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Ch. 15 review

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term refers to the hypothesis that each gene encodes a single polypeptide?

a)

One gene / one polypeptide hypothesis

b)

Central Dogma

c)

Transcription

d)

Translation

2.

What is the process called where DNA is converted into RNA?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Mutation

3.

Which molecule acts as the template for protein synthesis during translation?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

DNA

4.

What is the role of Beadle and Tatum’s experiments with Neurospora crassa?

a)

To show that genes specify enzymes

b)

To prove DNA replication

c)

To discover the structure of RNA

d)

To identify codons

5.

Which term describes a mutation that shifts the reading frame of the genetic message?

a)

Point mutation

b)

Frameshift mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Intron

6.

According to the central dogma of molecular biology, what is the usual flow of genetic information?

a)

Protein → RNA → DNA

b)

DNA → RNA → Protein

c)

RNA → DNA → Protein

d)

DNA → Protein → RNA

7.

Which process involves changing nucleotide sequences into amino acid sequences?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Mutation

8.

What is the significance of Garrod’s conclusion regarding inherited disorders?

a)

They can involve specific enzymes

b)

They are always caused by environmental factors

c)

They are unrelated to genes

d)

They only affect physical traits

9.

How did Beadle and Tatum link gene mutations to specific enzymes?

a)

By supplementing with pathway intermediates

b)

By sequencing DNA

c)

By observing cell division

d)

By measuring protein synthesis rates

10.

What modification to the central dogma was made after the discovery of reverse transcriptase?

a)

DNA can be made from RNA

b)

Proteins can be made from DNA directly

c)

RNA cannot be transcribed from DNA

d)

Translation does not occur

11.

Which enzyme is responsible for producing a copy of RNA from DNA during transcription?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

DNA ligase

c)

Helicase

d)

Topoisomerase

12.

During transcription, which strand of DNA is complementary to the RNA produced?

a)

Template strand

b)

Coding strand

c)

Sense strand

d)

Antisense strand

13.

What is the main function of mRNA in gene expression?

a)

Carries the code from DNA out of the nucleus to the ribosome

b)

Synthesizes amino acids

c)

Acts as a component of ribosomes

d)

Pairs with mRNA and carries amino acids

14.

Which type of RNA has an anticodon to pair with mRNA and carries amino acids used to build proteins?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

15.

What is the role of siRNA in gene expression?

a)

Regulatory function

b)

Carries the code from DNA

c)

Component of ribosomes

d)

Directs translation to RoughER

16.

How many possible codon sequences are there with four base pairs?

a)

64

b)

16

c)

32

d)

128

17.

What do the three stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) indicate in genetic coding?

a)

Termination of translation

b)

Start of transcription

c)

Initiation of replication

d)

Splicing of mRNA

18.

Why do frameshift mutations alter the reading frame?

a)

Because they involve the deletion or addition of a base

b)

Because they change the base pairing rules

c)

Because they only affect the template strand

d)

Because they occur during translation

19.

Explain how Crick and Brenner demonstrated the lack of spaces in genetic coding.

a)

They induced mutations that deleted single, double, and triple nucleotides from DNA and observed the protein products.

b)

They compared DNA sequences with and without spaces.

c)

They used RNA polymerase to transcribe DNA with spaces.

d)

They measured the length of mRNA transcripts.

20.

Why is the genetic code described as degenerate but specific?

a)

Because multiple codons can code for the same amino acid, but each codon specifies only one amino acid.

b)

Because codons can code for multiple amino acids.

c)

Because the code changes with mutations.

d)

Because the code is not universal.

21.

Which codon indicates the beginning of translation in protein synthesis?

a)

UAA

b)

AUG

c)

UGA

d)

GCU

22.

How many of the 64 codons specify amino acids?

a)

20

b)

61

c)

64

d)

3

23.

What is the wobble effect in the genetic code?

a)

The effect of codon redundancy at the first position

b)

The effect of degenerate base at the third nucleotide position

c)

The effect of stop codons on translation

d)

The effect of AUG codon on translation initiation

24.

Why is the universality of the genetic code considered strong evidence for a common ancestor?

a)

Because all organisms have identical genes

b)

Because all organisms use the same codons for amino acids

c)

Because the genetic code is nearly universal among organisms

d)

Because all organisms have the same number of chromosomes

25.

Which RNA polymerase feature is unique to prokaryotes?

a)

Multiple types of RNA polymerase

b)

A single RNA polymerase with multiple subunits

c)

RNA polymerase with proofreading ability

d)

RNA polymerase that synthesizes DNA

26.

Where are prokaryotic promoter recognition sites typically located?

a)

+10 and +35 downstream from the start site

b)

-10 and -35 upstream from the start site

c)

-20 and -50 upstream from the start site

d)

+20 and +50 downstream from the start site

27.

What is the role of the transcription unit in prokaryotic transcription?

a)

It binds ribosomes to mRNA

b)

It is the DNA from the promoter to the terminator sequence

c)

It synthesizes proteins

d)

It degrades mRNA

28.

During elongation in prokaryotic transcription, which nucleotide does the 5’ end often begin with?

a)

GTP

b)

CTP

c)

ATP

d)

TTP

29.

What is the most common mechanism for termination in prokaryotic transcription?

a)

Formation of a hairpin structure

b)

Cleavage by ribonuclease

c)

Addition of poly-A tail

d)

Binding of release factor

30.

How is prokaryotic transcription coupled to translation?

a)

Transcription and translation occur in separate compartments

b)

Multiple ribosomes begin translation as soon as mRNA is available

c)

Transcription occurs only after translation is complete

d)

Only one ribosome can translate mRNA at a time

31.

Why are operons significant in prokaryotic gene expression?

a)

They allow multiple genes to be translated as one mRNA

b)

They prevent transcription of unnecessary genes

c)

They increase the accuracy of translation

d)

They separate transcription and translation

32.

Explain why genes can be transferred from one organism to another, according to the universality of the genetic code.

a)

Because all organisms have the same DNA sequence

b)

Because the genetic code is nearly universal, allowing gene expression across species

c)

Because only prokaryotes share genetic material

d)

Because all organisms have identical ribosomes

33.

Compare the coupling of transcription and translation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

a)

Both are coupled in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

b)

Only eukaryotes couple transcription and translation

c)

Prokaryotes couple transcription and translation, while eukaryotes do not

d)

Neither prokaryotes nor eukaryotes couple transcription and translation

34.

Describe the process of initiation at promoters in prokaryotic transcription.

a)

RNA polymerase binds to the terminator sequence

b)

RNA polymerase binds to a recognition site upstream of the start site, indicating attachment and direction of transcription

c)

Ribosomes bind to the mRNA before transcription begins

d)

DNA polymerase binds to the promoter region

35.

Which RNA polymerase in eukaryotes is responsible for transcribing mRNA and snRNA?

a)

RNA polymerase I

b)

RNA polymerase II

c)

RNA polymerase III

d)

RNA polymerase IV

36.

What is the function of the 5’ Methyl G cap added to eukaryotic mRNA transcripts?

a)

Initiates transcription

b)

Protects the end from degradation and allows binding to the ribosome

c)

Splices introns from mRNA

d)

Terminates transcription

37.

Which sequence in eukaryotic promoters is comparable to the -10 sequence in prokaryotes?

a)

Poly A tail

b)

TATA sequence

c)

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

d)

Pribnow box

38.

What is the role of polyadenylation in eukaryotic transcription?

a)

Initiates transcription

b)

Adds a 3’ poly A tail to mRNA, protecting it from degradation and regulating transcript products

c)

Splices exons together

d)

Binds transcription factors to the promoter

39.

Which process allows a single primary transcript to be spliced into different mRNAs using different sets of exons?

a)

Polyadenylation

b)

Alternative splicing

c)

Translation

d)

Replication

40.

What is the function of the spliceosome in eukaryotic cells?

a)

Adds a 5’ cap to mRNA

b)

Recognizes intron-exon junctions and removes introns from mRNA

c)

Initiates transcription

d)

Terminates translation

41.

Approximately what percentage of the human genome is made up of exons?

a)

24%

b)

50%

c)

1-1.5%

d)

80%

42.

How many genes does the human genome have, and how many proteins can it produce?

a)

20,000 genes, can produce more than 80,000 proteins

b)

80,000 genes, can produce 20,000 proteins

c)

24,000 genes, can produce 24,000 proteins

d)

1,000 genes, can produce 10,000 proteins

43.

Why can the human genome produce more proteins than the number of genes it contains?

a)

Because of alternative splicing

b)

Because of DNA replication

c)

Because of translation errors

d)

Because of RNA polymerase I activity

44.

Which of the following best describes the transcriptome?

a)

All the proteins produced from the genome

b)

All the RNAs produced from the genome

c)

All the DNA sequences in the genome

d)

All the exons in the genome

45.

Which molecule is responsible for attaching amino acids to tRNA with the correct anticodon?

a)

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

b)

Ribosome

c)

mRNA polymerase

d)

DNA ligase

46.

What is the shape of tRNA?

a)

Double helix

b)

Cloverleaf

c)

Linear

d)

Circular

47.

Which part of tRNA base-pairs with mRNA codons?

a)

Acceptor end

b)

Anticodon loop

c)

D loop

d)

Variable arm

48.

What happens to tRNA once it has bound an amino acid?

a)

It is degraded

b)

It is “charged”

c)

It is exported from the nucleus

d)

It binds to DNA

49.

Which ribosomal site accepts new charged tRNAs with anticodons complementary to mRNA?

a)

P site

b)

E site

c)

A site

d)

S site

50.

What is the function of the P site in the ribosome?

a)

Releases empty tRNA

b)

Binds new charged tRNA

c)

Catalyzes peptide bond formation

d)

Decodes mRNA

51.

Which ribosomal subunit is responsible for binding mRNA and decoding it?

a)

Large subunit

b)

Small subunit

c)

Both subunits

d)

tRNA

52.

During prokaryotic initiation, which amino acid is first attached to the initiator tRNA?

a)

Methionine

b)

N-formylmethionine

c)

Glycine

d)

Alanine

53.

In eukaryotic initiation, what does the small ribosomal subunit bind to?

a)

3’ end of mRNA

b)

5’ cap of mRNA

c)

tRNA anticodon

d)

DNA promoter

54.

Why does the ribosome use the first AUG in an mRNA?

a)

To signal the end of translation

b)

To encode the amino acid glycine

c)

To signal the start of translation

d)

To attach the ribosome to DNA

55.

Which ribosomal site is where empty tRNA is released from the ribosome?

a)

A site

b)

P site

c)

E site

d)

S site

56.

What is the main enzymatic function of the large ribosomal subunit?

a)

Decoding mRNA

b)

Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids

c)

Binding tRNA

d)

Synthesizing DNA

57.

Explain the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic initiation in translation.

a)

Prokaryotes use more initiation factors than eukaryotes

b)

Eukaryotes use N-formylmethionine as the first amino acid

c)

Prokaryotes bind the small subunit to a conserved mRNA sequence, while eukaryotes bind to the 5’ cap of mRNA

d)

Both use the same process

58.

What is the role of accessory factors in translation initiation?

a)

They degrade mRNA

b)

They help the ribosome recognize the start codon and assemble properly

c)

They synthesize amino acids

d)

They transport tRNA out of the nucleus

59.

Which enzyme attaches an amino acid to the acceptor end of tRNA?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

c)

RNA helicase

d)

Peptidyl transferase

60.

Which site does the next tRNA with an anticodon that pairs to the codon enter during elongation in translation?

a)

A site

b)

P site

c)

E site

d)

G site

61.

What is the function of release factors during termination of translation?

a)

They bind the stop codon and release the polypeptide.

b)

They add amino acids to the growing chain.

c)

They pair with tRNA anticodons.

d)

They initiate transcription.

62.

In eukaryotes, translation can occur in which cellular locations?

a)

Cytoplasm or roughER

b)

Nucleus or mitochondria

c)

Golgi apparatus or lysosome

d)

Plasma membrane or peroxisome

63.

What is the role of the signal recognition particle (SRP) in protein targeting?

a)

It binds the new polypeptide and receptor on the roughER, directing translation into roughER.

b)

It synthesizes amino acids.

c)

It degrades mRNA.

d)

It transports ribosomes to the nucleus.

64.

Which process describes the conversion from genotype to phenotype?

a)

Gene expression

b)

Mutation

c)

Replication

d)

Translocation

65.

What is a point mutation?

a)

A change that alters a single base in DNA

b)

A deletion of an entire gene

c)

A duplication of a chromosome

d)

A fusion of two genes

66.

Which type of mutation changes a codon to a stop codon?

a)

Nonsense mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

67.

What is an indel?

a)

A small insertion or deletion in DNA

b)

A large chromosomal rearrangement

c)

A point mutation

d)

A change in gene expression

68.

How do frameshift mutations affect the reading frame?

a)

They shift the reading frame and randomize the downstream sequence.

b)

They only change one amino acid.

c)

They duplicate the entire gene.

d)

They have no effect on the protein.

69.

What is copy number variation (CNV)?

a)

A type of structural variation involving changes in the number of copies of a gene

b)

A single base substitution

c)

A silent mutation

d)

A frameshift mutation

70.

Which type of DNA mutation results in a portion of DNA being lost?

a)

Deletion

b)

Duplication

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

71.

What is the effect of duplication in DNA mutations?

a)

A portion of DNA is copied

b)

A portion of DNA is lost

c)

A portion of DNA is excised and inverted

d)

A portion of DNA is moved to another chromosome

72.

Balanced rearrangements in DNA do not change which of the following?

a)

Copy number

b)

DNA sequence

c)

Mutation rate

d)

Evolutionary starting point

73.

Which DNA mutation involves a portion of DNA being excised, inverted, and inserted?

a)

Inversion

b)

Deletion

c)

Duplication

d)

Translocation

74.

Translocation in DNA mutations refers to which process?

a)

Portion moved from one chromosomal location to another

b)

Portion of DNA is lost

c)

Portion of DNA is copied

d)

Portion of DNA is excised and inverted

75.

Why are mutations considered important in the context of evolution?

a)

They are the starting point of evolution

b)

They prevent genetic variation

c)

They always cause disease

d)

They stop natural selection

76.

Which statement is true regarding human mutation rates?

a)

They have been directly measured

b)

They cannot be measured

c)

They are always constant

d)

They are only estimated

77.

Explain how balanced rearrangements differ from unbalanced rearrangements in terms of their effect on DNA copy number.

a)

Balanced rearrangements do not change copy number, while unbalanced rearrangements do.

b)

Both types increase copy number.

c)

Both types decrease copy number.

d)

Balanced rearrangements always delete DNA.

78.

A scientist observes a mutation where a segment of DNA is moved from one chromosome to another. Which type of mutation is this, and what could be a possible consequence for the organism?

a)

Translocation; it may disrupt gene function or regulation

b)

Duplication; it always increases gene expression

c)

Inversion; it never affects phenotype

d)

Deletion; it always causes lethality