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Chapter 15 — Ankle and Lower Leg Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The ankle joint or talocrural joint is formed by which bones? Select all that apply. (3)

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Talus

d)

Calcaneus

2.

The joint between the talus and calcaneus is called the ______ joint and allows ______ and ______.

a)

subtalar; inversion and eversion

b)

talocrural; dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

c)

tarsometatarsal; pronation and supination

d)

calcaneocuboid; flexion and extension

3.

What structure holds the tibia and fibula together?

a)

Interosseous membrane (syndesmosis)

b)

Deltoid ligament

c)

Plantar fascia

d)

Achilles tendon

4.

The stability of the medial aspect of the ankle comes from the ______ ligament.

a)

Deltoid ligament

b)

Anterior talofibular ligament

c)

Calcaneofibular ligament

d)

Spring (plantar calcaneonavicular) ligament

5.

What is present that makes it more difficult to evert the ankle joint?

a)

The lateral malleolus acts as a bony block

b)

The Achilles tendon is shorter laterally

c)

The anterior talofibular ligament is stronger than the deltoid

d)

The talus is wider posteriorly

6.

Which lateral ligaments of the ankle are more susceptible to injury? Select all that apply. (3)

a)

Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)

b)

Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)

c)

Posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL)

d)

Deltoid ligament

e)

Spring (plantar calcaneonavicular) ligament

7.

Which muscles primarily produce dorsiflexion at the ankle? Select all that apply.

a)

Tibialis anterior

b)

Extensor hallucis longus

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Extensor digitorum longus

8.

Which muscles primarily produce plantarflexion at the ankle? Select all that apply.

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Soleus

c)

Tibialis anterior

d)

Peroneus (fibularis) longus

9.

Which muscles primarily produce inversion of the foot? Select all that apply.

a)

Tibialis posterior

b)

Tibialis anterior

c)

Peroneus (fibularis) brevis

d)

Flexor hallucis longus

10.

Which muscles primarily produce eversion of the foot? Select all that apply.

a)

Peroneus (fibularis) longus

b)

Peroneus (fibularis) brevis

c)

Tibialis posterior

d)

Peroneus (fibularis) tertius

11.

Select the keys to preventing ankle injuries. Choose all that apply.

a)

Proper footwear and playing surface maintenance

b)

Strengthening and neuromuscular/proprioceptive training

c)

Appropriate warm-up and flexibility work

d)

Prophylactic taping or bracing when indicated

e)

Avoid any conditioning to prevent fatigue

12.

List all the things you would ask in the history section of an ankle assessment. Select all that apply.

a)

Mechanism of injury

b)

History of previous ankle injuries

c)

Presence of any sounds (snap/pop) at the time of injury

d)

what type of pain are you having

13.

List 3 things you are looking for in an ankle assessment. Select all that apply.

a)

Swelling and discoloration

b)

Deformity or asymmetry

c)

Range of motion limitations

d)

skin color changes

14.

What is the primary purpose of palpation during an injury evaluation?

a)

To locate areas of point tenderness and identify involved structures

b)

To increase blood flow to speed healing

c)

To measure joint angles precisely

d)

To distract the patient from pain

15.

There is a progression of palpating an ankle injury. Which sequence best represents correct progression?

a)

Begin away from the painful area, compare bilaterally, then move systematically to bony landmarks and soft tissues

b)

Start directly on the point of maximal pain, then stop if tenderness is present

c)

Palpate only the tendons, then the muscles, avoid bones

d)

Move randomly between structures to prevent guarding

16.

If a fracture is suspected, which test may be used to help in the determination?

a)

Bump (percussion) test

b)

Anterior drawer test

c)

Thompson test

d)

Talocrural compression only

17.

The anterior drawer test is used to check the integrity of which ligament?

a)

Anterior talofibular ligament

b)

Deltoid ligament

c)

Calcaneofibular ligament

d)

Posterior talofibular ligament

18.

What structure is primarily assessed by the talar tilt test?

a)

Calcaneofibular ligament

b)

Anterior cruciate ligament

c)

Spring ligament

d)

Peroneus longus tendon

19.

Excessive inversion while the ankle is plantar flexed indicates a sprain of which ligament?

a)

Anterior talofibular ligament

b)

Deltoid ligament

c)

Calcaneofibular ligament

d)

Posterior talofibular ligament

20.

List 3 things that could be included in the functional tests of the ankle.

a)

Hopping on the affected ankle

b)

Jogging in a straight line

c)

Running a figure-eight pattern

d)

Lateral shuffle cuts

e)

Passive range-of-motion only

21.

An _____ sprain is the most common and affects the lateral ligaments. (1)

a)

Inversion

b)

Eversion

c)

High ankle (syndesmotic)

d)

Chronic

22.

The _____ ligament is the weakest of the lateral ligaments.

a)

Anterior talofibular ligament

b)

Calcaneofibular ligament

c)

Posterior talofibular ligament

d)

Deltoid ligament

23.

Inversion and plantar flexion is the most common MOI for an ankle sprain. T or F (1)

a)

True

b)

False

24.

_____ sprains are less common.

a)

Inversion

b)

Eversion

c)

High ankle (syndesmotic)

d)

metatarsal

25.

An _____ fracture may occur to the _____ ligament just before it tears.

a)

Avulsion/ deltoid

b)

Stress/ calcaneofibular

c)

Comminuted/ anterior tibiofibular

d)

Spiral /posterior talofibular

26.

What three ligaments are involved in a high ankle sprain?

a)

Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament

b)

Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament

c)

Interosseous membrane

d)

Deltoid ligament

e)

Anterior talofibular ligament

27.

Ankle sprains are graded in 3 levels, what describes a Grade 1

a)

Mild stretching of ligaments with minimal swelling and no instability

b)

Partial ligament tear with moderate swelling and some instability

c)

Complete ligament rupture with severe swelling and marked instability

d)

Fracture without ligament involvement

28.

Ankle sprains are graded in 3 levels, Grade 2 is described as........

a)

Mild stretching of ligaments with minimal swelling and no instability

b)

Partial ligament tear with moderate pain, swelling, and some instability

c)

Complete ligament rupture with severe swelling and marked instability

d)

No soft-tissue damage; pain only with activity

29.

Ankle sprains are graded in 3 levels, explain Grade 3.

a)

Mild stretching of ligaments with minimal swelling and no instability

b)

Partial ligament tear with moderate pain, swelling, and some instability

c)

Complete ligament rupture with severe swelling, marked instability, and inability to bear weight

d)

Muscle strain without ligament damage

30.

Controlling _____ is the MOST important treatment in ankle sprains.

a)

Swelling

b)

Pain

c)

Loss of strength

d)

Muscle spasm

31.

The acronym PRICE stands for?

a)

Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

b)

Prevent, Rotate, Immobilize, Cool, Exercise

c)

Protective taping, Range, Ice, Calf stretch, Elevate

d)

Pressure, Reduce, Immobilize, Cold, Elevation

32.

Returning to full activity should consist of what functional activities?

a)

Progressive running (walk–jog–sprint)

b)

Cutting and agility drills

c)

Sport-specific practice at full speed

d)

Immediate competition without progression

e)

Passive stretching only

33.

An inversion sprain may cause a fracture to the _____ _____.

a)

Lateral malleolus

b)

Medial malleolus

c)

Navicular bone

d)

Talar dome

34.

Fractures may occur to the _____ _____ when the foot is everted and the _____ ligament is also affected.

a)

Medial malleolus and deltoid ligament

b)

Lateral malleolus and anterior talofibular ligament

c)

Navicular and spring ligament

d)

Calcaneus and plantar fascia

35.

With avulsion injuries, it is usually the fracture that prolongs the healing time rather than the ligaments. T or F

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Explain the care of an ankle fracture. (3)

a)

Immobilize, non–weight bearing, and immediate medical referral

b)

Rest only and return to play when pain subsides

c)

Apply heat and deep massage the first day

d)

Continue activity with a supportive tape job

37.

_____ of the surrounding tendons of the ankle are common in athletes.

a)

Tendinitis/tendonosis

b)

Ruptures

c)

Ossifications

d)

Neoplasms

38.

Name the 3 common tendinitis sites of the ankle.

a)

Achilles tendon

b)

Peroneal tendons

c)

Posterior tibial tendon

d)

Deltoid ligament

e)

Anterior cruciate ligament

39.

What is the appropriate care for tendinitis/tendinosis?

a)

Activity modification and relative rest

b)

Ice, compression, and anti-inflammatory measures

c)

Stretching and progressive strengthening of involved tendon

d)

Immediate maximal plyometrics

e)

Ignore pain and continue full sport

40.

Name 3 things from the History portion of the lower body assessment.

a)

Mechanism of injury and onset

b)

Previous injuries and treatments

c)

Location and nature of pain

d)

Palpation findings

e)

Special test results

41.

Name 3 things from the observation phase of a lower body evaluation.

a)

Gait pattern and weight bearing

b)

Swelling, bruising, and deformity

c)

Range-of-motion quality during movement

d)

Past medical history

e)

X‑ray interpretation

42.

Name 3 things you are palpating for in a lower leg evaluation.

a)

Point tenderness over bony landmarks

b)

Warmth and crepitus along tendons

c)

Swelling and tissue texture changes

d)

Mechanism of injury description

e)

Balance testing

43.

Name 3 special test you would perform in a lower leg evaluation.

a)

Anterior drawer and talar tilt

b)

Squeeze test for syndesmosis

c)

Thompson test for Achilles

d)

Color vision screening

e)

Blood pressure measurement

44.

The _____ is the most commonly fractured long bone in the human body.

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Femur

d)

Humerus

45.

What are the possible mechanisms of injury for lower leg fractures?

a)

Direct blow

b)

Torsional or rotational force

c)

Repetitive microtrauma only

d)

Thermal injury

46.

What are the signs of injury to a tibial fracture? (1)

a)

Focal bony tenderness with obvious deformity

b)

Painless swelling only

c)

Improved function with activity

d)

Minimal discomfort without tenderness

47.

What are the signs of injury to a fibular fracture? (1)

a)

Lateral lower-leg pain with point tenderness

b)

inability to walk

c)

increased temperature

d)

Generalized thigh swelling

48.

What is the mechanism of injury for a lower leg stress fracture? (1)

a)

Repetitive loading and overuse

b)

Single high-energy impact

c)

change of surface

d)

improper shoes

49.

List the signs of injury for a lower leg stress fracture.

a)

Localized pain that increases with activity and decreases with rest

b)

Point tenderness along the bone

c)

Pain with hopping or percussion

d)

Immediate deformity visible at rest

e)

Complete loss of proprioception

50.

What is the general care for a lower leg stress fracture?

a)

Relative rest and activity modification

b)

Protected weight bearing as needed and medical evaluation

c)

Alternate heat and Ice

d)

tape and participate

51.

Define shin splints. (1)

a)

Pain along the tibia caused by overuse of the lower leg muscles and stress to the bone/periosteum

b)

pain caused from the pulling away of muscle

c)

Inflammation the shin muscles

d)

Bruising of the anterior tibialis due to a blunt blow

52.

List 2 signs/symptoms of shin splints.

a)

Diffuse pain along the medial tibia during or after activity

b)

Localized tenderness at the lateral malleolus only

c)

Tightness in the lower leg muscles

d)

Increased pain with running or jumping

e)

Visible deformity of the ankle joint

53.

What is the recommended care for shin splints?

a)

Relative rest and modification of training

b)

Ice and anti‑inflammatory measures after activity

c)

Immediate surgical fixation of the tibia

d)

Stretching and strengthening of lower leg and calf muscles

e)

Continue intense running without changes

54.

Explain why the shin is vulnerable to shin contusions. (1)

a)

The anterior tibia has minimal soft‑tissue protection, making it susceptible to direct blows

b)

The shin is surrounded by thick muscle padding that absorbs impact

c)

The tibia is a flexible bone that bends on contact

d)

The shin receives increased blood flow that prevents bruising

55.

List the signs/symptoms of shin contusions and the care for it.

a)

Localized pain and swelling over the tibia after a direct blow

b)

Discoloration/bruising at the impact site

c)

Care includes ice, compression, elevation, and padding for protection

d)

Immediate fasciotomy for all contusions

e)

Complete immobilization for six months

56.

What is compartment syndrome? (1)

a)

A dangerous increase in pressure within a closed muscle compartment that compromises circulation and nerve function

b)

A minor bruise to the calf muscles that heals on its own

c)

A dislocation of the ankle joint from twisting

d)

An infection of the lower leg bones

57.

List the 3 types of compartment syndrome. (3)

a)

Acute compartment syndrome

b)

Acute exertional compartment syndrome

c)

Chronic (exertional) compartment syndrome

d)

Congenital compartment syndrome

e)

Postural compartment syndrome

58.

List 3 signs/symptoms of compartment syndrome. (3)

a)

Severe, progressive pain out of proportion to the injury

b)

Tight, firm compartment with increased pressure

c)

Paresthesia or numbness/tingling in the affected limb

d)

Brisk capillary refill and bounding pulses throughout

e)

Immediate relief with continued exercise

59.

Explain the care for compartment syndrome. (2)

a)

For acute cases, immediate medical referral and possible fasciotomy; for chronic cases, activity modification and monitoring

b)

Apply heat and deep massage to increase compartment pressure

c)

Ignore symptoms and continue training to strengthen the area

d)

Treat all cases only with ankle bracing

60.

The (a)   tendon is the largest tendon in the body. (1)

61.

Inflammation of the achilles is called (a)   . (1)

62.

Where is the pain noticed most in achilles tendinitis? (1)

a)

At the back of the heel along the Achilles tendon, especially just above its insertion

b)

On the front of the shin over the tibia

c)

On the lateral side of the knee joint

d)

Under the arch of the foot

63.

What is the treatment for achilles tendonitis? (3)

a)

Relative rest and activity modification

b)

Ice and anti‑inflammatory measures

c)

Gentle stretching and eccentric strengthening of the calf/Achilles

d)

Immediate surgical repair for all cases

e)

High‑impact running daily to increase tolerance

64.

What causes an achilles tendon rupture? (1)

a)

A sudden, forceful plantar flexion or push‑off often with degenerative tendon changes

b)

Gradual stretching during yoga practice

c)

Low‑impact walking on soft surfaces

d)

Cold weather alone without activity

65.

List the signs/symptoms of an achilles tendon rupture and what is the care given?

a)

Sudden sharp pain and a popping sensation in the back of the ankle

b)

Loss of plantar flexion strength and difficulty walking

c)

Palpable gap in the tendon

d)

Care involves urgent medical referral; immobilization and surgical repair are commonly indicated

e)

Self‑massage only with no follow‑up