary habits
Screen for thyroid antibodies
Disruptive mood disorder in the text is characterized by which feature?
Episodic euphoria with grandiosity
Tantrums and irritability causing trouble at school
Persistent sadness without behavioral issues
Hallucinations with disorganized speech
For discharge planning after suicidal ideation, which element is emphasized?
Encouraging isolation to prevent triggers
Developing coping skills, social support, and locking away sharp objects
Eliminating all medications regardless of indication
Immediate return to work duties
