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MSSC CPT Safety Practice Test v1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a segment of manufacturing?

a)

Food and beverage

b)

Industrial

c)

Process

d)

All of the above

2.

__________ is the process of converting raw materials into finished goods.

a)

Numerical control

b)

Transportation

c)

Manufacturing

d)

Consumption

3.

A system that combines advanced technologies to make customized products for less money and high quality is called __________ manufacturing.

a)

New

b)

Advanced

c)

Traditional

d)

Modern

4.

A consensus is a decision-making process whereby the team members all accept the same decision __________.

4 lines
5.

When do people accept a decision?

a)

When no other choices can be found

b)

Because it is the choice of their team leader

c)

Even though it may not be their first choice

6.

People working together discussing issues and making decisions are key elements of a ___________.

a)

Successful work group

b)

SPC program

c)

JIT process

d)

Histogram

7.

The person who performs a step in a production process is the internal customer to the person who performs ___________.

a)

The next step in the process

b)

The previous step in the process

c)

The same operation in the process

d)

The final operation in the process

8.

The three Fs of product design are form, fit and ___________.

a)

Function

b)

Fabrication

c)

Foundation

d)

Feature

9.

The __________ of a high performance team has equal decision making authority with other team members.

a)

Supervisor

b)

Team leader

c)

Safety officer

d)

Human resources manager

10.

The QA department ensures that the products meet requirements as defined by whom?

a)

Sales and marketing

b)

Research and development

c)

Competitors

d)

The customers

11.

The major responsibility of the president or general manager is to __________.

a)

Hire all the necessary employees

b)

Set the vision and create a plan

c)

Inspect the process and the product

d)

Sell the product to new customers

12.

Industry 4.0 has led to the creation of what kind of facilities?

a)

Power plants

b)

Islands of automation

c)

Smart factories

13.

Nanotechnologies, artificial intelligence, and robots are examples of what kind of technology?

a)

Industry 4.0

b)

The third industrial revolution

c)

5G communication

d)

None of the above

14.

Which of the following items marked the advent of the third industrial revolution?

a)

Steam-powered machines

b)

Mass production

c)

Computers

d)

Networking

15.

Which of the following is an IIoT application?

a)

Controlling your house thermostat with your phone

b)

Using your phone to see what is in your refrigerator

c)

Viewing who is at your door from a remote location

d)

Monitoring in-plant processes

16.

What standard introduced in the early 1980s established a method to physically connect machines from different manufacturers enabling them to communicate to one another?

a)

Ethernet

b)

WWW

c)

Cloud technology

d)

OPC UA protocol

17.

What kind of technology mostly requires the use of a mobile phone?

a)

IIoT

b)

Network Switches

c)

Cloud technology

d)

5G communication

18.

Which component of IIoT allows networked devices to exchange information?

a)

Machine learning

b)

Machine-to-machine communication

c)

Data storage

d)

Big Data and analysis

19.

Which industry sector uses IIoT to remotely control energy-consuming devices?

(a)  

20.

Which IIoT application monitors equipment during normal operation to prevent failures to the equipment?

a)

Automation

b)

Predictive maintenance

c)

Remote process monitoring

d)

Quality

21.

Which manufacturing logistics application of IIoT includes the resources to move a product or service from the supplier to the customer?

a)

Supply chain management

b)

Warehousing

c)

Logistics

d)

Customer support

22.

Data results are required to be made available to employees who participate in ________.

a)

Team building exercises

b)

Environmental tests

c)

Holiday activities

d)

Fire drills

23.

Safety should be the number one priority at all times for __________.

a)

Machinists

b)

Safety officers

c)

Management

d)

All employees

24.

Which of the following are NOT financial impacts of on-the-job injuries for your employer?

a)

Increased insurance costs

b)

Lost wages

c)

Medical expenses

d)

Replacement costs for damaged property

25.

Practicing unsafe behavior does not impact anyone besides you. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The mission of OSHA, or the __________, is to ensure safe and healthful working conditions for working men and women.

a)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

b)

Occupational Services and Health Association

c)

Office of Safety and Health Affairs

d)

Organization for Safety and Health Advancement

27.

Which of the following is the correct name for OSHA?

a)

Office of Standards and Health Agency

b)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

c)

Occupational Security and Hearing Association

d)

Office of Statutes and Heritage Acquisitions

28.

EPA regulations are designed to protect you from which of the following hazards?

a)

Airborne and waterborne contaminants

b)

Slips, trips, and falls

c)

Fires

d)

Mechanical hazards

29.

How should inspection records be stored?

a)

According to state or local regulations only

b)

According to company regulations only

c)

According to federal regulations only

d)

According to federal, state, local, and company regulations

30.

Many products cannot be disposed of using a trash compactor before sending to a landfill. These include: fluorescent light bulbs, spray cans containing all or some of product, and ___________.

a)

Paper

b)

Liquid dyes

c)

Metal soft drink cans

31.

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) requires documentation of inspections for ________.

a)

ISO standards

b)

Emissions released in the air

c)

Storage methods

d)

Safety

32.

The regulation that requires manufacturers to document and report information on the types of chemicals they use, store, release into the environment, or dispose of is known as EPCRA. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

True

b)

False

33.

A group of employees and managers who work together to maintain a safe work environment is known as which of the following?

a)

An accident and injury investigation team

b)

A HAZMAT team

c)

A safety committee

d)

A fire brigade

34.

The __________ should collect and evaluate suggestions for changing or improving safety training material and content.

a)

Supervisor

b)

Plant manager

c)

Safety officer

d)

Environmental coordinator

35.

The __________ is responsible for promoting safety throughout the workplace, ensuring policies are followed, training is taking place, and policies are up-to-date.

a)

Department manager

b)

Safety officer

c)

Corporate attorney

d)

Shop steward

36.

A job safety analysis is the best method of __________.

a)

Reducing machine failures

b)

Integrating safety into the way a job is done

c)

Identifying under-performing employees

d)

Justifying buying new equipment

37.

How should a new employee's participation in a safety orientation be documented?

a)

Submission to OSHA

b)

According to company policy

c)

Submission to state regulators

38.

In manufacturing, changes to processes, equipment and people are the largest drivers of ___________.

a)

Workplace behavior policy

b)

Training

c)

Fire safety regulations

d)

Team-based work

39.

Standard operating procedures (SOPs) are detailed documents that ___________.

a)

Provide a map of the plant or workplace

b)

Explain each step in a work process

c)

Provide several options to get the job done

d)

Explain why safety is important

40.

When assessing hazards, which of the following safety aspects are considered by an employer setting Hazmat policies?

a)

The turnover rate of employees with hazardous jobs

b)

The amount of hazard pay that must be compensated

c)

The effectiveness of training workers

d)

The reactive maintenance costs of ignoring hazards

41.

When performing a hazard analysis, a list of hazards associated with a job is identified as well as the __________ to avoid them.

a)

Costs

b)

Probability

c)

Training

d)

Procedures

42.

Which of the following tests can be performed to determine if the company's safety measures need improvement?

a)

Foregoing maintenance to gauge production downtime

b)

Completing Production Material Usage reports in a timely manner

c)

Performing routine safety inspections

d)

Having a third party complete safety and production audits

43.

An injury is defined as physical harm to the body that happens as a result of exposure to some form of energy that exceeds the body's tolerance. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Until corrective action is taken, safety concerns should be __________.

a)

Tracked and reported

b)

Reported to senior management

c)

A reason to sign up for training

45.

The National Safety Council defines an accident as an occurrence in a sequence of events that produces ________.

a)

Unintended injury, ill health, or property damage

b)

A potentially unsafe environment

c)

Intentional injury or damage

d)

An unexpected result

46.

PPE can protect you from injuries caused by equipment or dangerous chemicals. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Which of the following PPE could prevent a puncture wound to your foot?

a)

Face mask

b)

Safety shoes

c)

Safety helmet

d)

Surgical gown

48.

Employers should provide training in the use of personal protective equipment ___________.

a)

To reduce the employee's risk of hazardous material exposure

b)

To qualify for OSHA grants

c)

To place liability on the employee in case of hazardous chemical spill

d)

Every 3 months

49.

The purpose of PPE is to protect you from injury by creating a barrier against workplace hazards. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The process of identifying potential hazards in the workplace is known as a ___________.

a)

PPE analysis

b)

Injury analysis

c)

Hazard assessment

d)

Workplace inspection

51.

Diluted __________ can be used to neutralize most blood pathogens.

a)

Ammonia

b)

Vinegar

c)

Saltwater

d)

Baking Soda

52.

Which of the following is used as a disinfectant?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Iodine

c)

Bleach

53.

Inhalation is the most common way for a(n) __________ to enter the body.

a)

Electrical current

b)

Information

c)

Chemical

d)

Water

54.

Which of the following is evaluated during a hazard assessment?

a)

Machine guards

b)

Cleanliness of the workspace

c)

Potential hazards

d)

Closeness to the nearest emergency exit

55.

A hard hat classified as __________ provides electrical protection up to 2200 volts.

a)

Class G

b)

Class E

c)

Class A

d)

Specialist Class 1

56.

Which classification of hardhat is designed for use in areas of low clearance and provides minimal impact resistance or protection from electrical hazards?

a)

Type I Class C

b)

Type II Class E

c)

Type I Class G

d)

Type II Class G

57.

Which of the following is NOT a class of industrial protective helmets?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Bump Caps

58.

Eye and face protection must protect you from the specific hazards that you may encounter in your workplace.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Safety glasses with side shields should be worn with __________ for additional eye protection.

a)

Sunglasses

b)

Shaded lens

c)

Ear plugs

d)

A welding helmet

60.

What type of injury is caused by looking directly at a welding arc?

a)

Arc flash

b)

Snowblindness

c)

Red eye

d)

Photoretinal burn

61.

Which of the following PPE are you required to wear when working around flying debris like sparks or wood chips?

a)

Goggles, gloves, and apron

b)

Goggles and face shield

c)

Goggles and arm sleeves

d)

Goggles, arm sleeves, and respirator

62.

OSHA provides regulations to limit the __________.

a)

Exposure to noise

b)

Number of hours an employee can work

c)

Speed of machinery in the plant

d)

Waste products that can go in a sewer

63.

Which type of ear protection is molded to fit your unique ear?

a)

Earmuff

b)

Silicone earplug

c)

Pre-formed earplug

d)

Waxed cotton earplug

64.

Gloves and safety glasses are necessary when working with __________.

4 lines
65.

What laboratory is responsible for testing the quality and durability of industrial glove PPE?

a)

A. ASTM

b)

B. OSHA

c)

C. UL

d)

D. ANSI

66.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of wearing PPE designed for your hands?

a)

Improved grip

b)

Reduced chafing

c)

Protection against splinters

d)

Increased hand perspiration

67.

What protection does a metatarsal guard provide?

a)

Arm protection

b)

Shin protection

c)

Foot protection

d)

Face protection

68.

On a half-mask respirator, a worker should cover the cartridges with his/her hands when _________.

a)

Entering a confined area

b)

Checking the mask for leaks

c)

Moving from a hazardous area into an non-hazardous area

d)

At all times while wearing the mask

69.

Smoke inhalation can cause serious lung tissue damage. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

True

b)

False

70.

What type of respirator covers only the nose and mouth?

a)

Painting respirator

b)

Filter respirator

c)

Hairline respirator

d)

Half-mask respirator

71.

Working in an atmosphere with less than __________ can cause disorientation.

a)

74.9% nitrogen

b)

19.5% oxygen

c)

75.0% sea level pressure

72.

Which of the following PPE items use synthetic material?

a)

Firefighter's suit

b)

Chemical gloves

c)

Sanitation aprons

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

73.

Health hazards can cause acute (short-term) or __________ (long-term) health problems.

a)

Persistent

b)

Chronic

c)

Transitory

d)

Transient

74.

Which hazards are caused by materials that cause infections or slowly damage the body over time?

a)

Environmental

b)

Physical

c)

Health

d)

None of the above

75.

Which of the following best describes OSHA's Hazardous Communication Standard?

a)

Every hazardous material must be securely locked away.

b)

Employees dealing with hazardous materials must be OSHA certified.

c)

Team leaders must have safety procedures in place for HazCom accidents.

d)

Workers have a right to know the risks of hazardous materials they work with.

76.

__________ are chemicals that fuel the combustion of other materials.

a)

Flammables

b)

Accelerants

c)

Oxidizers

d)

Explosives

77.

Hazardous materials being shipped internationally are given what identification code for labelling?

a)

HM (Hazardous Materials)

b)

HT (Hazardous Transport)

c)

UN (United Nations)

d)

OT (Overseas Transport)

78.

The most common chemical identifiers are the chemical name, the UN ID, and the __________ number.

a)

GHS

b)

Classification

79.

OSHA requires that a copy of the __________ be readily available to all employees.

a)

Sexual harassment policy

b)

Hazard Communication Program and SDS sheets

c)

Minimum wage regulations

d)

Equipment maintenance schedule

80.

The PEL (Permissible Exposure Limit) for exposure to hazardous substances are set by __________.

a)

OSHA

b)

EPA

c)

NAFTA

d)

FDA

81.

The __________ provides information about proper handling, storage, PPE, and disposal of each chemical.

a)

A. OSHA

b)

B. Label

c)

C. HMIs

d)

D. SDS

82.

Which of the following refresher training courses is required annually?

a)

Emissions control

b)

OSHA

c)

8-hour HAZMAT

d)

JIT manufacturing

83.

Which of the following statements about Safety Data Sheets are true?

a)

An obsolete SDS should be kept for review.

b)

The MSDS is an acceptable substitute for the SDS.

c)

A single SDS can be used for every material type.

d)

All chemicals stored in inventory must have an SDS.

84.

The following color code is used for which system; blue = health, red = fire, orange/yellow = reactivity, and white = information.

a)

OSHA

b)

NPCA and NFPA

c)

EPA

d)

NAFF

85.

What would an HMIS label use to indicate chemicals that pose chronic health risks?

a)

The health rating

b)

W

86.

PPE symbols or Asterisk?

a)

PPE symbols

b)

Asterisk

87.

Safe handling procedures of chemicals are found in the __________.

a)

DOT

b)

GHS

c)

SDS

d)

HMZ

88.

The emergency response team should be notified immediately if you observe a(n) __________.

a)

Inefficient work process

b)

Machine guard that needs repair

c)

Employee showing up late

d)

Hazardous material spill

89.

What rule should be followed to safely store hazardous chemicals?

a)

Use original storage containers.

b)

Store material based on compatibility.

c)

Identify storage areas with signs.

d)

All of the above

90.

__________ is a system that rotates chemical stock to ensure they are used within their shelf life.

a)

FIFO (First In, First Out)

b)

LIFO (Last In, First Out)

c)

ABC Analysis

d)

JIT (Just In Time)

91.

The __________ provides guidelines for disposal of chemicals without dumping or discarding.

a)

DOJ

b)

EMT

c)

NRA

d)

EPA

92.

A red and white DOT placard indicates the material is a(n) __________.

a)

Oxidizer

b)

Flammable solid

c)

Corrosive

d)

Compressed gas

93.

A worker should not unload a truck if __________.

a)

It is facing down hill

b)

It has been sitting more than six hours

94.

Why might a person refuse to unload a truck?

a)

They do not know the driver

b)

They do not understand a placard on the truck

95.

The __________ is used to identify the items being loaded for shipment as well as the potential hazards associated with those items.

a)

Shipping manifest

b)

Shipping checklist

c)

Bill of materials

d)

Statement of disclosure

96.

When transporting hazardous materials, the shipper should reference the __________ for packaging, labeling, and paperwork requirements.

a)

Material's MSDS

b)

Hazardous Materials Table

c)

United Nations material code

d)

DOT shipping manifest

97.

Safety glasses should be worn when __________.

a)

Using a drill press

b)

Driving heavy machinery

c)

When working above someone

d)

When using a micrometer

98.

Why should one wear close fitting clothing when working around machines?

4 lines
99.

Why is it important to wear tight-fitting clothing when operating machinery?

a)

Prevent damage to the machine

b)

Prevent injury caused by clothing getting caught in machinery

c)

Present an attractive appearance for visitors

100.

A worker should immediately lockout a machine if he or she finds the __________.

a)

Guard has been bypassed

b)

Machine is about to fail but is still producing bad parts

c)

Machine is running inefficiently

d)

Nearby machine has failed