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7th Grade Midterm REVIEW

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 3hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a chemical change?

a)

Melting of ice

b)

Rusting of iron

c)

Boiling of water

d)

Breaking a glass

2.

What is the main difference between a chemical change and a physical change?

a)

Chemical changes are reversible, while physical changes are not.

b)

Physical changes involve the formation of new substances, while chemical changes do not.

c)

Chemical changes result in new substances, while physical changes do not.

d)

Physical changes always involve a change in temperature.

3.

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a)

Burning wood

b)

Dissolving sugar in water

c)

Baking a cake

d)

Digesting food

4.

Identify the state of matter for water at 0°C.

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

5.

Which process represents a change of state from liquid to gas?

a)

Freezing

b)

Condensation

c)

Evaporation

d)

Sublimation

6.

Which of the following is a sign of a chemical change?

a)

Change in shape

b)

Change in color

c)

Change in size

d)

Change in state

7.

What happens to the molecules of a substance during a physical change?

a)

They form new chemical bonds.

b)

They change their arrangement or state.

c)

They are destroyed.

d)

They become charged.

8.

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a)

Freezing water

b)

Cutting paper

c)

Cooking an egg

d)

Mixing sand and salt

9.

What is the state of matter characterized by having a definite shape and volume?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

10.

Which of the following processes is a physical change?

a)

Burning a candle

b)

Fermenting grapes

c)

Melting butter

d)

Rusting a nail

11.

What is the term for the change of state from solid directly to gas?

a)

Melting

b)

Freezing

c)

Sublimation

d)

Condensation

12.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a chemical change?

a)

It is always reversible.

b)

It involves a change in state only.

c)

It results in the formation of new substances.

d)

It does not involve energy changes.

13.

Which state of matter has particles that are tightly packed and only vibrate in place?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

14.

What is the process called when a gas changes into a liquid?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Sublimation

d)

Freezing

15.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a chemical change?

a)

Production of gas

b)

Change in temperature

c)

Change in state

d)

Formation of a precipitate

16.

Cooking an egg

a)
Physical 
b)
Chemical
17.

A nail rusting

a)
Physical 
b)
Chemical
18.

Wood Burning

a)
Physical 
b)
Chemical
19.

Milk curdling/souring.

a)
Physical 
b)
Chemical
20.

Copper tarnishing.

a)
Physical 
b)
Chemical
21.

Methane burns with a blue flame

a)
Physical 
b)
Chemical
22.

A solution that contains all of the solute that it can hold at a given temperature.

a)

unsaturated solution

b)
saturated solution
c)

homogeneous solution

d)
diluted solution
23.
When one of the parts of the solution is water we call it _________. 
a)
water stuff 
b)
water mixture 
c)
aqua-man
d)
aqueous 
24.
If we are making Kool-aid with sugar, Kool-aid powder, and water, which part is the solvent?
a)
water
b)
powder
c)
sugar
d)
powder and sugar
25.

In Michael's science experiment with salt water, NaCl (salt) would be considered the ______.

a)

Solution

b)

Solute

c)

Solvent

d)

Solvation

26.

You can make a solution more concentrated by adding more __________.

a)
solute
b)
solvent
c)
water
d)

solution

27.

Avery is conducting a science experiment. When water is added to a solution it is called a ______________

a)

dilution

b)

concentration

c)

heterogeneous solution

d)

dissociation

28.

A solution that contains all of the solute that it can hold at a given temperature.

a)

unsaturated solution

b)
saturated solution
c)

homogeneous solution

d)
diluted solution
29.
A solution is a kind of ________. 
a)
mixture 
b)
compound 
c)
element 
d)
stuff 
30.

What happens to the concentration of a solution when more solvent (water) is added?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It remains the same

d)

It doubles

31.

Which factor does NOT affect the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in an aqueous solution?

a)

Temperature

b)

Surface area

c)

Agitation

d)

Color of the solute

32.

If you increase the temperature of a solution, what generally happens to the rate of dissolution of a solid solute?

a)

It decreases

b)

It increases

c)

It remains the same

d)

It doubles

33.

How does increasing the surface area of a solid solute affect its rate of dissolution?

a)

It increases the rate

b)

It decreases the rate

34.

What is the effect of stirring (agitation) on the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in an aqueous solution?

a)

It decreases the rate

b)

It increases the rate

35.

Which of the following is an example of a solvent in an aqueous solution?

a)

Sugar

b)

Water

c)

Salt

d)

Sand

36.

What is the process of reducing the concentration of a solute in a solution called?

a)

Saturation

b)

Dilution

c)

Evaporation

d)

Precipitation

37.

Which of the following best describes an aqueous solution?

a)

A solution where water is the solute

b)

A solution where water is the solvent

c)

A solution with no water

d)

A solution with only solid components

38.

If a solid solute is broken into smaller pieces, how does this affect its dissolution rate?

a)

It decreases the rate

b)

It increases the rate

39.

How does temperature generally affect the solubility of a solid solute in water?

a)

Solubility decreases with increasing temperature

b)

Solubility increases with increasing temperature

40.

Which of the following actions would decrease the concentration of a solution?

a)

Adding more solute

b)

Adding more solvent

41.

This chart shows how far a car traveled during different sections of a road trip.

What is the average speed of this car for this entire trip?

(pay attention to your units!)

a)

25 mph

b)

0.41 mph

c)

26.5 mph

d)

30 mph

42.

A windup toy walks for 25 seconds over 2 meters.

What is the average speed of the toy car?

a)

12.5 m/s

b)

50 m/s

c)

0.08 m/s

d)

27 m/s

43.

What is the average speed of the object during segment A?

a)

15 km/hr

b)

0 km/hr

c)

60 km/hr

d)

2.7 km/hr

44.

What is the average speed of the object during segment B?

a)

15 km/hr

b)

0 km/hr

c)

60 km/hr

d)

2 km/hr

45.

What is the average speed of the object during segment C?

a)

5 km/hr

b)

0 km/hr

c)

60 km/hr

d)

120 km/hr

46.

What is the average speed of the object during segment D?

a)

4 km/hr

b)

0 km/hr

c)

60 km/hr

d)

40 km/hr

47.

What is the average velocity of the object over this entire trip?

a)

28.75 km/hr

b)

zero

c)

24 km/hr

d)

-24 km/hr

48.

What is the average speed of the object over this entire trip?

a)

28.75 km/hr

b)

zero

c)

24 km/hr

d)

-24 km/hr

49.

During which segment was the object moving the fastest?

a)

segment A

b)

segment B

c)

segment C

d)

segment D

50.

During which segment was the object moving the slowest?

a)

segment A

b)

segment B

c)

segment C

d)

segment D

51.

During which segment was the object not moving at all?

a)

segment A

b)

segment B

c)

segment C

d)

segment D

52.

Velocity is a measure of _____ and _____.

a)

force

b)

speed

c)

acceleration

d)

direction

53.

Speed or Velocity:

An airplane travels north at 890 km/h.

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

54.

Speed or Velocity:

A man walks east with his dog at 1.42 m/s.

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

55.

Speed or Velocity:

A horse ran 27 km/h to win the race.

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

56.

Speed or Velocity:

A train travels at 160 km/h.

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

57.

A train travels 100 km south in 2 hours.

Which of the following accurately describes it's velocity?

a)

50 km/hr

b)

200 km/hr

c)

50 km/hr south

d)

200 km/hr south

58.

True or False:

The velocity of an object changes if the direction of motion changes.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

True or False:

The velocity of an object is zero if the displacement is zero.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

True or False:

Velocity is the same as direction.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Two runners are running a race. Which of the statements are true about these runners according to the graph?

a)

The runners began the race at different times.

b)

The runners took the same time to finish the race.

c)

The runners ran the race on different tracks.

d)

The runners returned to the starting point at the end of the race.

e)

One runner stopped in the middle of the race.

62.

Jerry walked from home to school, then from the school to the park. What is his total displacement?

a)

2 km

b)

5 km

c)

8 km

d)

10 km

63.

Sara walks from Point A to Point B. Which is true?

a)
Distance and displacement are EQUAL
b)
Distance is less than displacement
c)

Distance is greater than displacement

64.

Sara walks from Point A to Point B then to Point C. Which is true?

a)
Distance and displacement are EQUAL
b)

Distance is greater than displacement

c)

Distance is less than displacement

65.

Two people walk across a parking lot. Their paths are shown in the image. Who had a larger displacement?

a)

Person A

b)

Person B

c)

They both had the same displacement.

66.

Two people walk across a parking lot. Their paths are shown in the image. Who traveled a shorter distance?

a)

Person A

b)

Person B

c)

They both had the same distance.

67.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

68.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

69.
What is this graph showing?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration (speeding up)
c)
Deceleration (slowing down)
d)
No motion
70.
What does this graph represent?
a)

constant speed moving away from the reference point

(the dotted line shows a faster speed)

b)

both lines shows increasing speed

(the dotted line is speeding up faster)

71.

Newton's first law is also called the Law of ...

a)

Friction

b)

Inertia

c)

Unbalanced forces

d)

Newtons

72.
An object in motion tends to stay in motion unless an ___ force acts on it.
a)
unbalanced
b)
balanced
73.

Newton's first law applies

a)

to both moving and nonmoving objects

b)

only to moving objects

c)

only to objects that are not moving

74.
Because of inertia, a resting object will remain at ________.
a)
rest
b)
a constant speed
c)
school
d)
inertia 
75.
What kind(s) of objects have inertia?
a)
all objects with mass
b)
only objects at rest
c)
only objects in motion
d)
only objects whose motion is being changed
76.
Why is the net force 0 in the image?
a)
Because the elephants are the same size
b)
Because they are both pulling the same amount of force in opposite directions
c)
Because they are elephants
d)
Because they are pulling away from each other.
77.
Which one is balanced?
a)
top
b)
bottom
c)
both
78.
What is the net force?
a)
5 N
b)
45 N to the left
c)
5 N to the right
d)
45 N to the right
79.
Which type of force(s) will cause a change in an object's motion?
a)
gravity
b)
zero net force
c)
balanced forces
d)
unbalanced forces
80.

A bowling ball is rolled across the parking lot. Which statement about it is true?

a)

the bowling ball will only stop if it strikes something

b)

the bowling ball will never stop

c)

the bowling ball will eventually stop because of friction

d)

the bowling ball will eventually stop because of inertia

81.

What occurs when thermal equilibrium is reached within a system?

a)

The system cools down rapidly.

b)

Heat transfer stops completely.

c)

All substances within the system have the same temperature.

d)

Thermal energy flows in the opposite direction.

82.

If you heat one end of a metal rod, how does the thermal energy move through the rod to reach thermal equilibrium?

a)

Through radiation only.

b)

Through convection only.

c)

Through conduction only.

d)

Through a combination of conduction and convection.

83.

What term describes the transfer of thermal energy from warmer objects to cooler objects when they come into contact?

a)

Conduction

b)

Radiation

c)

Convection

d)

Insulation

84.

If you place a hot cup of coffee on a cold kitchen counter, which process allows the coffee to cool down as it transfers heat to the counter?

a)

Conduction

b)

Radiation

c)

Convection

d)

Insulation

85.

Radiators are heading devices that are commonly found in older homes. When water in the radiator is heated, the surrounding air is also heated. In a closed room with a hot radiator, how does the thermal energy move to reach equilibrium within the room?

a)

Through conduction

b)

Through radiation

c)

Through convection

d)

Through insulation

86.

In a well-insulated house on a hot summer day, what happens to the thermal energy inside the house?

a)

It escapes to the outside.

b)

It stays in the same place without moving.

c)

It moves from cooler rooms to warmer rooms.

d)

It moves from warmer rooms to cooler rooms until equilibrium is reached.

87.

When you place an ice cube in a glass of warm water, how does the thermal energy transfer occur to reach thermal equilibrium?

a)

Through conduction only.

b)

Through convection only.

c)

Through radiation only.

d)

Through a combination of conduction and convection.

88.

In a house, what is the purpose of insulation in terms of thermal energy transfer?

a)

To promote rapid heat loss.

b)

To enhance radiation.

c)

To minimize heat transfer.

d)

To encourage conduction.

89.

If you added a can of Coke (20oC) to a fridge (5oC), at what temperature would heat stop moving?

a)

when the coke is at 10 degrees and the fridge is at 5 degrees.

b)

When the coke is at at 6 degrees and the fridge is at 6 degrees

c)

When the coke is at at 5 degrees and the fridge is at 15 degrees

d)

When the coke is at at 20 degrees and the fridge is at 5 degrees

90.

If you added ice (0oC) to a glass of water (15oC) how would the heat move between the ice & water?

a)

from the ice to the water

b)

from the water to the ice

91.

Two objects have different temperatures. Object A has a temperature of 42 degrees and Object B is 37 degrees. Which direction should the energy transfer between Objects A and B?

a)

From Object A to Object B

b)

From Object B to Object A

c)

Energy will not transfer

d)

Energy will transfer both directions

92.

The kinetic energy of particles affects how warm an object feels by:

a)

Increasing the temperature as kinetic energy increases.

b)

Decreasing the temperature as kinetic energy increases.

c)

Having no effect on the temperature.

d)

Only affecting the temperature at absolute zero.

93.

The temperature of an object is a measure of:

a)

the amount of heat energy in the object

b)

the speed of the particles in the object

c)

the potential energy of the object

d)

the kinetic energy of the particles in the object

94.

Which temperature scale uses 'kelvins' as its unit?

a)

Celsius

b)

Fahrenheit

c)

Kelvin

d)

Rankine

95.

Fill in the blank: On the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales, whole units are called _______.

a)

degrees

b)

units

c)

points

d)

marks

96.

The thermal energy of an object is:

a)

the total kinetic energy of its particles

b)

the total potential energy of its particles

c)

the sum of its kinetic and potential energy

d)

the energy required to change its temperature

97.

The thermal energy of an object increases if the temperature of the object rises.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Fill in the blank: Thermal energy also depends on the total amount of _______ in the object.

a)

mass

b)

volume

c)

temperature

d)

pressure

99.

The thermal energy of a tank of compressed air depends on:

a)

the volume of the tank.

b)

the pressure of the air.

c)

the temperature of the air.

d)

the type of gas used.

100.

Thermal expansion is the tendency of matter to:

a)

contract when heated

b)

expand when heated

c)

remain the same when heated

d)

change color when heated

101.

When a cold basketball is brought into a warm gym, it might seem 'flat' and not bounce well on the floor. What causes this change?

a)

The air inside the basketball contracts in the cold, reducing pressure.

b)

The air inside the basketball expands in the cold, increasing pressure.

c)

The material of the basketball becomes more elastic in the cold.

d)

The material of the basketball becomes less elastic in the cold.

102.

Liquid thermometers work on the principle of thermal expansion. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Fill in the blank: A trapped liquid gains or loses thermal energy based on the ______ of the surrounding environment.

a)

the temperature

b)

the color

c)

the pressure

d)

the volume

104.

Imagine you’re an astronaut hovering above Earth, observing how its 23.5-degree tilt

affects our planet. Which of the following statements is true about Earth's tilt and its

orbit around the Sun?

a)

A. The Earth's tilt is responsible for the different phases of the Moon.

b)

B. The Earth's tilt causes certain areas to experience more daylight during each season.

c)

C. The Earth's tilt causes the planet's surface to heat evenly all year round.

d)

D. The Earth's tilt has no effect on the lengths of days and nights.

105.

2. A student creates a model of Earth using a globe with a light source representing the sun.

When modeling summer in Australia, which is in the southern hemisphere.

Which direction should Earth's axis tilt relative to the

light source?

a)

A. The Southern Hemisphere should tilt away from the light

b)

B. The axis should point directly at the light

c)

C. The axis should be vertical with no tilt

d)

D. The Southern Hemisphere should tilt toward the light

106.

3. Students are using a model to understand seasonal changes. In a model using a lamp

and globe, how should they move the globe to show one complete year?

a)

A. Spin it in place while keeping the axis vertical

b)

B. Move it around the lamp while keeping the axis pointed in the same direction

c)

C. Rotate it while changing the tilt angle

d)

D. Move it closer to and farther from the lamp

107.

4. Given the list of facts about Earth's movement and orientation.

Which three (3) facts from the list, when combined, provide the clearest explanation for why we

experience seasons on Earth?

(choose 3 answers)

a)

1, 3, 4

b)

2, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 4

d)

3, 5, 6

108.

Using this model, explain why summer occurs in the Northern Hemisphere when Earth is in Position B.

a)

Earth is closest to the Sun at Position B

b)

Earth's tilt causes the Northern Hemisphere to receive more direct sunlight at Position B

c)

The Sun produces more energy when Earth is at Position B

d)

Earth moves slower in its orbit at Position B

109.

Why does the area around the equator stay the same temperature all year?

a)

The equator rotates slower than the poles.

b)

The equator remains the same distance from the sun.

c)

The equator always receives direct sunlight.

d)

The equator has 18 hour days.

110.

What season is it at position 3 in the northern hemisphere?

a)

Summer

b)

Fall

c)

Winter

d)

Spring

111.
One rotation of Earth is equal to
a)
a day.
b)
a year.
112.
Why do globes lean sideways?
a)
To allow them to spin easier.
b)
To demonstrate the tilt of Earth's axis.
c)
To demonstrate the effects of gravity.
d)
To demonstrate day and night.
113.
Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?
a)
Sun
b)
Saturn
c)
Moon 
d)
Venus
114.

Wha type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)

full moon tide

b)

new moon tide

c)

neap tide

d)

spring tide

115.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
116.
Tides are caused by
a)
strong winds that blow over ocean waters.
b)
the interaction of Earth, the moon and the sun.
c)
the shifting of the plates on the ocean floor.
d)
variations in the salinity of ocean water
117.
What causes tides?
a)
gravity
b)
wind
c)
spring
d)
neap
118.
If tides alternate from high to low and there are two of each type of tide a day, about how many hours will generally be between each different tide?
a)
2 hours
b)
6 hours
c)
12 hours
d)
24 hours
119.
How many low tides and high tides happen in a day?
a)
1 low tide, 1 high tide
b)
4 low tides, 4 high tides
c)
3 low tides, 3 high tides
d)
2 low tides, 2 high tides
120.
The bulge of water on the side of the Earth closest to the moon produces ___________.
a)
high tide
b)
low tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
121.

What is the tide that occurs during a first quarter and a third quarter moon?

a)

neap tide

b)

low tide

c)

spring tide

d)

high tide

122.

Neap tides are the ________ tides.

a)

strongest

b)

weakest

123.

What is the tide that occurs during a full moon and a new moon.

a)

spring tide

b)

low tide

c)

high tide

d)

neap tide

124.

What is the rise and fall of the level of the water in the ocean?

a)

tides

b)

waves

c)

tsunamis

d)

hurricanes

125.

During which if these moon phases are we going to see the strongest tide?

a)

full moon

b)

3rd quarter

c)

waxing crescent

d)

waning gibbous

126.

The moon is mainly responsible for the tides on Earth because it is _________ _________.

a)

much closer

b)

far away

c)

behind the sun

127.

The tidal bulge follows the movement of the _____.

a)

moon

b)

sun

c)

Earth

d)

ocean

128.

The _____ _____ is the difference between the levels of ocean water at high tides and low tides. That range depends on the sun-Earth-moon;s position.

a)

ocean waves

b)

mountain level

c)

sea level

d)

tidal range

129.

Which of the following images shows revolution or orbiting?

a)
b)
c)
d)
130.

Which direction does the moon revolve around Earth?

a)

Clockwise

b)

Counterclockwise