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Final Exam BTEC 4320 Quiz 6

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is not a main job responsibility of the QC group?

a)

Analytical testing of raw materials against specifications before use by the production group

b)

Provide analytical support for process validation

c)

Checking accuracy of process operators entries in batch records

d)

Environmental monitoring for viables and non-viables

e)

Testing of drug products against specifications before release

2.

What is not always a requirement for cGMP-compliant sampling?

a)

Sampling plans must be based on appropriate statistical criteria

b)

Samples must be an accurate representation of the material or drug product batch

c)

Sample containers should be properly identified and labelled.

d)

Samples must be obtained where they are within easy reach by the process technician

e)

Sampling plans and methods must be written, defined, and pre-approved

3.

What is not a source of information on acceptable sampling sizes, like the table shown on slide 35?

a)

International Organization for Standardization

b)

American Standards Congress

c)

American Society for Quality

d)

Military standard

e)

American National Standards Institute

4.

What does not apply to specifications for release of finish drug products?

a)

Specifications consist of test procedures

b)

Product release specifications are not required by the FDA for evaluation of marketing applications

c)

Many analytical procedures that are part of specifications are found in the US Pharmacopoeia

d)

Quality and safety of the drug product is ensured by conformance to specifications

e)

Specifications include rejection criteria for certain attributes

5.

What does not apply to specifications for release of finish drug products?

a)

Acceptable reference chemicals used in tests should be purchased from USP only

b)

Quality and safety of the drug product is ensured by conformance to specifications

6.

What is considered as a contaminant in the manufacturing of small molecule drugs?

a)

host cell DNA and proteins

b)

residual solvents

c)

incompletely synthesized API

d)

Leachates from equipment

e)

degradation products

7.

A single identity test, based on the CofA, is all that is required for most excipient lots received by the drug manufacturer

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

8.

45 drums of bulk raw material were delivered to your manufacturing company. As the QC analyst assigned to handle the delivered material, what is the minimum number of drums that you should sample and test for attributes like impurities or water content?

a)

8 drums (sqrt of 45 is 6.7+1=7.7)

b)

15 drums

c)

7 drums

d)

9 drums

e)

6 drums

9.

In the sampling table shown in slide 35, for a lot size of 658, ______________ units should be obtained and tested for conformance to specifications.

a)

50 units

b)

200 units

c)

32 units (sqrt of 658 is 25.65+1=26.65)

d)

125 units

e)

315 units

10.

In the Genzyme video on producing biotherapeutics using mammalian cells, what is the correct sequence of manufacturing activities in the 90-day production flow?

4 lines
11.

Which is not an in-process control test used to monitor the progress of protein production during fermentation?

a)

Presence of misfolded proteins

b)

Presence of chemicals used to clean the bioreactor

c)

Concentration of biologic

d)

Gene copy number

e)

Endotoxin levels

12.

What is not a process control variable in the downstream cell harvesting processes that could impact product quality and yield?

a)

Bioreactor cleaning reagents

b)

pH of chromatography mobile phase

c)

Centrifugation speed

d)

Filtration temperature

e)

Filtration backpressure

13.

Procedures and Acceptance Criteria for release testing of drug tablets are found in ICHQ4, while that for biotechnological or biological products are found in ICH _________.

a)

ICHQ6B

b)

ICHQ7

c)

ICHQ3C

d)

ICHQ5A

14.

Dissolution tests are performed on tablets or capsules to predict:

a)

Resistance to chipping, crumbling or breaking when shaken in containers

b)

API release profile inside the patient's blood stream

c)

There's no correct answer choice (dissolution predicts how fast and how much API dissolves out of the dosage form in the GI tract)

d)

Uniformity of API concentration in the average tablet

e)

Breaking of the drug product into smaller pieces inside the GI tract

15.

What is not true about RSD?

a)

RSD is a statistical measure of process variability

b)

A low RSD value is desirable

c)

RSD stands for relative standard deviation

d)

Reflects deviation of individual samples from the lowest sample value

e)

RSD is often expressed as a percentage

16.

What is an acceptable quantity of each sample that should be obtained when sampling in-process material for blend uniformity using a sample thief, if the final drug product is a 300 mg tablet containing 30 mg API?

a)

30 mg

b)

3000 mg

c)

500 mg

d)

250 mg

e)

1000 mg

17.

What is not considered as in-process tests for typical coated tablets?

a)

Container closure integrity

b)

Water content

c)

Blend uniformity

d)

Particle size distribution

e)

Tablet capping

18.

What is not a product release test for biologics?

a)

mg antibody per vial of drug product

b)

identity test for the cell substrate

c)

amino acid sequencing of biologic

d)

tests for potency

e)

PCR for viral contaminants

19.

What is not used as a potency assay for antibodies?

a)

ELISA

b)

Western blot

c)

Flow cytometry

d)

Blood pressure measurement

20.

Which test is not acceptable for identity testing of biotherapeutic proteins?

a)

Western Blot

b)

Ion-exchange chromatography

c)

Amino acid sequencing

d)

Peptide map

e)

Absorbance at 280 nm

21.

In the production of biotherapeutic protein using Chinese Hamster Ovary cells as expression hosts, which of these impurities is a product-related impurity, that is, not considered a process-related impurity?

a)

Lysozyme used to break cell open

b)

Media components

c)

Ligands used for affinity purification

d)

Detergents used to clean bioreactors

e)

Recombinant product missing the first 10 amino acids

22.

Stability testing of biologics with shelf life 1 year or less is performed on at least 3 lots ____________ .

a)

at 0, 3, 6, 9, 12th month

b)

at 0, 1, 2, 3, 12th month

c)

at 0, 1, 2, 3, 6, 12th month

d)

Every month until month 12

e)

at 0, 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 12th month

23.

Stability tests look at the change in quality attributes over time. For biologics, what quality tests are not performed as part of stability studies because the results are not expected to change much from time zero?

a)

Percent purity

b)

Product potency

c)

Amount of host cell protein

d)

Quantity

e)

Peptide mapping

24.

To confirm a bioreactor SIP SOP, what are placed inside the bioreactors to demonstrate the effectiveness of the sterilization process?

a)

TSA contact strips

b)

Biological indicator strips

c)

LB Agar plates

d)

RODAC plates

e)

Sabouraud agar plates

25.

In the video on test to confirm sterility of the biosafety cabinet (BSC), for how long were the settling agar plates left open in the BSC?

a)

30 min

b)

2 hours

c)

10 min

d)

one day

e)

one hour

26.

Environmental monitoring in an aseptic manufacturing facility by the quality control group does not include:

a)

Measuring the levels of fungi on equipment surfaces

b)

Measuring the levels of dust that could be from equipment

c)

Measuring the levels of dust that could be generated from growth media

d)

Measuring the levels of nitrogen in the air

e)

Measuring the levels of bacterial spores in the air

27.

What instrument is used to actively sample the air in a biomanufacturing suite for viables?

a)

High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) sampler

b)

Hamster wheel

c)

Laser particle counter

d)

Biological indicator strips

e)

Centrifugal Air sampler

28.

Of the locations given, which one is supposed to be a Class A area?

4 lines
29.

For cellular drug products with short shelf life, the BACT-ALERT 3D system provides a quick way to detect microbes by detecting increasing levels of ________________ in the culture bottles.

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Acetate

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Adenosine triphosphate

e)

Oxygen

30.

The drug filling area is a specially vulnerable area to contamination by microbes and dust thus requiring Class 100 air quality. How many microbes are allowable per cubic meter of air in an area which is class 100?

a)

Less than 10 CFU per cu. m

b)

Less than 100 CFU per cu. M

c)

Less than 200 CFU CFU per cu. m

d)

None

e)

1 or less CFU per cu. m

31.

What is not true about endotoxins?

a)

The upper limit for endotoxins in water used in injectable drug products is 2.5 endotoxin units per ml

b)

In mammalian cell production hosts, endotoxins are considered contaminants rather than process impurities

c)

Endotoxins are molecules found on the surface of the outer membrane of Gram negative, but not in Gram positive bacteria

d)

Endotoxins are chemical substances that cause fever in humans in drugs that are administered intravenously

e)

Endotoxins belong to a class of molecules called lipopolysaccharides

32.

Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides found on the outer membrane of Gram negative, but not in Gram positive bacteria. What is not used to test for the presence of endotoxins in drug products?

a)

Rabbit Pyrogen Test

b)

Gram staining

c)

Pyrogene

d)

Recombinant Factor C assay

e)

Chromogenic LAL Assay

33.

Mycoplasma is a common contaminant of cell cultures and can adversely affect virus propagation for vaccines and recombinant protein quality. What is not used as a test for Mycoplasma?

a)

Polymerase chain reaction

b)

Bradford assay

c)

Fried egg-shaped colonies on plates

d)

Microscopy

e)

Hoechst fluorescent stain

34.

The cGMP-compliant flow of air in a sterile manufacturing suite is demonstrated using smoke studies and best described as:

a)

Turbulent

b)

Unidirectional

c)

Indirect

d)

Monodirectional

e)

Bidirectional

35.

What does not apply to specifications?

a)

Justification for specifications are based on lots manufactured for pre-clinical and clinical testing

b)

Specifications includes acceptance criteria for drug product release prior to distribution

c)

Specifications include series of tests and instructions on performing the tests

d)

Drug product release specifications are not included in the common technical document submitted for marketing approval

e)

Distributed products that are later found to fail specifications may be withdrawn or recalled from the market

36.

Out-of-specification results can arise from:

a)

missteps by manufacturing personnel

b)

All the other answers are correct

c)

errors in QC analytical test SOPs

d)

errors in the master batch record instructions

e)

mistakes by QC analysts

37.

In what instance might a drug product be considered out of specifications?

a)

The tablet is greenish when acceptance criteria specifies white tablets

b)

The obtained test results are in the middle of the range of passing values

38.

Which drug product quality attribute is expected to be higher in stability samples than in the release test results (time=0)?

a)

Dissolution rates

b)

Degradation products

c)

Content uniformity

d)

Assay

e)

Appearance

39.

For tablets, in which of these activities will an OOS apply to in some but not all cases?

a)

Results of blend uniformity tests are below the acceptance criteria for API levels

b)

Results of development work which are out of pre-specified criteria

c)

Results of method validation which are out of pre-specified criteria

d)

Results of instrument validation which are out of pre-specified criteria

e)

Results of method transfers which are out of pre-specified criteria

40.

For tablets, in which of these activities will test results outside of the specified criteria be considered OOS?

a)

Results of method validation which are out of pre-specified criteria

b)

Results of method transfers which are out of pre-specified criteria

c)

Results of instrument validation which are out of pre-specified criteria

d)

Results of development work which are out of pre-specified criteria

e)

Results of API content testing of stability samples which are out of the pre-specified criteria

41.

What is not considered an assignable cause for an OOS event?

a)

The analyst plugged in the wrong value in the formula for calculating the %API

b)

There were undissolved crystals found in one of the unused solutions

c)

The analyst has been trained 3 times on the SOP

d)

A retired method for quantifying the API was used

e)

There was an error found in the volume of a reagent specified in a method for quantifying an impurity

42.

In the event of non-assignable cause for OOS, what would be part of the Phase II of the OOS investigation?

a)

Re-sampling if the original samples were not representative of the batch.

b)

The original analyst redoes the test using the original prepared solutions

c)

A second analyst redoes the test using the solutions originally used by the first analyst

43.

Field Alert Report should be filed with the FDA within 3 days, once a first analyst performs retests and still obtains OOS results for a stability sample of an already marketed drug.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

What does the phrase “testing into compliance” mean?

a)

A non-conforming material is tested using a different SOP to see if it passes specs

b)

A non-conforming batch is reprocessed and retested until it passes specs

c)

A non-conforming batch is rejected after non-conforming test results

d)

Test results from a non-conforming batch is manipulated by a second analyst until the numbers are within specs

e)

A non-conforming batch is resampled and retested until passing results are obtained

45.

The Ishikawa diagram is a useful tool for root cause investigation of an OOS. The root cause of OOS results can be traced to any one of the 5M inputs in the drug manufacturing process. Which is not one of the 5Ms?

a)

Man

b)

Machine

c)

Environment

d)

Mischief

e)

Methods

46.

What is not an acceptable practice with regards to OOS?

a)

A Field Alert Report should be filed with the FDA for marketed drug products that got OOS stability results

b)

Only data that conform with specifications should be recorded in lab notebooks

c)

Non-conforming drug product should not be released for distribution

d)

Retest other batches that were analyzed by the same analyst who generated OOS results in another batch

e)

OOS should be investigated whether or not the batch has been distributed

47.

Which ICH document has guidelines for method and process validation in API manufacturing?

a)

ICHQ6

b)

ICHQ9

c)

ICHQ8

d)

ICHQ7

e)

ICHQ4

48.

Which of the steps in bioreactor qualification will focus on the availability of utilities, like uninterruptible power supply and readily accessible oxygen tanks, to support the growth of cells in the bioreactor?

a)

Installation qualification

b)

Process qualifications

c)

Performance qualification

d)

Operational qualification

e)

Design qualification

49.

In a validated analytical method, which method attribute pertains to the ability of the method to detect very low levels of an impurity in a drug product?

a)

Reproducibility

b)

Accuracy

c)

Sensitivity

d)

Specificity

e)

Consistency

50.

In method validation, say for a PCR, which method attribute pertains to the lowest amount of DNA in a given sample that can be measured accurately?

a)

Specificity

b)

Limit of quantitation

c)

Accuracy

d)

Consistency

e)

Reproducibility

51.

In method validation, which method attribute pertains to the ability to obtain instrument readings, say absorbance, which are directly proportional to the concentration (amount) of analyte in the sample?

a)

Specificity

b)

Consistency

c)

Sensitivity

d)

Reproducibility

e)

Linearity

52.

What will not need to be established in the process validation for production of a biologic drug?

a)

Holding time for the culture supernatant or filtrate

b)

Endotoxin control

c)

Cell transformation efficiency

d)

Virus removal

e)

Removal of host cell proteins

53.

Validation is expensive. What is not a way by which validation saves the company money in the long run?

a)

Better product quality can translate to enhanced customer preference and market share

b)

Improved process consistency eliminates the need for raw material testing

c)

Increased throughput or productivity due to a reduction in rejects and reworks

d)

Fewer product complaints that need to be addressed or investigated and less product returns or recalls

e)

Improved process efficiency means lower utility and raw material costs

54.

When manufacturing of the anti-inflammatory drug, Remicade, was transferred from the Netherlands site to Pennsylvania and scaled up, what was the unanticipated consequence of processing the resulting increased product yield which led to a need to revalidate processes?

a)

The product binds tightly to the chromatography column and are not washed out of the column

b)

A great portion of the product produces protein aggregates in the column

c)

The column gets clogged more easily and need constant cleaning and replacement

d)

A significant portion of the product do not bind to the chromatography column and just goes through the column

e)

There is increased clogging of the bioreactor spin filters in the continuous cultures

55.

What is not a performance aspect that needs to be validated for holding tanks for biologics?

a)

Need to validate holding time effects on aseptic conditions

b)

Need to validate pumps for feeding nutrients to the growing cells

c)

Need to assure that tanks are connected to a working back-up generator

d)

Need to validate the ability of the holding tank to maintain low temperatures

e)

Need to validate effectiveness of cleaning process in getting rid of detergents

56.

A valve used to transfer material from a holding tank to the purification suite is malfunctioning and you'll need a replacement. Which internal document might not provide information concerning the make and model of the valve currently in use?

a)

Validation master file

b)

Equipment master file

c)

Sterility qualification file

d)

User's manual

57.

Being a zealous manufacturing supervisor, you noticed that your autoclave loading plan leaves room for additional material which can be loaded. Realizing that increasing that amount of material in the autoclave will shorten the turn around time for the production line you considered increasing the amount of material loaded into the autoclave than specified by the loading plan. Despite the change in loading amount, design and installation qualification will not need to be redone.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

58.

A different kind of baffle was installed in the bioreactor to improve gas and nutrient exchange. Which test may not need to be performed to check the effect of the change on product quality attributes?

a)

Testing for product degradation

b)

Testing for adventitious viruses

c)

Examining 3D structure by NMR

d)

Immunological tests including Western blots

e)

Testing for activity of the protein product

59.

FDA audits are data-based, periodic assessments to verify companys compliance with regulations and guidances. What is not typically included in FDA audits of drug manufacturers?

a)

Observation of personnel behavior in the cafeteria

b)

observation of personnel while engaged in everyday routine manufacturing activities

c)

observation of facility conditions

d)

Interviews with personnel while performing tasks

e)

observation of data collection activities

60.

Audits are data-based periodic assessments to verify companys compliance with regulations and guidances. Which type of audit should be the broadest and most in depth?

a)

Internal audit by the companys own QA group

b)

Regulatory audit by the FDA or EMEA

c)

Safety audit by OSHA

d)

Manufacturers audit by a customer

e)

QAs audit of a supplier

61.

In the FDAs quality system inspection technique, for a company that already had several products rejected for marketing approval because of chemistry, manufacturing and control issues, the FDA would likely inspect:

a)

The management and production system

b)

The quality system alone is sufficient

c)

The quality system + at least 1 other system

d)

The quality system + 5 other systems

e)

The quality system + at least 3 other systems

62.

Why are results of internal audits performed by QA not routinely inspected by FDA investigators?

a)

Company management forbids regulators from asking

b)

Recalled lots may not get documented

c)

Those kinds of documents are not relevant to the inspection

d)

QA will be tempted not to record quality failures

e)

It is against the law for FDA to ask for them

63.

What would not be a characteristic of an effective audit?

a)

Formal audit report should link an observation to a relevant regulation or guidance

b)

Audits should be effective in guiding the company with its regulatory compliance

c)

Auditor limits his or her questioning to members of QA

d)

The audit should assess how well SOPs are followed

e)

Auditor should ask open-ended questions, not simple yes or no questions

64.

In internal audit companies, some companies classify deficiencies as critical, major, and minor. What is a disadvantage of such ranking system?

a)

Rankings don't help the auditee in prioritizing the areas to correct

b)

Theres no industry standardization on how to rank deficiencies

c)

Auditors are not able to point out areas of concern that may not have caught management's attention

d)

FDA inspectors don't really care about the rankings

e)

There is no disadvantage to the rankings

65.

Representatives of the company being audited should:

a)

Have a bunch of Post-It-Notes in their work station to give the impression that they are keeping busy

b)

Refuse to hand over OOS records

c)

Not volunteer to answer questions from inspectors if they're not sure of the answer.

d)

Volunteer information that is not being asked by the FDA inspectors

e)

Never admit to a recording error

66.

What normally won't FDA auditors look at during a manufacturing facility inspection?

a)

Employee time cards and vacation records

b)

Signatures and signature logs of manufacturing personnel

c)

Reasons for personnel turnover

d)

Organizational charts and personnel responsibilities

e)

QC analytical equipment computers

67.

What might FDA inspectors find about personnel and not lead to concerns regarding compliance?

a)

There's a large number of temporary workers

b)

QA head is the signing authority for release of finished drug product

c)

High staff turnover and high number of unfilled positions

d)

There's lack of enough personnel to conduct certain activities

e)

There's lack of trained personnel

68.

Select the correct ranking of FDA communications with a company after inspection, from less to most serious.

a)

Form 483, Warning Letter, Consent Decree, Seizure

b)

Warning Letter, Form 483, Seizure, Consent Decree

c)

Form 483, Warning Letter, Seizure, Consent Decree

d)

Consent Decree, Seizure, Form 483, Warning Letter

69.

In 2004, what was the leading reason for receiving warning letters from the FDA?

a)

Deviations from SOPs

b)

Filing of Field Alert Reports more than 3 days after a confirmed OOS

c)

Lack of personnel training

d)

Inadequate control of microbial contamination

e)

Inadequate stability program

70.

What is not found under the Testing section of the Biotechnology Inspection guide document found in the link: https://www.fda.gov/inspections-compliance-enforcement-and-criminal-investigations/inspection-guides/biotechnology-inspection-guide-1191

a)

Quality testing for physical appearance including color and clarity

b)

Potency testing using animal cells

c)

Identity tests to confirm amino acid sequence

d)

Equipment maintenance and calibration

e)

Purity testing for endotoxins or Mycoplasma

71.

Which of these viruses is not used for therapeutic gene delivery in humans?

a)

adeno-associated virus (AAV)

b)

All the other choices are being used for therapeutic gene delivery in humans

c)

adenovirus (AdV)

d)

lentivirus

e)

Newcastle virus

72.

In the Johnson and Johnson vaccines for COVID, FDA requires that replication-competent adenovirus (RCA) be less than:

a)

1 RCA in 3 billion viral particles

b)

1 RCA in 3,000,000 viral particles

c)

1 RCA in 30 billion viral particles

d)

1 RCA in 3,000 viral particles

e)

1 RCA in 10,000,000 viral particles

73.

In FDA documents, the cell substrate normally refers to the:

a)

the substrate to which cells adhere to in culture

b)

the cell which is the source of template for PCR

c)

the host cell which is propagated

d)

the cell culture media

e)

the virus which carries the functional gene

74.

Which drug product quality attribute is measured by freezing point determination?

a)

identity

b)

Osmolality

75.

What technique is used to separate T-cells that have the Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) displayed on their cell surface from other cells not expressing CAR?

a)

high performance liquid chromatography

b)

quantitative real time PCR

c)

time of flight mass spectrometry

d)

liquid chromatography - mass spectrometry

e)

Fluorescence Activated Cell Sorting

76.

Which technique is not used to quantify viral genomes in a given solution?

a)

enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

b)

high performance liquid chromatography

c)

quantitative PCR

d)

gene transfer assay

e)

liquid chromatography - mass spectrometry

77.

For the ex vivo gene therapy product Abecma, the strength of the drug product is expressed as:

a)

percent of T cells per dose

b)

total number of CAR+ T cells per dose

c)

international units per IV bag

d)

total number of T cells per dose

e)

percent of CAR+ T cells per dose

78.

For ex vivo gene therapy, it is acceptable to perform sterility release testing on in-process materials instead of the final drug product

a)

True

b)

False

79.

An intravenous drug product can have detectable endotoxins and still be accepted and released for marketing by QA

a)

True

b)

False

80.

In both ex vivo and in vivo gene therapy, the viral vector is found only in the in-process materials, but not in the final drug product.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

For testing of Master Cell Banks, the presence of retroviruses is indicated by the presence of?

a)

Mycoplasma

b)

Bacteriophage

c)

Endotoxin

d)

Prion

82.

From FDA's device classification database, which device is least likely to be required to comply with quality systems regulations during its development stage?

a)

Oxygen mask

b)

artificial heart

c)

Insulin pump

d)

HIV test

e)

Implantable pacemaker

83.

Failure to comply with any applicable provisions of FDA's Quality Systems Regulation in CFR21 Part 820 will render a device adulterated and ________________ is (are) subject to regulatory action.

a)

The person responsible

b)

The device and person responsible

c)

The device and the legislator

d)

The code and person responsible

e)

The device and the code

84.

cGMPs for pharmaceuticals are found in CFR21 part ___, while the equivalent quality systems regulations for devices are in CFR21 part ____.

a)

211:80

b)

211:820

c)

210:600

d)

210:800

e)

211:620

85.

A ______ filing is required if a new device is not substantially equivalent to other devices that have been cleared through a ________ process.

a)

510k:520k

b)

510k:pre-market approval

c)

pre-market approval:510k

d)

pre-market notification:510k

e)

pre-market notification:pre-market approval

86.

Which document is not one that management might normally review at defined time intervals to assess the effectiveness of the quality system that had been put in place for device manufacturing?

a)

Units sold annually

b)

QC test results

c)

Service records

d)

Customer complaints

e)

Audit results

87.

Which of these information will be found in the device history record but not in the device master record?

a)

Records of maintenance and service performed

b)

Procedures and specifications

c)

Production flow diagram

d)

Packaging and label designs

e)

SOPs for installation, maintenance, and servicing

88.

Which of the 8 components of design control involves demonstrating the ability to translate manufacturing design from small pilot scale to larger manufacturing scale?

a)

Design transfer

b)

Design Validation

c)

Design and Development Planning

d)

Design Output

e)

Design Changes

89.

Design Input primarily involves:

a)

ensuring that the device conforms to its intended use by testing the performance of initial production units under actual or simulated use conditions

b)

setting performance characteristics and passing specifications for the device

c)

Tracking, verifying, validating, and approving changes before implementation

d)

demonstrating the ability to translate manufacturing from small scale to larger manufacturing scale

e)

assigning personnel and responsibilities and setting timelines and product deliverables

90.

For a PCR-based medical device, the sensitivity performance characteristic is best described as:

a)

the lack of significant variability in results obtained when the tests are done by different analysts or operators

b)

the lack of effect of substances, like toothpaste, mouthwash or tobacco, on inhibiting or enhancing diagnostic test results

c)

a measure of the lowest amount of templates that the device could detect per sample tested

d)

the ability of the device to give the correct quantification of the number of target molecules present in a given test sample

e)

the ability of the device to give accurate results even when there are differences in the composition of patient samples being tested

91.

Which of the performance characteristics of a diagnostic medical device that involves the use of a PCR is demonstrated by lack of significant variability in results obtained when the tests are done using different instruments situated in different test sites and executed by different operators?

a)

Robustness

b)

Sensitivity

c)

Linearity

d)

Detectability

92.

What is not part of acceptance activities under medical device quality system regulations?

a)

receiving and acceptance of in-process materials during different stages of the manufacturing process

b)

receiving of recalled and returned products from customers

c)

receiving and acceptance of raw materials from suppliers

d)

receiving and acceptance of device parts from suppliers

e)

acceptance activities for the finished device

93.

Medical device records, including complaint files, should be retained:

a)

two years beyond the expected life of the device

b)

one year beyond the expected life of the device

c)

for the expected life of the device

d)

three years beyond the expected life of the device

e)

for one year after approval of the device

94.

Which of the following is NOT typically monitored during environmental monitoring in an aseptic manufacturing facility?

a)

Levels of viable microorganisms in the air

b)

Levels of non-viable particles on surfaces

c)

Levels of carbon dioxide in the air

d)

Levels of fungi on growth media

e)

Levels of bacterial spores on equipment

95.

Which method attribute is most relevant when determining the ability of an analytical method to consistently produce the same results under unchanged conditions?

a)

Sensitivity

b)

Reproducibility

c)

Specificity

d)

Accuracy

e)

Limit of detection

96.

During stability testing of biologics, which time point is commonly included for products with a shelf life of 1 year or less?

a)

15th month

b)

24th month

c)

36th month

d)

0 month

e)

18th month