wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PSY 2012 Exam 2 Practice Questions (Chapters 1–3)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Reinforcement is a concept of which of the following schools?

a)

Behaviorist

b)

Psychoanalytics

c)

Gestalt Psychology

d)

Cognitive Psychology

2.

Trephining, one of the earliest known forms of psychosurgery, was believed to serve which purpose according to early explanations?

a)

To increase intelligence by removing “extra” brain tissue

b)

To release spirits thought to cause disorders such as epilepsy or headaches

c)

To treat infections caused by head wounds

d)

To strengthen the frontal lobes for better reasoning

3.

What do correlational studies look at?

a)

Finding definitive cause-and-effect relationships

b)

The relationship between two variables

c)

Observing independent variable effects on dependent variables

d)

Unique experiences of a single subject

4.

Experimental studies do not:

a)

Directly manipulate the independent variable

b)

Observe its effects on the dependent variable

c)

Tell you directly what causes something

d)

Manipulate the dependent variable

e)

All of the above

5.

A case study ...

a)

Gives detailed descriptive data on a particular subject

b)

Summarizes a larger study

c)

Identifies correlation and causation within a study

d)

Provides the most logical conclusion that can be drawn from a study

6.

What was the primary ethical problem with the Willowbrook State School hepatitis studies (1950s–1970s)?

a)

Failure to randomize participants properly

b)

Coercive and misleading consent for a vulnerable population

c)

Not publishing the results in a peer-reviewed journal

d)

Paying participants excessive compensation

7.

All research involving human subjects should adhere to the following guidelines EXCEPT:

a)

Avoid unnecessary suffering

b)

Avoid deception

c)

Involve voluntary consent

d)

Be conducted by qualified experimenters

8.

Which of the following best describes the role of the Institutional Review Board (IRB) in psychological research?

a)

To ensure that researchers' hypotheses are correct.

b)

To determine publication bias in research studies.

c)

To maximize potential benefits and minimize risks to participants.

d)

To perform statistical analyses on collected data.

9.

The process of determining an answer to a research question through probability is:

a)

hypothesis

b)

Statistical analysis

c)

measurement

d)

Data collection

10.

Which of the following best describes the role of glial cells in the nervous system?

a)

They transmit electrical impulses between neurons.

b)

They insulate, support, and remove waste around neurons.

c)

They generate action potentials.

d)

They store neurotransmitters in the synapse.

11.

Which of the following is true about the somatic and automatic nervous system?

a)

The somatic nervous system controls automatic functions, while the autonomic system controls voluntary movement.

b)

The somatic nervous system connects to muscles and sensory receptors, while the autonomic system connects to the heart, blood vessels, smooth muscles, and glands.

c)

The somatic nervous system communicates only with the spinal cord, while the autonomic system communicates only with the brain.

d)

The somatic nervous system operates only during waking hours, while the autonomic system operates only during sleep.

12.

Which part of the brain is NOT in the hindbrain?

a)

Medulla

b)

Pons

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Hypothalamus

13.

Damage to Broca’s area most directly results in:

a)

Difficulty producing words

b)

Difficulty understanding words

c)

Loss of emotional control

d)

Visual impairment

14.

The left hemisphere of the brain is specialized for all these things EXCEPT:

a)

Verbal information

b)

Understand verbal information

c)

Interpreting emotional content

d)

Word formation

15.

Damage to Wernicke’s area most likely produces which consequence?

a)

Impaired speech articulation with good comprehension

b)

Loss of motor coordination

c)

Fluent but nonsensical speech with poor comprehension

d)

Inability to form new memories

16.

Which of the following is NOT a property of cones?

a)

A. Daytime vision

b)

B. color vision

c)

C. Adapt quickly to darkness

d)

D. Peripheral vision

17.

Prosopagnosia is:

a)

The inability to connect complex motor movements

b)

The inability to form new memories

c)

The inability to recognize faces

d)

The inability to speak

18.

What is psychophysics?

a)

The branch of psychology that studies the relationship between physical stimuli and the sensations and perceptions they produce

b)

The study of underlying conditions that relate to perception

c)

The branch of psychology that relates to human and robotic interaction

d)

The study of dynamics between axons and neurons in relation to cognition

19.

What is an absolute threshold in psychophysics?

a)

The highest intensity of a stimulus—such as light, sound, or taste—that an organism can perceive

b)

The last stimulus that an organism is capable of remembering

c)

The stimulus that is the most significant to an organism

d)

The weakest intensity of a stimulus—such as light, sound, taste, or touch—that an organism can perceive

20.

According to the Opponent Process Theory, which of the following statements is true?

a)

The retina contains three receptors sensitive to red, green, and blue light.

b)

Colors are perceived through the additive mixing of red, green, and blue wavelengths.

c)

Some color pairs (like red-green or yellow-blue) cannot be seen together because certain receptors are excited by one wavelength and inhibited by the other.

d)

Afterimages occur because of optical refraction in the lens.

21.

Which scenario best illustrates sensory adaptation?

a)

After a few minutes, you stop feeling your watch on your wrist.

b)

By mid-semester, you’ve “learned” to ignore your roommate’s loud chewing.

c)

You turn up the TV when traffic noise spikes unpredictably.

d)

Doubling a weight is needed before you notice it’s heavier.

22.

Which type of photoreceptor is primarily responsible for night and peripheral vision?

a)

Cones

b)

Fovea cells

c)

Rods

d)

Bipolar neurons

23.

What formula do you use to calculate absolute thresholds?

a)

Change Blindness

b)

Just noticeable difference

c)

Visual Angle

d)

Weber’s Law

24.

What is the correct path of light entering your eyeball?

a)

Enters through pupil, and is reflected by lens on to the retina

b)

Enters through lens, and is reflected by pupil on to the retina

c)

Enters through retina, and is reflected by pupil on to the lens

d)

Enters through pupil, and is reflected by retina on to the lens

25.

Which of the following lists the three basic properties of light as discussed in class?

a)

Reflection, refraction, and focus

b)

Wavelength, amplitude, and purity

c)

Contrast, brightness, and saturation

d)

Ambience, optic array, and perception

26.

Which is NOT a characteristic of bottom-up processing?

a)

Putting together parts to form a whole

b)

The process is concerned with details

c)

Detecting features of a stimulus before recognizing it

d)

Using knowledge of a whole to interpret the parts

27.

Which statement correctly distinguishes binocular from monocular depth cues?

a)

Retinal disparity and convergence are monocular, motion parallax and linear perspective are binocular.

b)

Retinal disparity and convergence require both eyes, while motion parallax and pictorial cues work with one eye or even in still images.

c)

All four cues (retinal disparity, convergence, motion parallax, pictorial cues) are binocular only.

d)

None of these cues provide depth information beyond arm’s length

28.

When you use your prior knowledge to interpret an incomplete sentence (e.g., “Mry hd a ltt[ *mb”), you are engaging in:

a)

Bottom-up processing

b)

Top-down processing

c)

Selective attention

d)

Change blindness

29.

Which of the following is an example of a binocular cue for depth perception?

a)

Interposition

b)

Linear perspective

c)

Motion parallax

d)

Retinal disparity

30.

Which option isn’t one of Gestalt Principles?

a)

Figure and ground

b)

Light Exposure

c)

Closure

d)

Simplicity

31.

One of the Gestalt Principles is Proximity, which is:

a)

Gaps in a figure are filled in

b)

Things near one another belong together

c)

Follow in a direction that has been created

d)

Things that look alike get grouped together

32.

The Ebbinghaus illusion demonstrates how our perception of an object's size can be influenced by?

a)

The size of objects surrounding the target object

b)

The distance between the object and the observer

c)

The brightness of the surrounding background

d)

The color contrast between the object and its surroundings

33.

What is not one of the three properties of sound?

a)

Timbre

b)

Wavelength

c)

Intensity

d)

Amplitude

34.

What are two examples of perception being subjective?

a)

Inattentional blindness and change blindness

b)

Linear perspective and interposition

c)

Amplitude and wavelength

d)

Hammer and stirrup

35.

In the auditory system, what is the correct sequence for how sound is converted into neural signals?

a)

Hair cells → eardrum → auditory nerve → cochlea

b)

Eardrum vibrates → bones amplify sound → hair cells in cochlea → auditory nerve

c)

Cochlea vibrates → eardrum amplifies → hair cells → temporal lobe

d)

Stirrup → eardrum → hammer → auditory nerve

36.

What brain area regulates circadian rhythms?

a)

Corpus Callosum

b)

parietal lobe

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Cerebellum

37.

How does psychology define consciousness?

a)

A) Personal awareness of internal and external stimuli

b)

B) Understanding your thoughts

c)

C) Knowing that you are human

d)

D) Being asleep

38.

Which of the following best describes the function of melatonin in regulating sleep?

a)

It increases alertness and body temperature in response to daylight.

b)

It is secreted by the hypothalamus and reduces REM sleep.

c)

It is released by the pineal gland in response to darkness and promotes drowsiness.

d)

It blocks the effects of circadian rhythms on hormone secretion.

39.

Which of the following sleep stages is characterized by high-frequency brain activity, irregular breathing, and muscle paralysis?

a)

Stage 1.

b)

Stage 2.

c)

Slow-wave sleep (Stages 3 & 4).

d)

REM sleep.

40.

Which feature best characterizes Stage 2 sleep?

a)

Dominant delta waves and deepest sleep

b)

High-frequency activity with muscle atonia and irregular breathing

c)

Theta waves with brief sleep spindles and K-complexes

d)

Beta waves similar to alert wakefulness

41.

Which cognitive and motor ability is not impaired by sleep deprivation according to Van Dongen, Maislin, & Mullington (2003)?

a)

A. Perception

b)

B. Reaction time

c)

C. Short term memory

d)

D. Coordination

42.

Which of the following best explains why circadian rhythms can still function without external cues like sunlight or clocks?

a)

They depend entirely on melatonin levels

b)

They are regulated by internal “biological clocks”

c)

They only reset when exposed to light

d)

They are alerted to noise

43.

Which of the following statements about sleep apnea is TRUE?

a)

Sleep apnea is characterized by repeated pauses in heart rate during sleep

b)

Sleep apnea is characterized by repeated pauses in breathing during sleep

c)

Sleep apnea occurs when the brain produces excessive melatonin, causing prolonged periods of unconsciousness.

d)

Sleep apnea is characterized by more vivid dreams during sleep

44.

Which is true about how sedative/depressant drugs work?

a)

Mimics GABA to inhibit activity in brainstem

b)

Mimics serotonin in sensory areas of brain

c)

Can mimic or prevent re-uptake of dopamine in “reward center”

d)

Mimics natural cannabinoid to turn off dopamine inhibition in central brain areas

45.

Select the most correct response: Night terrors...

a)

Are more intense than nightmares

b)

Are the same as nightmares

c)

Are depression-arousing dreams

d)

Are the cause of narcolepsy

46.

Which of the following is the most common sleep disorder?

a)

Narcolepsy

b)

Sleep Apnea

c)

Sleep Paralysis

d)

Insomnia

47.

According to Freud’s Psychoanalytic Theory, dreams primarily serve which function?

a)

To rehearse daily experiences and strengthen memory networks.

b)

To process random neural activity generated by the brainstem.

c)

To fulfill unconscious wishes and desires.

d)

To help individuals solve real-life problems in a safe environment.

48.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of serotonin and dopamine in psychoactive drug effects?

a)

Most drugs act by blocking acetylcholine receptors in the hippocampus.

b)

Psychoactive drugs often act as agonists or antagonists for dopamine and serotonin.

c)

Only hallucinogens affect dopamine, while stimulants affect serotonin.

d)

Sedatives increase serotonin levels in the brain’s reward center.

49.

When are dreams most likely to be remembered?

a)

After avoiding REM sleep altogether

b)

When a person wakes up during a dream and tries to recall it right away

c)

After waiting until the afternoon to think about the dream

d)

When sleep occurs only in non-REM stages

50.

According to the activation-synthesis model, what causes dreams to occur?

a)

The fulfillment of unconscious wishes

b)

The brain’s attempt to make sense of random neural activity

c)

The consolidation of emotional experiences

d)

Rehearsal of daily memories during sleep

51.

Which drug type increases dopamine activity in the brain’s reward center by preventing its reuptake?

a)

Hallucinogens

b)

Opiates

c)

Stimulants

d)

Sedatives

52.

Which of the following is NOT true about dreams

a)

Dream content is often linked to daily life

b)

People remember almost all of their dreams

c)

Dreams are most memorable when a person wakes up while dreaming

d)

Conscious control over dreams is possible

53.

What is a lucid dream?

a)

A dream a person cannot remember after waking

b)

A dream that only occurs during non-REM sleep

c)

A dream in which the person is aware they are dreaming and may control it

d)

A dream that always reflects hidden unconscious content

54.

The idea that Memory is better when the retrieval conditions match the encoding conditions is called:

a)

Repeated practice

b)

Pattern recognition

c)

The iconic memory effect

d)

The encoding specificity principle

55.

What key idea about memory is illustrated by the following example: trying to identify the correct “Apple” or “Starbucks” logo out of a line up?

a)

Memory has an unlimited capacity for visual details.

b)

Short-term memory can hold about seven items at once.

c)

Memory is reconstructive, so we often remember the general gist rather than precise details of familiar items.

d)

Encoding is always more accurate for pictures than for words.

56.

According to the Pezdek et al. (2020) study on marijuana and memory, what was the main finding about people who were high on marijuana?

a)

They showed more false memories than both sober users and non-users.

b)

They showed fewer false memories than non-users.

c)

Their memory for events was unaffected compared to being sober.

d)

They only made more errors when recalling unimportant details, not in eyewitness-type decisions.

57.

Which sequence correctly represents the three stages of memory?

a)

Storage → Encoding → Retrieval

b)

Retrieval → Encoding → Storage

c)

Encoding → Storage → Retrieval

d)

Encoding → Retrieval → Storage

58.

What is the correct sequence by which information gets stored in memory?

a)

Sensory input -> Long term memory

b)

Sensory Memory -> Short Term Memory -> Sensory Input -> Long Term Memory

c)

Short Term Memory -> Long Term Memory -> Sensory Input -> Sensory Memory

d)

Sensory Input -> Sensory Memory -> Short Term Memory -> Long Term Memory

59.

What are the two major sub-categories of Long-Term Memory?

a)

Procedural and Emotional Conditioning

b)

Explicit and Implicit Memory

c)

Episodic and Semantic

d)

Procedural and Priming

60.

What is approximate short-term memory capacity for units of information?

a)

3

b)

7

c)

5

d)

unlimited

61.

What is dementia?

a)

A progressive neurological condition that is a single disease

b)

A progressive neurological condition that impairs cognitive function and increases in severity over time

c)

A progressive neurological condition that doesn't necessarily interfere with daily life

d)

A progressive neurological condition characterized by an increase in cognitive abilities

62.

Which of the following best describes the function of encoding in memory?

a)

Understanding the meaning of information

b)

Getting information into memory

c)

Retrieving stored information

d)

Filtering out irrelevant information

63.

According to George Sperling’s research on sensory memory, visual sensory memory (iconic memory) has:

a)

A. A small capacity and long durability

b)

B. A small capacity and brief durability

c)

C. A large capacity and brief durability

d)

D. No capacity and long durability

64.

Which of the following is NOT true of the forgetting curve?

a)

We are able to remember most of what we encode, regardless of the retrieval timing or the amount of practice/rehearsal.

b)

Forgetting is not linear, but curvilinear

c)

Most information is forgotten soon after learning

d)

Subsequent rate of forgetting is non-uniform

65.

According to Roediger and Karpicke (2006), what did their research reveal about the effectiveness of retrieval practice compared to re-reading?

a)

Re-reading produced better long-term retention than retrieval practice.

b)

Retrieval practice produced better long-term retention than re-reading.

c)

Both methods were equally effective.

d)

Retrieval only worked for short-term recall.

66.

Which of the following best illustrates retroactive interference?

a)

You keep remembering your old phone number instead of your new one.

b)

You call your new partner by your ex’s name.

c)

You can’t remember Spanish vocabulary after learning German.

d)

You forget where you parked today because you're thinking about yesterday's spot.

67.

Which of the following procedures is most likely to improve the accuracy of eyewitness identifications from a lineup?

a)

Telling the witness, “The suspect is definitely in this lineup.”

b)

Telling the witness, “You have to pick someone.”

c)

Warning the witness that the suspect may not be present in the lineup.

d)

Asking the witness, “Which one is he?” while pointing toward the lineup.

68.

Which statement best describes flashbulb memories?

a)

They are perfectly accurate and never change over time.

b)

They only form for positive, happy events.

c)

They are forgotten at about the same rate as regular memories, but people tend to feel more confident in them.

d)

They can only form if a person learns about an event from the news, not from direct experience.

69.

A person who cannot form new conscious memories after a head injury most likely has:

a)

Retrograde amnesia

b)

Dissociative amnesia

c)

Anterograde amnesia

d)

Infantile amnesia

70.

What type of forgetting is characterized as the weakening of memories due to the passage of time?

a)

Decay

b)

Retroactive interference

c)

Proactive interference

d)

Intentional forgetting

71.

Not being able to remember your new professor's name because you keep thinking of your professor from last year is an example of what?

a)

Retroactive interference

b)

Proactive interference

c)

Both proactive and retroactive interference

d)

Neither proactive or retroactive interference

72.

What is the main benefit of retrieval practice in learning?

a)

It allows students to memorize information more quickly

b)

It strengthens memory and helps identify knowledge gaps

c)

It increases motivation through positive reinforcement

d)

It minimizes the effects of interference

73.

Why is H.M.’s case foundational to psychology/neuroscience?

a)

He developed profound anterograde amnesia for explicit/declarative memories, showing the hippocampus is critical for memory consolidation.

b)

He lost all childhood memories but could form new ones normally.

c)

He showed language is localized to the occipital lobe.

d)

He proved psychosurgery cures epilepsy without side effects.

74.

Reinforcement is a concept of which of the following schools?

a)

Behaviorist

b)

Psychoanalytics

c)

Gestalt Psychology

d)

Cognitive Psychology

75.

Trephining, one of the earliest known forms of psychosurgery, was believed to serve which purpose according to early explanations?

a)

To increase intelligence by removing “extra” brain tissue

b)

To release spirits thought to cause disorders such as epilepsy or headaches

c)

To treat infections caused by head wounds

d)

To strengthen the frontal lobes for better reasoning

76.

What do correlational studies look at?

a)

Finding definite cause-and-effect relationships

b)

The relationship between two variables

c)

Observing independent variable effects on dependent variables

d)

Unique experiences of a single subject

77.

Experimental studies do not:

a)

Directly manipulate the independent variable

b)

Observe its effects on the dependent variable

c)

Tell you directly what causes something

d)

Manipulate the dependent variable

e)

All of the above

78.

A case study ...

a)

Gives detailed descriptive data on a particular subject

b)

Summarizes a larger study

c)

Identifies correlation and causation within a study

d)

Provides the most logical conclusion that can be drawn from a study

79.

What was the primary ethical problem with the Willowbrook State School hepatitis studies (1950s–1970s)?

a)

Failure to randomize participants properly

b)

Coercive and misleading consent for a vulnerable population

c)

Not publishing the results in a peer-reviewed journal

d)

Paying participants excessive compensation

80.

All research involving human subjects should adhere to the following guidelines EXCEPT:

a)

Avoid unnecessary suffering

b)

Avoid deception

c)

Involve voluntary consent

d)

Be conducted by qualified experimenters

81.

Which of the following best describes the role of the Institutional Review Board (IRB) in psychological research?

a)

To ensure that researchers' hypotheses are correct.

b)

To determine publication bias in research studies.

c)

To maximize potential benefits and minimize risks to participants.

d)

To perform statistical analyses on collected data.

82.

The process of determining an answer to a research question through probability is:

a)

hypothesis

b)

Statistical analysis

c)

measurement

d)

Data collection

83.

Which of the following best describes the role of glial cells in the nervous system?

a)

They transmit electrical impulses between neurons.

b)

They insulate, support, and remove waste around neurons.

c)

They generate action potentials.

d)

They store neurotransmitters in the synapse.

84.

Which of the following is true about the somatic and automatic nervous system?

a)

The somatic nervous system controls automatic functions, while the autonomic system controls voluntary movement.

b)

The somatic nervous system connects to muscles and sensory receptors, while the autonomic system connects to the heart, blood vessels, smooth muscles, and glands.

c)

The somatic nervous system communicates only with the spinal cord, while the autonomic system communicates only with the brain.

d)

The somatic nervous system operates only during waking hours, while the autonomic system operates only during sleep.

85.

Which part of the brain is NOT in the hindbrain?

a)

Medulla

b)

Pons

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Hypothalamus

86.

Damage to Broca’s area most directly results in:

a)

Difficulty producing words

b)

Difficulty understanding words

c)

Loss of emotional control

d)

Visual impairment

87.

The left hemisphere of the brain is specialized for all these things EXCEPT:

a)

Verbal information

b)

Understand verbal information

c)

Interpreting emotional content

d)

Word formation

88.

Damage to Wernicke’s area most likely produces which consequence?

a)

Impaired speech articulation with good comprehension

b)

Loss of motor coordination

c)

Fluent but nonsensical speech with poor comprehension

d)

Inability to form new memories

89.

Which of the following is NOT a property of cones?

a)

Daytime vision

b)

color vision

c)

Adapt quickly to darkness

d)

Peripheral vision

90.

Prosopagnosia is:

a)

The inability to connect complex motor movements

b)

The inability to form new memories

c)

The inability to recognize faces

d)

The inability to speak

91.

What is psychophysics?

a)

The branch of psychology that studies the relationship between physical stimuli and the sensations and perceptions they produce

b)

The study of underlying conditions that relate to perception

c)

The branch of psychology that relates to human and robotic interaction

d)

The study of dynamics between axons and neurons in relation to cognition

92.

What is an absolute threshold in psychophysics?

a)

The highest intensity of a stimulus—such as light, sound, or taste—that an organism can perceive

b)

The last stimulus that an organism is capable of remembering

c)

The stimulus that is the most significant to an organism

d)

The weakest intensity of a stimulus—such as light, sound, taste, or touch—that an organism can perceive

93.

According to the Opponent Process Theory, which of the following statements is true?

a)

The retina contains three receptors sensitive to red, green, and blue light.

b)

Colors are perceived through the additive mixing of red, green, and blue wavelengths.

c)

Some color pairs (like red-green or yellow-blue) cannot be seen together because certain receptors are excited by one wavelength and inhibited by the other.

d)

Afterimages occur because of optical refraction in the lens.

94.

Which scenario best illustrates sensory adaptation?

a)

After a few minutes, you stop feeling your watch on your wrist.

b)

By mid-semester, you’ve “learned” to ignore your roommate’s loud chewing.

c)

You turn up the TV when traffic noise spikes unpredictably.

d)

Doubling a weight is needed before you notice it’s heavier.

95.

Which type of photoreceptor is primarily responsible for night and peripheral vision?

a)

Cones

b)

Fovea cells

c)

Rods

d)

Bipolar neurons

96.

What formula do you use to calculate absolute thresholds?

a)

Change Blindness

b)

Just noticeable difference

c)

Visual Angle

d)

Weber’s Law

97.

What is the correct path of light entering your eyeball?

a)

Enters through pupil, and is reflected by lens on to the retina

b)

Enters through lens, and is reflected by pupil on to the retina

c)

Enters through retina, and is reflected by pupil on to the lens

d)

Enters through pupil, and is reflected by retina on to the lens

98.

Which of the following lists the three basic properties of light as discussed in class?

a)

Reflection, refraction, and focus

b)

Wavelength, amplitude, and purity

c)

Contrast, brightness, and saturation

d)

Ambience, optic array, and perception

99.

Which is NOT a characteristic of bottom-up processing?

a)

Putting together parts to form a whole

b)

The process is concerned with details

c)

Detecting features of a stimulus before recognizing it

d)

Using knowledge of a whole to interpret the parts

100.

Which statement correctly distinguishes binocular from monocular depth cues?

a)

Retinal disparity and convergence are monocular, motion parallax and linear perspective are binocular.

b)

Retinal disparity and convergence require both eyes, while motion parallax and pictorial cues work with one eye or even in still images.

c)

All four cues (retinal disparity, convergence, motion parallax, pictorial cues) are binocular only.

d)

None of these cues provide depth information beyond arm’s length