wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary antibody in an ELISA?

a)

The first antibody used to detect foreign particle

b)

Second cell produced by the macrophage

c)

The first antibody used to give color

d)

The second antibody used to detect foreign particle

e)

Particle produced by the antigen

2.

Corina got a negative result for the Covid-19 antigen rapid test but when she tried for the PCR test, unfortunately she got a positive result. What might happen in this situation?

a)

She is at early period of Covid-19 infection

b)

False positive PCR result

c)

The rapid test was invalid

d)

She is an immune-compromised patients

e)

None of the above

3.

The sandwich ELISA test requires ….

a)

Known antigen

b)

Virus

c)

Known antibody

d)

Complement

e)

Patient antibody

4.

Why is enzyme used in an immunoassay?

a)

To denature protein

b)

To detect antibody

c)

To detect antigen

d)

To degrade amino acid

e)

To produce color change

5.

What is the function of DNA polymerase?

a)

Gluing together Okazaki fragments

b)

Terminating synthesis process

c)

Unzipping the two strands of DNA

d)

Joining together nucleotides during replication

e)

Help primers to attach DNA template

6.

When an enzyme cuts open a DNA molecule, what type of bonds are being broken?

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Phosphodiester bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Covalent bonds

e)

Peptide bonds

7.

Which one from the molecules below is the ddNTP molecule? The figure shows four nucleotide structures labeled a–d with sugar ring substituents marked at the 2′ and 3′ positions: a displays 2′ OH and 3′ H; b displays 2′ H and 3′ H; c displays 2′ OH and 3′ OH; d displays 2′ H and 3′ OH.

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

All incorrect

8.

In order to determine AFP concentration in patient blood, we coat the ELISA plate with .....

a)

Plasma/serum

b)

AFP Antigen

c)

AFP Virus

d)

HCV Antigen

e)

Anti-AFP antibody

9.

These statements explain the Sanger Method, except:

a)

Involves making many copies of a target DNA region

b)

Needs dNTP to synthesize new DNA strand

c)

Using ingredients and process that are exactly similar to PCR

d)

Terminated 3' end products

e)

None of the above

10.

Beer’s law states that the intensity of light decreases with respect to ...

a)

Color

b)

Composition

c)

Concentration

d)

Volume

e)

Distance

11.

Which type of sugar is in DNA?

a)

Deoxyfructose

b)

Ribose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Maltose

e)

Deoxyribose

12.

Dr. Murphy would like to isolate antibiotic resistant gene of Streptococcus from six different DNA samples. How many PCR reactions should he prepare?

a)

7

b)

5

c)

8

d)

6

e)

2

13.

The enzyme that is used for measuring blood sugar level in a glucometer is .....

a)

Hexokinase – dehydrogenase

b)

Lipase – amylase

c)

Glucose oxidase – peroxidase

d)

Trypsin

e)

Glucose oxidase

14.

In the fasting state ………………………… and …………………… maintain glucose level in blood.

a)

Gluconeogenesis, Glycolic Acid

b)

Glycogenolysis, Glycolipid

c)

Glycoprotein, Gluconeogenesis

d)

Gluconeogenesis, Glycogenolysis

e)

Glycosylation, Glycogenolysis

15.

When in a blood test result, your hematocrit is more than 70%. This means that your condition is…

a)

Polycythemia

b)

Normal

c)

Death

d)

Blood loss

e)

Anemia

16.

Which statement is not correct about RDT?

a)

The COVID-19 tests’ result does not depend on the time from onset of illness

b)

RDT is qualitative solid phase immunoassay

c)

The RDT can continue to be positive for OgG even when the patient recovers

d)

The antigen(s) detected are expressed only when the virus is actively replicating, therefore, such tests are best used to identify acute or early infection

e)

Negative result in COVID-19 antibody rapid test doesn’t mean that no infection in the sample

17.

What does mean when HBV rapid test result shows only a single band?

a)

Positive result

b)

Negative result

c)

Invalid result

d)

Means nothing

e)

Depends position

18.

Which one of these following reagents is able to dissolve DNA?

a)

Nuclease free water

b)

Tris-Ethanol

c)

70% ethanol

d)

Phenol

e)

Isopropanol

19.

Write down the right sequence of nucleotides from the picture of sequencing process (with the right orientation).

a)

It cannot be read

b)

5’-TGACAAGCG-3’

c)

5’-TGCGAACAG-3’

d)

5’-GACAAGCGT-3’

e)

5’-GCGAACAGT-3’

20.

Type of sample for ELISA AFP:

a)

Serum

b)

Whole blood

c)

Buffy coat

d)

a and b

e)

a and c

21.

Function of hormones produced in beta cell pancreas is to ….

a)

Hide blood sugar

b)

Lower blood sugar

c)

Raise blood sugar

d)

Produce sugar

e)

Release blood sugar

22.

Right requirement in Sanger sequencing

a)

dsDNA, primer, polymerase, dNTP, ddNTP

b)

ssDNA, primer, polymerase, ddNTP

c)

dsDNA, primer, polymerase, ddNTP

d)

ssDNA, primer, polymerase, dNTP, ddNTP

e)

dsDNA, primer, dNTP, ddNTP

23.

Main component for blood clotting is

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Monocytes

e)

Thrombocytes

24.

There are samples of monosaccharide, except

a)

Xylose

b)

Dextrose

c)

Ribose

d)

Fructose

e)

Lactose

25.

Which cell has no nucleus when mature?

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Erythrocyte

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Platelets

26.

The following image represents the agarose gel electrophoresis result from a restriction digest experiment. Lane 1 is a DNA ladder and Lane 2 is the DNA sample cut by a single restriction enzyme. What is the maximum size of the uncut DNA fragment assuming complete digestion has occurred?

a)

0.25 kb

b)

5.0 kb

c)

2.5 kb

d)

0.75 kb

e)

10 kb

27.

Tools for DNA sequence analysis:

a)

NCBI, BLAST, protein blast

b)

EBI, BLAST, blastx

c)

EBI, BLAST, nucleotide blast

d)

NCBI, BLAST, tblastn

e)

NCBI, BLAST, nucleotide blast

28.

DNA is found in the ____ of Escherichia coli.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleoid

e)

White blood cell

29.

Amy is concerned about her friend’s condition. She is often thirsty and has increased appetite. A fasting blood test is performed using the o-toluidine method. The standard curve is y=200x+80y=200x+80 (y in mg/dL; x is absorbance), and the sample’s absorbance is 0.100. Based on the calculated fasting sugar level and the symptoms, what can you conclude about Amy’s friend’s condition?

a)

Normal

b)

Diabetic

c)

Pre-diabetic

d)

Hypoglycemia

30.

Component of buffy coat, except ….

a)

Erythrocyte

b)

Thrombocytes

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Basophil

31.

Why do scientists load DNA of known sizes into a the agarose gel?

a)

To Practice loading the DNA before you get to the important DNA

b)

It makes it easier to determine size of unknowns using comparison techniques

c)

As a balancer so it can running well

d)

To fill in all the slots on the gel so you can run it

e)

so you Know how long the gel needs to run

32.

Maltose is a disaccharide of ….

a)

Glucose and lactose

b)

Ribose and dextrose

c)

Glucose and glucose

d)

Fructose and glucose

e)

Lactose and lactose

33.

Possible interpretation negative HCV rapid test?

a)

Strip invalid

b)

Low titer of HCV Ag concentration

c)

The sample is from Immune-compromised patients

d)

False negative

e)

The patient has been infected but has Resolved infection

34.

After the heating step at 94C, why do we have to set the thermal cycler to reduce the temperature to 55C?

a)

To separate the DNA template strands

b)

To allow extension process

c)

To optimize DNA polymerase activity

d)

To allow the DNA template strands to bind to each other

e)

To allow primers to bind to the DNA template strands

35.

The wavelength that we used in o-toluidine reaction is …

a)

280 nm

b)

540 nm

c)

450 nm

d)

630 nm

e)

655 nm

36.

What is the effect of ethidium bromide?

a)

Fluorescent dye that binding with bases of nucleic acid

b)

Fluorescent dye that used to visually track the progress of sample running through the gel

c)

Fluorescent dye that used to coloring the gel

d)

Fluorescent dye that incorporated into nucleic acid

e)

Fluorescent dye that intercalates between bases of nucleic acid

37.

Which step stops the color forming reaction in blood glucose test?

a)

Wrapping glucose + o-toluidine container with aluminum foil

b)

Heating up the glucose + o-toluidine

c)

Addition of acetic acid to glucose + o-toluidine

d)

Cooling down the glucose + o-toluidine

e)

Addition of the stop solution

38.

The breakdown of the molecule glycogen in the liver, kidney or muscles into glucose to be subsequently modified into glucose-6-phosphate for use in glycolysis pathway is called …

a)

Metabolism

b)

Glucoselysis

c)

Glycogenolysis

d)

Gluconeogenesis

e)

Glycogenesis

39.

During DNA isolation, what is the purpose of the “phenol saturation” step, and how does it contribute to the extraction process?

a)

Enhances DNA stability

b)

Improves buffer efficiency

c)

Facilitates RNA degradation

d)

Increases DNA yield

e)

Reduces protein contamination

40.

The following is the purpose of sequencing analysis, except:

a)

To detect the presence of mutation

b)

To assign function to genes and proteins by the study of the similiarities between to compared sequences

c)

To analyze the single nucleotide polymorphism

d)

To analyze mutation that caused high protein expression

e)

To analyze the amount of DNA in a sample

41.

Which is one of the major advantages of ELISA in comparison to other biological quantification techniques?

a)

Detection of a molecule at a low concentration

b)

Inexpensive

c)

Easily available

d)

Low sensitivity

e)

Low specificity

42.

The wavelength at which nucleic acid, organic compounds (e.g., phenol), and protein absorb light, respectively, are …

a)

280 nm, 260 nm, 230 nm

b)

280 nm, 230 nm, 260 nm

c)

260 nm, 280 nm, 230 nm

d)

260 nm, 230 nm, 280 nm

e)

230 nm, 260 nm, 280 nm

43.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

PCR requires the use of a heat-stable DNA polymerase to make copies of the template DNA

b)

PCR has three important steps: denaturation, annealing, and extension

c)

PCR is a cell-based DNA cloning that allows much greater DNA

d)

PCR is usually used to amplify a specific DNA sequence of interest using oligonucleotide primers

e)

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a cell-free method of DNA amplification

44.

Imagine an error occurring during DNA replication in a cell, so that where there is supposed to be a T in one of the genes there is instead a G. What effect will this probably have on the cell?

a)

An amino acid will be missing from one of its kinds of protein

b)

An amino acid will be missing from each of its kinds of protein

c)

One of its kinds of protein will contain an incorrect amino acid

d)

Each of its kinds of protein will contain an incorrect amino acid

e)

The amino acid sequence of one of its kinds of protein will be completely changed

45.

The purity of DNA to protein can be assessed by calculating the ratio between the absorbance values at …

a)

260 nm to 230 nm

b)

260 nm to 280 nm

c)

230 nm to 280 nm

d)

280 nm to 230 nm

e)

280 nm to 260 nm

46.

Clark Kent measured the absorbance of glucose standards and a sample using the o-toluidine method. The glucose standard equation is y=154.6x+18.95y = 154.6x + 18.95 ( R2=0.994R^2 = 0.994 ), and the sample absorbance is x=1.5x = 1.5 . What is the glucose level and status of the student? (y = concentration; x = absorbance)

a)

250 mg/dL; healthy

b)

250.85 mg/dL; diabetes

c)

250.85 ng/dL; diabetes

d)

Cannot be calculated because the data is not complete

e)

250 ng/dL; healthy

47.

DNA can be dissolved in both water and Tris-EDTA buffer because DNA contains ___ and together with sugar deoxyribose that forms the ___ of DNA.

a)

Nitrogenous bases; backbone

b)

Ribose; backbone

c)

Nitrogenous bases; nucleobase

d)

Phosphate group; backbone

e)

Phosphate group; nucleobase

48.

Why do scientists load DNA of known sizes (also called ‘marker’ or ‘ladder’) into the agarose gel?

a)

To practice loading the DNA before you get to the important DNA

b)

To know how long the gel needs to run

c)

It makes easier to determine the size of unknowns using comparison techniques

d)

To fill all the slots on the gel so you can run it

e)

A “GPD” so we can track the migration of DNA samples

49.

Which of the following statements is true about spectrophotometry and agarose gel electrophoresis?

a)

Agarose gel electrophoresis can precisely calculate the purity and concentration of DNA samples

b)

Agarose gel electrophoresis will show the absorbance value of DNA samples

c)

Spectrophotometry assesses DNA concentration and purity quantitatively

d)

Molecular weight in gel agarose indicates the concentration of loaded DNA sample

e)

Spectrophotometry only can evaluate the concentration of DNA samples

50.

What is the difference between PCR and DNA sequencing?

a)

PCR can amplify with a specific primer, while DNA sequencing needs different direction primers

b)

DNA sequencing does not need amplification process

c)

DNA sequencing requires ddNTPs while PCR does not

d)

DNA sequencing used to duplicate the entire specific DNA sequence while PCR can generate every possible length of DNA

51.

A patient suffers from diabetes which is caused by a mutation in the insulin receptor gene. The following analysis will be required to confirm the result:

a)

Electrophoresis

b)

ELISA

c)

Immunoassay

d)

Rapid test for glucose detection

e)

Sequencing

52.

Where can we find DNA in eukaryotes?

a)

Mitochondria and nucleus

b)

Cell wall and ribosome

c)

Golgi apparatus and mitochondria

d)

Cytoskeleton and nucleus

e)

Membrane cell and mitochondria

53.

Which of the following statements is true concerning human blood?

a)

The blood of normal humans is true concerning red blood cell, WBC, platelets, and plasma

b)

Protein are not components human blood

c)

Monocyte are the first response for out immune system

d)

Some human population normally lack the ability to produce plasma

e)

The blood of normal human containing RBC, WBC, platelets, plasma , and proteinase

54.

Which of the following is not the basic requirement of PCR reaction?

a)

Modified building black

b)

A heat-stable DNA polymerase

c)

DNA segment to be amplified

d)

Enzyme cofactor

e)

A pair of oligonucleotide primer

55.

The immediate goal of the human genome project was to …

a)

Find cures for human genetic disorders

b)

Map all the human genes and determine the nucleotides sequence of the entire human genome

c)

Develop new technologies for studying DNA

d)

Compare the genomes of a large number of individuals from different parts of the world

e)

Map and sequence the genomes of important research organisms

56.

The major components blood is …

a)

Platelet

b)

Buffy coat

c)

Protein

d)

Monocyte

e)

Water

57.

Calvulate dsDNA concentration with a dilution of 1:100 and absorbance value A260 = 0.08, A230 = 0.04, A280 = 0.02 for 1 cm path length measurement! (e dsDNA = 20L/g cm)

a)

100 ul/mL

b)

200 ul/mL

c)

400 ul/mL

d)

800 ul/mL

e)

300 ul/mL

58.

In lateral flow assays, the control line serves a crucial role. What is the primary purpose of the control line, and why is its absence r failure significat?

a)

It prevents false-positive results

b)

It indicates the presence of the target analyte

c)

It enhances the test’s sensitivity

d)

In monitors the sample’s quality

e)

It confirms the functionality of the test kit

59.

A patient is suspected to have diabetes after these following symptoms, except …

a)

Significant weight gain

b)

Frequent urination

c)

Feeling hunger and tired

d)

Unexpected weight loss

e)

Extreme thirst

60.

What is the component that can be used to stop the coagulation of the blood?

a)

Tris-EDTA (TE buffer)

b)

Sodium chloride

c)

Distilled water

d)

Glucose

61.

In lateral flow assays, the choice of conjugate plays a crucial role in the detection process. What is the primary function of the conjugate and how it contribute to the accuracy of the test?

a)

Enhances the stability of the test strip

b)

Improves the visual appearance of the test result

c)

Facilitates the binding of antibodies to the test line

d)

Accelerates the reaction kinetics of the test

e)

Acts as a control for the assay

62.

The blood sample from a patient with a suspected viral hemorrhagic fever is subjected to a lateral flow assay, the result shows that both the test and control lines are absent, what could be the possible interpretation?

a)

Late stage of infection

b)

Invalid test

c)

Antibody deficiency in the patient

d)

Inconclusive result

e)

Early stage of infection

63.

What are the conditions that makes the glucose + o-toluidine reaction work?

a)

High temperature and a closed container

b)

High temperature

c)

High temperature and high pH

d)

High temperature and low pH

e)

High temperature and a closed container protected from light

64.

In blood sugar level experiment, how much percent of o-toluidine that we used?

a)

10% in absolute ethanol

b)

1% in dH2O

c)

10% in dH2O

d)

10% in acetic acid glacial

e)

1% in CH3COOH

65.

A female patient was suspected to have breast cancer and the hospital want to check the mutation in her BRCA1 gene. Which component of the blood should be isolated to analyze the disease?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Plasma

c)

Thrombocytes

d)

Leucocytes

e)

Serum

66.

We used BLAST to …

a)

Find identify in our sequence

b)

Identify and find similarity in our sequence

c)

Find error in our sequence

d)

Identify and find error in our sequence

e)

Find similarity in our sequence

67.

Which of the following statements about blood is true:

a)

Plasma is closest in composition to CSF which is a clear liquid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord

b)

Blood cells are supposed in a yellowish substance called buffy coat; consisting if proteins, glucose, clotting factors, hormones, and carbon dioxide

c)

Blood consists of two types of cells; RBC, WBC

d)

Plasma containing blood clotting factors, sugar, lipids, vitamin, hormones, enzymes, antibodies, and other proteins.

e)

Serum is blood without the clotting factors, mainly the fibrinogen

68.

The lid is placed on the electrophoresis chamber and power was turned on with voltage of 100V, and the gel has to run for 1 hour 30 minutes. What would happen if the gel was run for too long?

a)

The tracking dye will intercalate within DNA bond

b)

The DNA will migrate to opposite direction form positive pole to negative pole

c)

It will be too hot and possibly will melt the agarose gel

d)

It can cause smearing or distortion of DNA bond on agarose

e)

The DNA would move too far and leave the botton of the gel

69.

In DNA isolation, what role do cheating/stabilizing agents play, and how they impact the quality of the isolated DNA?

a)

Enhance DNA amplification

b)

Promote DNA denaturation

c)

Facilitate RNA degradation

d)

Inhibit nuclease activity

e)

Increase DNA yield

70.

Cellular DNA is extracted by breaking open the cell wall, destroying the membranes (lysing the cells) and denaturing proteins and RNA. Which of the following agents destroys the membranes and denatures proteins and RNA, respectively?

a)

Phenol-chloroform-isoamyl alcohol solution and proteinase K

b)

Proteinase K and phenol-chloroform-isoamyl alcohol solution

c)

Sodium dodecyl sulfate and proteinase K

d)

Saline sodium citrate buffer and Tris-EDTA buffer

e)

Saline sodium citrate buffer and proteinase K

71.

In order to avoid contamination from protein, what reagent should we use in DNA isolation procedure?

a)

Nuclease-free wter

b)

SSC buffer

c)

Proteinase K

d)

RNase

e)

TE buffer

72.

Chain termination for DNA sequencing …

a)

Uses trideoxynucleotides

b)

Uses piperidine to cleave modified bases

c)

Requires a DNA polymerase

d)

Requires two primers

e)

Uses double-stranded DNA

73.

The method to measure blood glucose concentration that uses reaction in heat and alkaline condition is …

a)

Enzymatic method

b)

Condensation reaction using o-toluidine

c)

Chemical reaction

d)

Alkaline copper reduction method

e)

Glucose oxidase method

74.

Why was polyacrylamide gel used instead of agarose gel in a conventional sequencing?

a)

Polyacrylamide has lower toxicity than agarose

b)

Polyacrylamide can separate DNA molecules that differ in length by just single nucleotide

c)

Polyacrylamide is cheaper than agarose

d)

Agarose is more fragile than polyacrylamide gel

e)

Agarose is more complicated in preparation than polyacrylamide because it requires addition of EtBr

75.

Why did we add o-toluidine inside a fume hood?

a)

O-toluidine itself highly volatile and mutagenic

b)

Because it is not dark enough in the room

c)

The sample and o-toluidine must be kept sterile and clean

d)

Because it is dissolved in a volatile concentrated acid

e)

Because the assistant told us to do

76.

What can a scientist conclude about the bonds of DNA closest to the wells within an agarose gel?

a)

These fragments are neutrally charged

b)

These fragments have the weakest charge

c)

These fragments have the strongest charge

d)

These are the smallest fragments

e)

These are the largest fragments

77.

This is a true statement about gel electrophoresis, except?

a)

2% agarose gel concentration gives a good resolution for large fragments (2-10kb)

b)

DNA is negatively charged and travels towards the positive charge at the far end of the gel

c)

Once run in the gel, DNA strands are visible to the naked eye

d)

Voltage is one of the factors that will affect the rate of migration of DNA in agarose gel

e)

The sorter DNA strands of DNA will move faster through the gel

78.

Which of the following methods cannot be used detect sugar level in blood?

a)

Glucometer test

b)

HbA1c test

c)

Oxidation-reduction reaction using CuSO4

d)

PCR

e)

Condensation reaction using o-toluidine

79.

What is the main process that happens in a sequencing machine?

a)

Colorimetric

b)

Spectrophotometry

c)

Electrophoresis

d)

Chromatographic

e)

PCR

80.

The following molecule(s) can be detected by ELISA, except?

a)

Antigen

b)

Proteins

c)

Antibodies

d)

Hormones

e)

Enzyme

81.

Why did we use different wavelengths for spectrophotometry in ELISA and blood glucose test?

a)

Because we use enzyme in ELISA detection method and use condensation reaction in blood glucose test

b)

Yellow and blue-green color have different spectrum wavelength

c)

Protein and glucose have different spectrums

d)

The antibody and glucose have different spectrum wavelength

e)

Stop solution and o-toluidine have different colors

82.

A student wants to determine size of DNA, what should be prepare?

a)

TAE buffer, water, polyacrylamide gel, ethidium bromide

b)

Water, TAE buffer, agarose gel, ethidium bromide

c)

TBE buffer, water, agarose gel, ethidium buffer

d)

TBE buffer, agarose gel, ethidium buffer

e)

TAE buffer, polyacrylamide gel, ethidium bromide

83.

A student wants to dilute DNA from 30um to 20um. How much DNA and water are needed to reach final volume of 500ul?

a)

0.125ml and 0.375ml

b)

200ml and 300ml

c)

0.2ml and 0.3ml

d)

125ml and 375ml

e)

0.15ml and 0.35ml

84.

When developing a lateral flow assay for the diagnosis of a specific infectious disease, what factors should be considered in selecting the antibodies for the test line?

a)

Antibody cost and availability

b)

Antibody cost, availability, and stability during storage

c)

Stability on the antibodies during storage

d)

Stability of the antibodies during storage and their cross-activity with other pathogens

e)

Cross-reactivity with other pathogens

85.

Dideoxynucleotide triphosphate molecule is locking oxygen in C atom position …

a)

2 and 3

b)

3 and 5

c)

2 and 5

d)

1 and 5

e)

3 and 4

86.

Imagine a scenario where a lateral flow assay for a respiratory pathogen yields conflicting result with PCR testing. What factors might contribute to such discrepancies?

a)

Differences in target analytes

b)

Antibody cross-reactivity

c)

Target analytes and cross-reactivity

87.

In order to measure the glucose level in blood, following component of the blood can be used, except …

a)

Buffy coat

b)

Plasma

c)

Venous blood

d)

Serum

e)

Whole blood

88.

A researcher is performing PCR to amplify a sample of DNA; unfortunately, he forgot to add the DNA primers prior to starting the experiment. Which of the following results will he most likely observe?

a)

The reaction will work, but his target region will not be amplified

b)

The reaction will work, but the product will contain many undesired mutations

c)

The reaction will work, but at a significantly slower rate

d)

The reaction will be fine because it is just primers that he forgot to add

e)

The reaction will be completely unsuccessful

89.

As a medical student, explain the ethical considerations surrounding the use of rapid diagnostic tests in the diagnosis and management of infectious diseases.

a)

Informed consent

b)

All answers are correct

c)

None of the answers are correct

d)

Reporting result to public health authorities

e)

Patient confidentiality

90.

If you dilute 10 µL DNA with 40 µL TE buffer and the absorbance at 260 nm is about 0.7, therefore, the concentration of your DNA (mg/mL) is …

a)

0.175

b)

1.75

c)

0.28

d)

0.14

e)

1.4

91.

What is the principle of condensation reaction using o-toluidine in measuring blood glucose level?

a)

o-Toluidine is reacted with glucose under high temperature to generate a blue-green color that can be detected by a colorimetric method

b)

The reaction between gluconic acid and ferricyanide forms ferrocyanide, which generates a current directly proportional to the glucose level

c)

Cupric ion and glucose in alkaline and high-temperature conditions generate cuprous ion, which can be detected by a colorimetric method

d)

The reaction between the aldehyde group of o-toluidine and the amine group of glucose generates red color that can be detected by a colorimetric method

e)

Hot glacial acetic acid generates blue color after incubation with glucose

92.

Maxam–Gilbert sequencing is a method of DNA sequencing developed by Allan Maxam and Walter Gilbert in 1976–1977. This method is called a chemical degradation. One of the chemicals used is piperidine. What is the function of this chemical?

a)

to cut hydrogen bond

b)

to cut chemical bond

c)

to cut phosphodiester bond

d)

to cut ribose bond

e)

to cut glycosidic bond

93.

Which of the following is immobilized on the microtiter well in sandwich ELISA?

a)

Secondary antibody conjugated to an enzyme

b)

Capture antibody

c)

Detection antibody

d)

Antigen

e)

Sample

94.

To assign function to genes and proteins by the study of the similarities between the compared sequences. How is the purity of the DNA sample with a dilution of 1:100 and absorbance value A260A_{260} = 0.08, A230A_{230} = 0.02 for 1 cm path length measurement ( ε\varepsilon dsDNA = 20 L/g cm)?

a)

Contaminated with organic compound

b)

Pure from RNA but not other compound

c)

Contaminated with protein

d)

Contaminated with RNA

e)

Pure without any contamination

95.

You are performing a DNA test on a human blood sample. You want to isolate the DNA from the blood sample that you are evaluating. What technique should you use?

a)

PCR

b)

Southern blotting

c)

DNA sequencing

d)

Gel electrophoresis

e)

Phenol–chloroform extraction

96.

If a patient DNA is isolated and found to have polymorphic regions, what does this information indicate?

a)

High DNA purity

b)

Homogeneity in DNA structure

c)

Presence of genetic mutations

d)

Lack of repetitive sequences

e)

Clonal origin of the DNA

97.

Which number represents the antigen–antibody complex with detection antibody in the pictured ELISA test (capture antibody bound to well, antigen bound above it, secondary detection antibody conjugate bound to antigen, and substrate shown at the top)?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

98.

Jennie and Cello amplified a certain segment of extracted DNA using PCR, and the result was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis for analysis. You are shown the image of the gel loaded with the following samples: (A) negative control, (B) size ladder, (C) extracted DNA, and (D) PCR product. However, they forgot to take notes while loading the gel with the samples and were not sure which lane for each loaded samples. Please label each lane of the gel, respectively.

a)

A-B-C-D

b)

B-C-D-A

c)

C-D-B-A

d)

B-D-C-A

e)

D-C-A-B

99.

___ is used in our ELISA experiment to measure AFP concentration.

a)

D

b)

B

c)

A

d)

A, B, and C

100.

What is the interpretation of this rapid test result?

a)

Invalid result

b)

Suspected to have past infect

c)

The patient has been vaccinated

d)

false positive result

e)

Suspect to have recent infection

101.

The following image is the resulting sequencing gel using ____ method. What is the sequence of the original DNA?

a)

Sanger (5'- AGTCAGGCAT-3')

b)

Maxam and Gilbert (5'- TACGGACTGA-3')

c)

Sanger (5'- TACGGACTGA-3')

d)

Maxam and Gilbert (5'- AGTCAGGCCAT-3')

e)

Sanger (3'- AGTCAGGCAT-5)

102.

Where should the primers bind to enable this reaction to occur? Template DNA is shown with sense and antisense strands labeled 5' to 3'.

a)

Each primer binds to the 5’ end of its complementary strand

b)

Each primer binds to the 3’ end of its complementary strand

c)

Both primers will be bind randomly

d)

Primers only bind at sense strand

e)

Primers only bind at anti-sense strand

103.

As shown in the picture, you want to make a solution with 1:100 dilution and 1 mL of total volume. How much volume (uL) should we add from stock solution and the diluent?

a)

10 uL stock + 990 uL diluent

b)

0.01 ul stock + 999.99 ul diluent

c)

1uL stock + 999 uL diluent

d)

0.1uL stock + 999.9uL diluent

e)

100uL stock + 900uL diluent

104.

After adding PCI (Phenol, Chloroform, Isoamyl alcohol) solution and performing the centrifugation, there will be 3 layers formed. What are the components in A, B, and C layer respectively?

a)

Lipid, DNA phospholipid bilayer

b)

Phospholipid bilayer, DNA, lipid

c)

RNA, DNA, lipid

d)

DNA, phospholipid bilayer, lipid

e)

RNA, phospholipid bilayer, DNA