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Worksheets

Final Exam Review

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not one of the four pillars of health?

a)

Physical

b)

Emotional

c)

Economic

d)

Social

2.

Select all aspects of physical health that are within someone’s control.

a)

Exercise and diet choices

b)

Diet and sleep schedule

c)

Sleep schedule and diseases

d)

Diseases and exercise habits

3.

What is the most correct description of a person’s worldview?

a)

A person’s confidence in their abilities and traits

b)

How they interpret what is happening around them

c)

The characteristics a person identifies with

d)

What a person believes is how others see them

4.

Lowering a person’s sense of self-efficacy is best described as which type of social health effect?

a)

Neutral effect on communication

b)

Negative influence on relationships

c)

Beneficial effect on identity

d)

Positive influence on relationships

5.

Building trust and honesty in peers primarily leads to which outcome for social health?

a)

Lower willingness to communicate

b)

Reduced self-image

c)

Stronger relationship quality

d)

Negative group dynamics

6.

The health continuum suggests that health is best understood as which idea?

a)

A fixed state with set categories

b)

A social label unrelated to biology

c)

A dynamic range that shifts over time

d)

A genetic trait independent of behavior

7.

Mental health has four major aspects; which of the following is not one of them?

a)

Resting metabolic rate

b)

How information is interpreted

c)

Effective problem solving

d)

Ability to make decisions

8.

Expressing oneself is mostly associated with which pillar of health?

a)

Physical health domain

b)

Emotional health domain

c)

Mental health domain

d)

Social health domain

9.

Risk factors are aspects of a person’s life that ______ the chance of disease, injury, or decline in health.

a)

Do not change risk

b)

Increase the likelihood

c)

Decrease the likelihood

d)

Completely negate risk

10.

Select the two categories of risk factors.

a)

Economic and physical

b)

Genetic and financial

c)

Modifiable and non-modifiable

d)

Behavioral and emotional

11.

Which of the following is NOT a behavioral factor of health?

a)

Nutrition and food choices

b)

Genetics and inheritance

c)

Sexual activity decisions

d)

Sleep patterns and habits

12.

Supportive parents best represent what kind of protective factor for a child?

a)

Non-modifiable factor in family

b)

Genetic inheritance factor

c)

Modifiable factor in environment

d)

Economic status factor

13.

Homelessness is considered what kind of environmental factor?

a)

Economic policy factor

b)

Physical environment factor

c)

Social environment factor

d)

Media influence factor

14.

Culture and community are examples of which environmental factors?

a)

Emotional health factors

b)

Physical environmental factors

c)

Social environmental factors

d)

Risk category factors

15.

Having constant communication on social media can influence a person’s ________.

a)

Worldview and perspectives

b)

Economic health profile

c)

Critical thinking skills only

d)

Immune system function

16.

Which option lists only modifiable risk factors?

a)

Diet and physical activity

b)

Age and family history

c)

Sex and genetic traits

d)

Ethnicity and age

17.

Which option lists only non-modifiable risk factors?

a)

Diet and alcohol intake

b)

Sleep and stress management

c)

Age and genetic predisposition

d)

Exercise and screen time

18.

Which scenario best demonstrates the interaction between pillars of health?

a)

Physical fitness unrelated to mental focus

b)

Economic status never affects relationships

c)

Poor sleep causing mood changes and conflicts

d)

Genetic traits fixed regardless of actions

19.

Which change would most likely reduce a modifiable health risk?

a)

Altering family medical history

b)

Reducing chronological age

c)

Changing biological sex traits

d)

Improving daily nutrition choices

20.

Which statement best distinguishes protective factors from risk factors?

a)

Protective factors are always genetic only

b)

Protective factors decrease harm likelihood

c)

Both increase harm likelihood equally

d)

Risk factors guarantee negative outcomes

21.

Put the steps of blood flow through your heart in order, 1 to 4: ___ Blood leaves the left ventricle and goes to the rest of the body ___ Blood enters the right ventricle and then is pumped out to the lungs ___ Blood returns from the body to the right atrium ___ Blood enters the left atrium from the lungs.

a)

1- Blood returns to right atrium; 2- Blood enters right ventricle; 3- Blood enters left atrium; 4- Blood leaves left ventricle

b)

1- Blood leaves left ventricle; 2- Blood enters left atrium; 3- Blood returns to right atrium; 4- Blood enters right ventricle

c)

1- Blood enters left atrium; 2- Blood returns to right atrium; 3- Blood leaves left ventricle; 4- Blood enters right ventricle

d)

1- Blood enters right ventricle; 2- Blood returns to right atrium; 3- Blood leaves left ventricle; 4- Blood enters left atrium

22.

Label the frontal, occipital, parietal, and temporal lobes of the brain on the diagram.

a)

Frontal back; parietal front; temporal top; occipital side

b)

Frontal top; parietal back; temporal front; occipital side

c)

Frontal front; parietal top; temporal side; occipital back

d)

Frontal side; parietal back; temporal top; occipital front

23.

Match the type of muscle fiber with the correct characteristics: a. Skeletal muscle:__ b. Smooth muscle:__ c. Cardiac muscle:__ 1. Involuntary, Striated 2. Voluntary, Striated 3. Involuntary, Non-Striated

a)

a-3, b-1, c-2

b)

a-1, b-2, c-3

c)

a-2, b-1, c-3

d)

a-2, b-3, c-1

24.

Asthma attacks can occur for a variety of reasons, constricting the airway for extended periods of time. Give one reason someone might have an asthma attack, and how it impacts a person’s athletic performance.

a)

Extra oxygen intake; increases endurance and speed

b)

Muscle strain; strengthens airway and stamina

c)

Trigger like cold air; reduces endurance and speed

d)

High blood sugar; improves lung elasticity

25.

The frontal lobe is responsible for which process?

a)

Sight

b)

Hearing

c)

Critical thinking

d)

Memories

26.

When breathing in, the diaphragm (Contracts/Relaxes) and creates a vacuum that (Pushes/Pulls) the air into your lungs.

a)

Relaxes and Pushes

b)

Relaxes and Pulls

c)

Contracts and Pushes

d)

Contracts and Pulls

27.

Your nervous system has 2 main divisions in your body. What are they called?

a)

Peripheral & Autonomic

b)

Central & Peripheral

c)

Somatic & Peripheral

d)

Autonomic & Central

28.

Many professionals stressed that having purpose, staying social, and living with hope are just as important as medicine when dealing with dementia. Why do these non-medical factors matter so much for people living with dementia?

a)

They support mood and function, slowing decline

b)

They directly regrow lost brain neurons

c)

They replace need for prescribed medications

d)

They cure dementia with daily routines

29.

Match the component of blood with its purpose: a. Red Blood Cell:__ b. White Blood Cell:__ c. Platelets:__ d. Plasma:__ 1. Carries waste products 2. Carries Oxygen 3. Helps the body fight infection 4. Key role in blood clotting

a)

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

b)

a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2

c)

a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

d)

a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3

30.

What is the correct order for air to travel through to enter the lungs? a. Trachea ___ b. Nose ___ c. Bronchi ___ d. Larynx ___

a)

d, b, a, c

b)

b, a, d, c

c)

d, a, b, c

d)

b, d, a, c

31.

Asthma attacks can not be triggered by which of the following?

a)

Certain smells

b)

Stress

c)

Cold Air

d)

Exercise

32.

Next to the organ, put whether they perform mechanical (M), chemical digestion (C), or both (B): a. Mouth ____ b. Esophagus ____ c. Stomach ____ d. Small Intestine ____ e. Large Intestine ____

a)

a-B, b-C, c-C, d-M, e-B

b)

a-C, b-B, c-M, d-B, e-C

c)

a-M, b-C, c-B, d-B, e-C

d)

a-B, b-M, c-B, d-C, e-M

33.

Smoking is hazardous to both your respiratory and circulatory systems. Give one example of how smoking can impact the health of those body systems.

a)

Damages airways and vessels, reducing oxygen delivery

b)

Strengthens lung tissues and improves blood oxygen

c)

Increases cilia activity and artery flexibility

d)

Expands alveoli and widens coronary arteries

34.

Muscles attach to bones through which tissue?

a)

Agonists

b)

Ligaments

c)

Tendon

d)

Antagonists

35.

Which of the following traits is NOT associated with mental health?

a)

Problem solving

b)

Interpreting observations

c)

Expressing feelings

d)

Critical thinking

36.

Match the terms with their correct definition: Self-Esteem: ___ Self-Identity: ___ Self-Image: ___ 1. Characteristics/qualities that distinguish an individual 2. The mental picture of oneself, driven by interactions 3. The confidence in one’s own worth and abilities

a)

Esteem-3, Identity-2, Image-1

b)

Esteem-1, Identity-2, Image-3

c)

Esteem-2, Identity-3, Image-1

d)

Esteem-3, Identity-1, Image-2

37.

Which of the following characteristics are not associated with mental health?

a)

Critical thinking

b)

Expressing feelings

c)

Interpreting observations

d)

Problem solving

38.

Based on the described factors, which option best identifies a protective factor for a teenager’s mental health?

a)

A family history of conditions such as bipolar disorder.

b)

Increased time spent on social media platforms

c)

Family support of positive thought patterns.

d)

Frequent exposure to stressful childhood events

39.

Mental and emotional health can be described as being on a continuum. What does that mean, and what are some actions that can positively impact a person’s mental health state?

a)

It fluctuates randomly; actions include ignoring feelings

b)

It is fixed after childhood; actions include medication only

c)

It ranges from illness to wellness; actions include sleep, support, coping

d)

It is identical for everyone; actions include strict routines

40.

Managing your emotions has 3 steps. Place them in the correct order: a. Expressing Your Feelings b. Identifying Your Feelings c. Accepting Your Feelings

a)

a, b, c

b)

b, c, a

c)

c, b, a

d)

b, a, c

41.

Often, we struggle to differentiate our emotions. What is a potential reason for it?

a)

People use cognitive distortions to identify true emotions.

b)

You learn emotions from your parents during childhood.

c)

Overlapping emotions mask each other.

d)

People are easily overwhelmed by their surroundings.

42.

Self-identity has 5 major components. Select all that influence a person’s self-identity.

a)

Physical Identity

b)

Personality

c)

Cultural Identity

d)

Emotional Intelligence

e)

Self Esteem

43.

What is a cognitive distortion? In a complete sentence, explain why a person would use a cognitive distortion in their life.

a)

It is a temporary emotion that always improves behavior

b)

It is a conscious choice to lie to manipulate others

c)

It is an inaccurate thought pattern used to cope or simplify

d)

It is a brain disorder that stops decision making entirely

44.

Building self-esteem has 4 major components. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

a)

Knowing your strengths

b)

Accepting your feelings.

c)

Avoiding perfectionism

d)

Celebrating your accomplishments

45.

Vaccines help your body to produce what?

a)

Antigens

b)

Antibodies

c)

Red Blood Cells

d)

Platelets

46.

Below is the SIR Model for infection tracking. The arrow moving between S and I, what word would best describe it?

a)

Infected

b)

Recovery

c)

Spreading

d)

Transmission

47.

What does the SIR model stand for?

a)

S: Symptomatic; I: Ill; R: Rehabilitated

b)

S: Sick; I: Immune; R: Removed

c)

S: Susceptible; I: Infected; R: Recovered

d)

S: Suspected; I: Infectious; R: Resistant

48.

In complete sentences, explain 2 different locations that could be considered vectors for pathogens located on campus and behaviors we can employ to prevent the spread of these pathogens on campus.

a)

High-touch areas like doorknobs and locker rooms; clean hands, sanitize surfaces

b)

Library books only; never share sanitizer with classmates

c)

Isolated offices with no visitors; avoid cleaning to build immunity

d)

Outdoor open fields always sterile; skip handwashing after sports

49.

Bradley has mononucleosis and has to share water with a teammate because she left her bottle at home. Later, her teammate is feeling ill. What kind of transmission took place?

a)

Direct Transmission

b)

Vertical Transmission

c)

Indirect Transmission

d)

Horizontal Transmission

50.

Next to the term, mark whether it is a specific (s) or non-specific (n) response: Fever; Antibodies; White Blood Cells; Skin.

a)

Fever-n; Antibodies-n; WBC-s; Skin-s

b)

Fever-s; Antibodies-n; WBC-s; Skin-n

c)

Fever-n; Antibodies-s; WBC-s; Skin-n

d)

Fever-s; Antibodies-s; WBC-n; Skin-s

51.

Which of the following describes good behaviors that reduce the spread of infection?

a)

Coughing

b)

Vectors

c)

Respiratory etiquette

d)

Sneezing

52.

Vaccinations are added to a population. What general change occurs in the rate and severity of a potential infection spreading through that population?

a)

Rate stays constant and severity unchanged

b)

Rate drops and severity decreases broadly

c)

Rate fluctuates and severity becomes unpredictable

d)

Rate rises and severity increases widely

53.

Mark the following for either being a macronutrient (M) or a micronutrient (m): Protein; Minerals; Vitamins; Lipids.

a)

Protein-M; Minerals-m; Vitamins-m; Lipids-M

b)

Protein-m; Minerals-M; Vitamins-m; Lipids-m

c)

Protein-M; Minerals-M; Vitamins-m; Lipids-M

d)

Protein-m; Minerals-m; Vitamins-M; Lipids-m

54.

Amino acids are broken into essential and non-essential. Why are some labeled essential?

a)

They are needed for muscle growth

b)

They are required for all functions

c)

Your body can produce them

d)

Your body cannot produce them

55.

What is the most correct definition of what a diet is?

a)

The process of choosing foods for health and growth

b)

The food sources used to gain nutrients daily

c)

Eliminating excess nutrients that are harming you

d)

Restricting the calories you consume daily

56.

Which nutrient is considered inorganic?

a)

Proteins

b)

Vitamins

c)

Fats

d)

Minerals

57.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a balanced diet?

a)

Improved health and well-being

b)

A platform for mental and emotional health

c)

A caloric deficit to promote weight loss

d)

Disease prevention

58.

Match the macronutrient with its correct function: Carbohydrates; Proteins; Fats with 1. Long-term energy, 2. Short-term energy, 3. Major body functions.

a)

Carbs-2; Proteins-1; Fats-3

b)

Carbs-1; Proteins-2; Fats-3

c)

Carbs-2; Proteins-3; Fats-1

d)

Carbs-3; Proteins-1; Fats-2

59.

Which barrier is part of the body's first line of defense against pathogens?

a)

Skin and mucous membranes

b)

B cells producing antibodies

c)

Memory T cell activation

d)

Inflammatory cytokine storm

60.

Which statement best distinguishes specific from non-specific immune responses?

a)

Non-specific creates antigen-specific memory cells

b)

Specific tailors responses to particular antigens

c)

Non-specific requires prior exposure to be effective

d)

Specific targets any pathogen equally

61.

Which behavior most directly prevents respiratory infection transmission in crowded spaces?

a)

Taking high-dose vitamin supplements

b)

Exercising in enclosed gym spaces

c)

Covering coughs and wearing masks

d)

Sharing water bottles with friends

62.

A community increases childhood vaccination coverage from 60% to 95%. Which outcome is most likely?

a)

Same outbreaks with more severe cases

b)

More outbreaks with milder cases

c)

Fewer outbreaks with more severe cases

d)

Fewer outbreaks and milder cases

63.

Which combination correctly lists three macronutrients?

a)

Vitamins, minerals, water

b)

Carbohydrates, proteins, fats

c)

Amino acids, minerals, fiber

d)

Glucose, iron, vitamin C

64.

Which statement about micronutrients is most accurate?

a)

Synthesized by muscles during exercise

b)

Needed in large amounts for energy

c)

Provide short-term energy to cells

d)

Needed in small amounts for function

65.

Which meal best reflects a balanced diet for an active student?

a)

Grilled chicken, brown rice, mixed vegetables

b)

Protein shake, cookies, energy drink

c)

Bacon, cheese, processed snack chips

d)

White bread, butter, sugary lemonade

66.

Which scenario best illustrates why fad diets are often ineffective and sometimes harmful over time?

a)

Short balanced plan improves cholesterol

b)

Moderate plan includes fruits and vegetables

c)

Elimination plan restricts food groups severely

d)

Mediterranean plan emphasizes variety and balance

67.

Which statement correctly pairs each macronutrient with a primary role?

a)

Carbs hormones; proteins insulation; fats antibodies

b)

Carbs energy; proteins growth; fats energy storage

c)

Carbs storage; proteins antibodies; fats short energy

d)

Carbs enzymes; proteins energy; fats oxygen transport

68.

What is physical activity?

a)

Activities outside a person’s daily routine.

b)

Any unplanned exercise that a person has to overcome.

c)

Any action that uses energy.

d)

Activity that is planned for raising physical fitness.

69.

There are 3 key principles for physical improvement: Overload, Specificity, and Progression. Define each of these and explain which one is the most important for improving physical health.

a)

Overload is ignoring limits; specificity is broad focus; progression is skipping steps.

b)

Overload is doing less work; specificity is general training; progression is staying the same.

c)

Overload is resting more; specificity is random drills; progression is immediate jumps.

d)

Overload is adding stress; specificity is targeted training; progression is gradual increases.

70.

Which is not a key exercise component that helps create improvement over time?

a)

Duration

b)

Repetitions

c)

Mobility

d)

Intensity

71.

Which of the following is not a type of contraception?

a)

Barrier

b)

Faith-Based

c)

Hormonal

d)

Natural

72.

An Intrauterine Device (IUD) is known to be which type of contraceptive?

a)

Barrier

b)

Natural

c)

Hormonal

d)

Sterilization

73.

Contraceptive is often thought of as “one person’s problem”. What is the fallacy in this thinking, & how can you avoid potential unwanted pregnancies?

a)

It is only a medical issue; avoid by ignoring sex education.

b)

It is purely a moral issue; avoid by judging partners’ choices.

c)

It is a shared responsibility; avoid by communication and using contraception.

d)

It is inevitable; avoid by hoping for the best.

74.

The STI known as AIDS is transmitted by what kind of pathogen:

a)

Protists

b)

Fungus

c)

Bacteria

d)

Virus

75.

Which STI is the most commonly reported in college students in the US?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

HIV/AIDS

c)

Genital Herpes

d)

Gonorrhea

76.

What percentage of STIs are preventable?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

66%

77.

A lot of STIs are stigmatized negatively in social media and entertainment. How can this potentially impact a person’s choices regarding their sexual health?

a)

It encourages seeking medical care early.

b)

It reduces misinformation and myths entirely.

c)

It guarantees safer decision-making for everyone.

d)

It can discourage testing and honest communication.

78.

According to the material, what is the definition of health?

a)

State of complete physical, mental, emotional and social well-being

b)

Absence of disease only

c)

Ability to exercise regularly

d)

Having a healthy diet

79.

Which of the following is outside your control when it comes to physical health?

a)

Diet

b)

Sleep schedule

c)

Genetics

d)

Avoiding bad substances

80.

Which of the following best describes "Emotional Health" as emphasized in the material?

a)

How an individual expresses their thoughts and feelings

b)

How physically fit a person is

c)

How much money a person earns

d)

How many friends a person has

81.

A student wants to reduce their risk of illness. Which action would be considered addressing a modifiable risk factor?

a)

Exercising regularly

b)

Changing their age

c)

Altering their DNA

d)

Ignoring pre-existing conditions

82.

Which of the following is an example of how one type of health can negatively impact another?

a)

Mental health can hurt physical health by causing lack of motivation to exercise.

b)

Physical health can help mental health by improving mood.

c)

Social health can help physical health by encouraging group activities.

d)

Physical health can help social health by joining sports teams.

83.

Over time, some bacteria can become resistant to certain drugs.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

What are the two main forms of direct transmission?

a)

Direct Contact and Droplet Spread

b)

Vector and Airborne

c)

Indirect Contact and Airborne

d)

Food and Water

85.

Fill in the blank: Direct transmission occurs when a ______ travels from its origin to an individual.

a)

pathogen

b)

antibody

c)

vaccine

d)

enzyme

86.

Indirect transmission happens when pathogens are found in a ______ that passively holds them.

a)

separate source

b)

living host

c)

direct contact

d)

immune cell

87.

What is universally seen as the number 1 method of preventing the spread of communicable diseases?

a)

Hand washing

b)

Wearing sunglasses

c)

Eating spicy food

d)

Taking daily vitamins

88.

Match the following aspects of emotional health

a)

Identifying Feelings:

1.

Differentiating the specific emotions

b)

Accepting Feelings:

2.

Active acknowledgement of what is felt.

c)

Expressing Feelings:

3.

Expressing feelings for positive results

89.

A student feels pressured to be perfect on social media and gets discouraged by small mistakes. Which plan best applies the strategies shown to support healthier self-esteem?

a)

Limit comparisons to others online, set achievable goals instead of unrealistic standards, and note small wins each day

b)

Post more frequently to gain validation, set one huge goal to prove worth, and avoid relaxing until it’s achieved

c)

Ignore all feedback from peers, avoid setting goals, and wait for big successes before celebrating

d)

Work alone to prevent criticism, compare with top influencers for motivation, and celebrate only perfect outcomes

90.

Which statement best defines cognitive distortions?

a)

Healthy thought patterns that improve critical thinking over time

b)

Unhealthy patterns of thinking that are often not grounded in reality

c)

Temporary mood shifts that have no impact on mental health

d)

Accurate beliefs formed through careful observation of the environment

91.

Based on the described factors, which option best identifies a protective factor for a teenager’s mental health?

a)

Frequent exposure to stressful childhood events

b)

Strong family support that encourages positive thought patterns

c)

Increasing time spent on social media platforms

d)

Genetic variants associated with higher risk of serious mental health conditions

92.

Which kind of disorder is characterized by a dependence on certain behaviors or processes occuring in a person's life?

a)

Addictive Disorders

b)

Phobias

c)

Mood Disorders

d)

Anxiety Disorders

93.

Which statement best distinguishes diet from nutrition in human health?

a)

Nutrition is the list of foods eaten each day

b)

Diet is the daily food sources a person uses

c)

Nutrition is the flavors and textures of meals

d)

Diet is the process of selecting healthy foods

94.

Which feature most accurately describes fad diets as presented?

a)

They restrict specific sources for a reason

b)

They emphasize gradual lifelong behavior change

c)

They guarantee long‑term metabolic adaptation

d)

They balance animal and plant sources evenly

95.

Which pairing correctly matches a micronutrient example with its noted contribution?

a)

Fat — supplies essential minerals

b)

Protein — regulates body temperature directly

c)

Carbohydrate — builds genetic material

d)

Vitamin C — supports growth and function

96.

Which statement best distinguishes essential from non-essential amino acids?

a)

Essential are used for energy; non-essential for structure

b)

Essential are found only in animals; non-essential in plants

c)

Essential cannot be made by the body; non-essential can

d)

Essential are larger molecules; non-essential are smaller

97.

Which statement best explains a primary nutritional benefit of eating a variety of fruits and vegetables?

a)

They only contribute water and minimal calories

b)

They primarily increase simple sugar intake

c)

They mainly provide saturated fat and sodium

d)

They supply vitamins, minerals, and fiber

e)

They act as the sole source of dietary protein

98.

Which outcome is a direct benefit of maintaining a balanced diet?

a)

Improved overall health and well-being

b)

Rapid muscle gain without exercise

c)

Immediate weight loss after each meal

d)

Higher tolerance to all allergens

99.

Which scenario illustrates how nutrition can influence self-esteem and body image?

a)

Eating late at night ensures improved public speaking skills

b)

Skipping breakfast permanently changes eye color and vision

c)

Calorie counting always guarantees athletic scholarship awards

d)

Diet patterns affect confidence in social and physical abilities

100.

Which statement best defines undernutrition in the context of health impacts?

a)

Insufficient nutrient absorption reduces growth and organ performance

b)

Excess protein consumption always increases muscle mass quickly

c)

High-calorie intake enhances immunity and organ efficiency

d)

Balanced meals provide steady energy and tissue maintenance

101.

Which set lists appropriate drink sources that contribute to hydration?

a)

Milkshakes, cola, smoothies, sweetened tea

b)

Coffee, sports gels, wine, flavored syrups

c)

Soda, energy shots, beer, sweetened tea

d)

Water, milk, juices, unsweetened tea

102.

Why can high-fiber meals reduce overeating after a large holiday feast?

a)

They promote satiety by slowing digestion

b)

They cause a sharp insulin spike immediately

c)

They increase taste receptor sensitivity

d)

They accelerate gastric emptying rapidly

e)

They decrease water absorption in intestines

103.

Which statement best defines sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?

a)

Diseases caused only by poor hygiene habits

b)

Illnesses mainly spread through sexual activity

c)

Infections affecting only certain orientations

d)

Conditions limited to specific age populations

104.

Which statement about symptoms of STIs is correct?

a)

Asymptomatic cases are never contagious

b)

Symptoms always appear within twenty-four hours

c)

All infections cause immediate severe illness

d)

Some infections show no noticeable symptoms

105.

Which reason contributes to stigma surrounding STIs?

a)

Media frames them as shameful illnesses

b)

School curricula never discuss prevention

c)

Public health campaigns normalize testing

d)

Clinics offer completely anonymous care

106.

Which statement best describes chlamydia in adolescents and young adults?

a)

A viral STI common on campuses annually

b)

A bacterial STI highly prevalent among students

c)

A parasitic STI with few annual cases

d)

A fungal STI rare in college populations

107.

Which pathogen causes genital herpes?

a)

Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

b)

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

c)

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

d)

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

108.

What is accurate about treatment for genital herpes?

a)

Topical steroids eradicate the virus

b)

No cure; antivirals reduce outbreaks

c)

Full cure with antibiotics course

d)

Vaccination eliminates current infection

109.

Which statement correctly distinguishes HIV from AIDS?

a)

HIV is the virus; AIDS is the syndrome

b)

AIDS occurs before HIV infection

c)

HIV is the syndrome; AIDS is the virus

d)

Both are the same disease stage

110.

Which body fluids are primary routes for HIV transmission?

a)

Mucus, sweat, tears, saliva

b)

Skin oil, sweat, tears, saliva

c)

Sweat, tears, saliva, urine

d)

Blood, breast milk, semen, vaginal secretions

111.

What is the main effect of untreated HIV on the immune system?

a)

Targets nerve cells leading to paralysis

b)

Kills white blood cells, enabling opportunistic infections

c)

Increases red blood cell count dramatically

d)

Causes overproduction of antibodies only

112.

A couple wants to reduce STI transmission and prevent pregnancy. Which plan shows effective reasoning and consent?

a)

Skip testing and use no protection this time

b)

Choose withdrawal without discussing consent

c)

Agree on condom use and confirm verbal consent

d)

Rely on rumors about partners’ STI status

113.

Which action is part of responsible sexual health behavior before sexual activity?

a)

Avoid discussing past relationships entirely

b)

Use any method without partner agreement

c)

Assume consent if there was a previous date

d)

Disclose sexual history and recent STI testing

114.

Which statement best reflects shared responsibility in preventing STIs and teen pregnancy?

a)

Parents decide the protection methods for teens

b)

Both partners share equal responsibility for prevention

c)

Only the sexually active partner manages protection

d)

Healthcare providers carry most responsibility for prevention

115.

Which statement best describes a barrier method of contraception?

a)

Removes penis before ejaculation

b)

Tracks menstrual timing for fertility

c)

Releases hormones to halt ovulation

d)

Blocks skin contact and fluid transmission

116.

Hormonal methods are intended to prevent

a)

Neither STIs nor pregnancy

b)

Both STIs and pregnancy

c)

STIs only, not pregnancy

d)

Pregnancy only, not STIs

117.

Which mechanism describes an intrauterine device (IUD)?

a)

Placed over penis to block bodily fluids and skin contact

b)

Surgically inserted, releases hormone to keep cervix closed

c)

Taken daily to stop menstrual cycle through pregnancy hormones

d)

Applied on skin to release medication that alters gametes

118.

Fertility awareness method relies on

a)

Surgical placement of a device in uterus

b)

Daily hormone pills to suppress ovulation

c)

Using condoms to prevent fluid transmission

d)

Tracking menstrual cycle to identify fertile window

119.

Which option is the only method that can 100% prevent both STIs and pregnancies?

a)

Withdrawal before ejaculation

b)

External condom use every time

c)

Abstinence from sexual activity

d)

Oral contraceptive pills daily

120.

Which statement best distinguishes exercise from physical activity?

a)

Physical activity is structured with fitness goals

b)

Physical activity never raises heart rate

c)

Exercise is planned to improve physical fitness

d)

Exercise is any action that uses energy

121.

Select the option that lists two outcomes raised by regular physical activity.

a)

Coping ability and sleep quality

b)

Anxiety and cancer risk

c)

Cancer risk and depression

d)

Cardiovascular disease and obesity

122.

A coach wants to improve an athlete’s ability to perform successfully in a particular sport or activity. Which fitness type should be prioritized?

a)

Skill-related fitness focusing on sport-specific abilities

b)

Cardiorespiratory fitness emphasizing oxygen transport

c)

Muscular fitness emphasizing maximal strength only

d)

General physical fitness without targeted practice

123.

Which statement best defines the Overload principle in training?

a)

Applying stress beyond usual effort to trigger gains

b)

Maintaining comfortable effort to prevent fatigue in sessions

c)

Targeting only favorite muscles to enhance sport skills

d)

Changing exercises daily without increasing intensity

124.

A sprinter wants faster starts. Which plan shows Specificity?

a)

Swimming laps to build overall cardiovascular fitness

b)

Cycling indoors for non-impact cross-training

c)

Practicing explosive block starts and short sprints

d)

Doing long easy jogs for general endurance

125.

You increased squat weight by 2.5 kg each week for six weeks, then added a light deload week before another increase. Which principle is mainly demonstrated?

a)

Specificity by training upper-body strength

b)

Overload only during the first heavy week

c)

Random variation without structured planning

d)

Progression through planned gradual increases

126.

To build sustainable improvement over a semester, which combination is most effective?

a)

Increase volume sharply, skip technique, ignore recovery

b)

Focus broadly, never increase intensity, change goals weekly

c)

Train randomly, avoid stress, rest excessively

d)

Apply overload, train specifically, progress systematically

127.

Two friends want to be more active. One chooses dance classes they love; the other selects a demanding plan they dislike. Predict the more likely outcome after two months and why.

a)

The dancer maintains activity due to enjoyment

b)

Enjoyment matters little compared with discipline

c)

Both quit because routines are inconvenient

d)

The strict plan builds faster but is sustainable

128.

What is the immediate neurotransmitter effect commonly triggered during exercise, producing pleasure and alertness?

a)

Dopamine release during activity

b)

Acetylcholine spike in recovery

c)

Serotonin surge after sleep

d)

Melatonin peak during daylight

129.

Arrange the sequence for progressive improvement when starting out:

a)

Increase duration, add repetitions, raise intensity

b)

Raise intensity, increase duration, add repetitions

c)

Increase duration, raise intensity, add repetitions

d)

Add repetitions, raise intensity, increase duration

130.

Which strategy best supports forming a lasting exercise habit for most people?

a)

Repeat one routine without any variation

b)

Pick the most intense workouts available

c)

Choose activities you genuinely enjoy doing

d)

Exercise only when you have extra free time

131.

Which outcome is most associated with greater flexibility?

a)

Increased range of motion and function

b)

Higher single‑rep lifting capacity

c)

Faster cardiovascular oxygen delivery

d)

Thicker muscle fibers during growth