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SOL Review Questions 1/3

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes Earth's orbital position in our solar system?

a)

Outside of three smaller planets

b)

Outside of the gas giants

c)

An outer planet

d)

An inner planet

2.

The Southern Hemisphere is warmer in January than in July because —

a)

it is experiencing summer

b)

the cold winds are concentrated in the Northern Hemisphere

c)

the sun puts out more energy

d)

the hole in the ozone layer allows more heat into the atmosphere

3.

Based on the drawing, what is the main reason that Venus would appear brighter at point Q rather than at point R as seen from the Earth?

a)

The planet is closer to the Earth at point Q than at point R.

b)

More of the visible side of the planet is illuminated at point Q than at point R.

c)

The planet appears overhead against a dark sky when it is at point Q but not at point R.

d)

Light from the planet at point Q is less affected by the sun's gravity than at point R.

4.

Which image below best represents our galaxy?

a)

Image F

b)

Image G

c)

Image H

d)

Image J

5.

In the late 1920s, Edwin Hubble and Milton Humason determined the distance to a number of galaxies and the velocity of those galaxies relative to the Earth. The graph shows the early results that were obtained. What approximate ratio did the scientists calculate between velocity and distance based on these early findings?

a)

150 kilometers per second per one million light years

b)

300 kilometers per second per one million light years

c)

450 kilometers per second per one million light years

d)

600 kilometers per second per one million light years

6.

A student sees a very bright star in the sky and thinks it might be the planet Venus. Which observation would lend support to this conclusion?

a)

After a few minutes, its position relative to the surrounding stars has changed significantly.

b)

After an hour, its position relative to the horizon has changed.

c)

After an hour, its brightness has faded significantly.

d)

After a month, its position relative to the surrounding stars has changed.

7.

Gas and dust in interstellar nebulae can form —

a)

stars

b)

comets

c)

meteors

d)

asteroids

8.

Which of these will cause the greatest high tides?

a)

Image F

b)

Image G

c)

Image H

d)

Image J

9.

Which layer of the sun is seen during a total solar eclipse?

a)

Chromosphere

b)

Photosphere

c)

Core

d)

Corona

10.

Which planet has the shortest day?

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Jupiter

d)

Saturn

11.

The picture shows an infrared composite of the Earth as seen by a weather satellite system. What does the dark shaded area on this map represent?

a)

The moon's shadow

b)

Thick cloud cover

c)

Nighttime

d)

Ocean currents

12.

Which planet in the solar system has an orbit so eccentric that it crosses the orbit of another planet?

a)

Mars

b)

Mercury

c)

Jupiter

d)

Pluto

13.

What is the approximate percentage of the Earth that is illuminated by the sun at any given time?

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

90%

14.

Which of the above evolutionary stages of a massive star is called a supernova?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

15.

Which planet rotates the fastest?

a)

Mercury

b)

Mars

c)

Jupiter

d)

Saturn

16.

Photographs of the surface of Mars reveal the presence of sand dunes that shift over time. These dunes demonstrate the presence of what phenomenon on Mars?

a)

Precipitation

b)

Winds

c)

Magnetic pole reversals

d)

Plate tectonics

17.

The first manned-mission to land on the moon was commanded by Neil Armstrong and was called —

a)

Apollo 11

b)

Gemini 3

c)

Viking 2

d)

Mariner 7

18.

When Venus passes between the Earth and the sun, it is visible as a tiny black dot on the sun's bright disk. Why is Mars never visible in this same way?

a)

The orbit of Mars is more eccentric than that of Venus.

b)

The orbit of Mars is outside that of the Earth's orbit.

c)

Mars is too small to be seen against the backdrop of the sun.

d)

Mars shines too brightly to be visible against the sun.

19.

The sun emits energy by converting hydrogen into helium. What is this process called?

a)

Fusion

b)

Fission

c)

Sunspot formation

d)

Solar wind

20.

Periodically, there are spectacular meteor showers on Earth. These showers usually occur because the Earth's orbit passes through the remains of —

a)

a star

b)

a comet

c)

solar flares

d)

the rings of Saturn

21.

A person weighs more on the Earth than on the moon because the Earth has a greater —

a)

density

b)

atmospheric pressure

c)

magnetic strength

d)

gravitational pull

22.

When the Earth is at its greatest distance from the sun, its Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the sun, as shown in the drawing. What season takes place in the Southern Hemisphere at this time?

a)

Spring

b)

Summer

c)

Autumn

d)

Winter

23.

The numerous rocks orbiting the sun between Jupiter and Mars are —

a)

comets

b)

asteroids

c)

meteorites

d)

satellites

24.

Which element in Earth's atmosphere is essential for human life and is extremely rare or nonexistent in the atmospheres of other planets in our solar system?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

25.

The pole star, Polaris, is nearly stationary and straight overhead when seen from the North Pole. When viewed from the Equator, it —

a)

is nearly stationary and on the horizon

b)

is nearly stationary and directly overhead

c)

rises barely above the eastern horizon, moves along the southern horizon, and sets in the West

d)

rises straight up in the East, passes directly overhead, and descends straight down in the West

26.

About how long does it take the Earth to make one complete rotation on its axis?

a)

one day

b)

one week

c)

one month

d)

one year

27.

Which diagram represents the placement of the sun, Earth, and moon during a lunar eclipse?

a)

diagram A

b)

diagram B

c)

diagram C

d)

diagram D

28.

What is the position of the star above the horizon?

a)

35°

b)

40°

c)

55°

d)

60°

29.

Parallax can be used to measure a star’s —

a)

distance from Earth

b)

atmospheric temperature

c)

gravitational strength

d)

surface composition

30.

Which of these measurements allows scientists to compare the brightness of stars?

a)

absolute magnitude

b)

critical density

c)

orbital velocity

d)

red shift

31.

Which of these planets travels around the Sun in less time than it takes Earth to complete one revolution?

a)

Mars

b)

Saturn

c)

Mercury

d)

Uranus

32.

The pictures show the same stars at different times. Which hypothesis is best supported by these data?

a)

The stars are moving toward one another.

b)

The three stars are moving very fast.

c)

One star is moving around another star.

d)

The biggest star is closest to the Earth.

33.

A star might be much brighter than it appears to be. This is called the star’s absolute magnitude. The difference in apparent magnitude and absolute magnitude is due primarily to the star’s —

a)

surface temperature

b)

motion through the universe

c)

diameter

d)

distance from the Earth

34.

Earth’s axis of rotation is tilted 23.5° relative to the plane of its orbit, which helps to cause —

a)

the seasons

b)

day and night

c)

the lunar phases

d)

high and low tides

35.

A student claims that the full Moon occurs about once a month. What process will verify the student’s claim?

a)

hypothesizing

b)

theorizing

c)

predicting

d)

observing

36.

Why does erosion not occur on the moon?

a)

The rock surface of the moon is too hard.

b)

There is no animal life.

c)

There is no wind or rain.

d)

The gravitational pull of the moon is too weak.

37.

Which planet has a fierce hurricane-like storm that is several times the size of Earth?

a)

Mars

b)

Venus

c)

Saturn

d)

Jupiter

38.

In 1912, an astronomer at Arizona’s Lowell Observatory noticed that the lines in the spectra of most galaxies shifted toward the red end of the spectrum. Another American astronomer, Edwin Hubble, later interpreted this discovery as evidence that —

a)

galaxies were once part of one huge megagalaxy

b)

an explosion will one day result from the pressure building as the galaxies expand

c)

galaxies are moving away from each other in a constantly expanding universe

d)

the largest galaxies are slowly engulfing their smaller neighbors

39.

In addition to Earth’s orbit, which planets’ orbits are shown?

a)

Mars and Jupiter

b)

Jupiter and Saturn

c)

Venus and Mars

d)

Mercury and Venus

40.

At what position would Earth be found in the solar system diagram shown above?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

41.

During which portion of the Earth’s revolution around the sun is the Northern Hemisphere tilted toward the sun?

a)

Vernal equinox

b)

Summer solstice

c)

Autumnal equinox

d)

Winter solstice

42.

What element is the main component of most stars?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Iron

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen

43.

Why do stars appear to change position during the night?

a)

Earth rotates on its axis.

b)

Earth revolves around the sun.

c)

The stars are moving away from each other.

d)

Stars are very far away from the solar system.

44.

During which of these phases of the moon will the tides be highest?

a)

Full Moon

b)

Quarter Moon

c)

Crescent Moon

d)

Gibbous Moon

45.

Orbital velocity is the average speed of a planet moving through space in its orbit around the sun. Which of the following planets has the fastest orbital velocity?

a)

Mercury

b)

Jupiter

c)

Mars

d)

Pluto

46.

Which of these causes days and nights?

a)

The orbit of the Earth around the sun

b)

The revolution of the moon around the Earth

c)

The rotation of the moon on its axis

d)

The rotation of the Earth on its axis

47.

Which layer of the sun is the most dense?

a)

Chromosphere

b)

Photosphere

c)

Core

d)

Corona

48.

Because of the unique position of the Earth in the solar system, life has flourished due to the presence of —

a)

helium

b)

volcanoes

c)

liquid water

d)

salt

49.

Which of these facts is the best supporting evidence that the universe is expanding?

a)

The stars vary in chemical composition.

b)

The galaxies are moving away from each other.

c)

The galaxies can spin to form eddies.

d)

The universe is filled with galaxies of different sizes.

50.

A light-year measures —

a)

brightness

b)

distance

c)

radiation

d)

time

51.

Which planet is often called "Earth's twin" because it is similar in mass and diameter to the Earth?

a)

Mars

b)

Mercury

c)

Venus

d)

Pluto

52.

Saturn's volume is 762 times the volume of Earth, and yet its mass is only about 95 times that of Earth's mass. This is due to Saturn's —

a)

low density

b)

temperature

c)

thousands of rings

d)

distance from the sun

53.

Using the diagram titled "The Life Cycle of a Star," what is the first stage in the life cycle of a star?

a)

Black hole

b)

Dwarf star

c)

Main-sequence star

d)

Stellar nebula

54.

Ozone molecules protect Earth from the harmful effects of the sun by —

a)

insulating the temperature at the poles

b)

condensing water particles in clouds

c)

regulating the heat from the sun

d)

absorbing ultraviolet radiation

55.

In which of the graphs would the precipitation at ground level most likely be rain?

a)

Graph F

b)

Graph G

c)

Graph H

d)

Graph J

56.

According to the map, most hurricanes occur where —

a)

the oceans are warmest

b)

the landmasses are largest

c)

the atmosphere is driest

d)

areas of greatest population exist

57.

Release of CFCs and similar compounds are a possible cause of —

a)

destruction of ozone in the upper atmosphere

b)

acid rain in the northeast U.S.

c)

greenhouse gas build-up in the lower atmosphere

d)

increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration

58.

Based on the above symbols, which of the following represents a wind speed of 30 knots?

a)

Symbol A

b)

Symbol B

c)

Symbol C

d)

Symbol D

59.

A volcanic eruption can affect the atmosphere by —

a)

reducing the amount of water vapor in the atmosphere

b)

adding large quantities of several gases, such as sulfur dioxide, to the atmosphere

c)

clearing away nearby clouds, increasing the amount of sunshine

d)

increasing the amount of oxygen due to escaping gases

60.

The chart shows the relationship between altitude and air pressure. What is the approximate air pressure at an altitude of 22 kilometers?

a)

40 millibars

b)

120 millibars

c)

200 millibars

d)

400 millibars

61.

People have tried many methods to artificially produce rain. One method, called cloud seeding, involves airplanes dropping particles of silver iodide onto clouds to help the clouds produce rain droplets. These silver iodide particles act as —

a)

hailstones

b)

dew points

c)

electrical charges

d)

condensation nuclei

62.

Which of these is important in the formation of clouds?

a)

The relative length of day and night

b)

The Coriolis effect

c)

The melting of the polar ice caps

d)

The cooling of air as it rises

63.

If there were a slight increase in the amount of solar energy that reached the Earth, there would be an immediate increase in —

a)

erosion

b)

evaporation

c)

volcanic activity

d)

groundwater flow

64.

According to this map, the mean annual temperature for most of the eastern half of Virginia is between —

a)

45°F and 50°F

b)

50°F and 55°F

c)

55°F and 60°F

d)

65°F and 70°F

65.

What is one of the major indications that the Earth's climate has varied over time?

a)

Land forms carved by glaciers in temperate areas

b)

Depletion of oxygen in lakes and rivers

c)

Ocean currents

d)

Magnetic reversals in layers of rock

66.

What causes currents in the atmosphere?

a)

Ocean waves and currents

b)

Pressure from the ozone layer

c)

Solar heating of the upper atmosphere

d)

Warm air rising and cold air sinking

67.

Moist air from the Pacific Ocean rises and cools as it passes from west to east over the Sierra Nevada Mountains. Once it is over the mountain range, the air descends and warms on the other side. What is the result of the air ascending, then descending over the mountains?

a)

Desert on the west side of the mountains and heavy rains on the east side

b)

Heavy rains on the west side of the mountains and desert on the east side

c)

Heavy rains on the west side of the mountains and year-round snow on the east side

d)

Desert on the east and west sides of the mountains and heavy rains on top of the mountains

68.

Water vapor is lighter than many atmospheric gases such as oxygen, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide. Why then doesn’t water vapor rise above these other gases to a higher level of the atmosphere?

a)

Water vapor contains other elements that give it weight

b)

The cool atmosphere condenses the rising water vapor and causes it to fall back to Earth

c)

The water molecules are attracted to molecules of heavier gases and remain in the lower regions of the atmosphere

d)

There is an attraction among the water vapor molecules to hold them together close to the Earth

69.

Hypothesis: In the summer, the warmest air will be closest to South Lake. According to the data shown by the graph, the warmest air during the summer will be found —

a)

closest to North Lake

b)

above South Lake

c)

above the land between the lakes

d)

closest to the water level of the lakes

70.

Which factor would best explain why Charlottesville is clear while Norfolk has mist?

a)

Temperature

b)

Humidity

c)

Wind speed

d)

Pressure

71.

The countries shown here released much more CO2 than the rest of the world because these countries have the largest —

a)

number of people

b)

amount of rainfall

c)

number of heavy industries

d)

amount of land per person

72.

Which of these is likely to occur after moist air is cooled below its dew point?

a)

Water condenses.

b)

Evaporation increases.

c)

Ice crystals melt.

d)

Winds are generated.

73.

Most water leaves the ocean through evaporation and returns to the ocean through —

a)

surface runoff

b)

ground water

c)

transpiration

d)

precipitation

74.

Cloudy nights can be warmer than clear nights because clouds trap heat —

a)

generated from tropical winds

b)

produced by the friction of air particles

c)

released from Earth’s interior

d)

absorbed by Earth during daylight hours

75.

Based on the changes between the weather conditions shown in the tables, which of these most likely passed by the weather station between time 1 and time 2?

a)

Thunderstorm

b)

Low pressure area

c)

Cold front

d)

Warm front

76.

Dramatic variations in the polar ice caps most likely suggest changes in —

a)

the Moon’s orbit

b)

Earth’s climate

c)

ebb and flow of tides

d)

global water consumption

77.

Which of these would most likely occur as the ice caps melt?

a)

The Earth would become cooler.

b)

The sea would cover more land.

c)

The rivers would flow more rapidly.

d)

The rain would be more acidic.

78.

On clear nights in late summer and early fall in the Shenandoah Valley, why does ground fog form in the low areas near the Shenandoah River?

a)

Cool, descending air meets moist air in the low areas near the river.

b)

Cool, moist air ascends from the river to the hilltops.

c)

Warm winds bring moisture from the hills down into the valley.

d)

There is more air pollution in the evenings.

79.

What would explain the change in the direction of air movement from daytime to night?

a)

Water is always cooler than land.

b)

Land temperature changes more quickly than water temperature.

c)

Cool air rises more quickly than warm air.

d)

The sun warms the moist ocean air more than the dry land air.

80.

The label L indicates an area of low —

a)

temperatures

b)

pressure

c)

altitude

d)

rainfall

81.

Students plan to use several rain gauges to compare average monthly rainfall on Virginia’s Coastal Plain and Piedmont regions. Which of these variables should be manipulated?

a)

Height of the gauge

b)

Brand of the gauge

c)

Size of the gauge

d)

Location of the gauge

82.

Which of the following was primarily responsible for the development of life outside of the oceans?

a)

A decrease in atmospheric hydrogen

b)

A decrease in atmospheric carbon dioxide

c)

An increase in atmospheric nitrogen

d)

An increase in atmospheric oxygen

83.

The ozone layer protects life on Earth from —

a)

ultraviolet rays

b)

gamma rays

c)

infrared rays

d)

x-rays

84.

Approximately 99.7% of all water on Earth is found in oceans, seas, ice, and the atmosphere. Based on this information, which statement is most accurate?

a)

The Earth’s freshwater supply is infinite.

b)

Less than 0.3% of Earth’s water is drinkable.

c)

Humans are not dependent on ocean water.

d)

The water cycle returns all usable water to the sea.

85.

The graph shows the outdoor temperature at a certain location during a 24-hour period. What possible occurrence happened at 2:00 p.m.?

a)

Daylight-savings time

b)

Eclipse of the moon

c)

A solar storm

d)

Thunderstorm passes

86.

A rain forest is found at the base of Mt. Kilimanjaro, and the summit is snowcapped. Which of the following would best account for this?

a)

Temperature differences due to elevation changes

b)

Climate differences due to seasonal changes

c)

Differences in precipitation due to formation of a rain shadow

d)

Climate changes due to changes in latitude

87.

Land breezes and sea breezes are created by the differences in —

a)

the Earth’s tilt on its axis

b)

solar radiation reaching the Earth’s surface

c)

the heat capacity between water and land

d)

the living organisms occurring in the land and sea

88.

On weather maps, there are lines with tiny triangles on one side. This represents —

a)

cold air moving in the direction the triangles point

b)

cold air moving opposite the direction the triangles point

c)

warm air moving in the direction the triangles point

d)

warm air moving opposite the direction the triangles point

89.

Hypothesis: The average relative humidity decreases north and south of the equator. According to the data shown in the graph, the hypothesis is only correct for latitudes —

a)

up to 40° from the equator

b)

from the poles to 40° from the equator

c)

between 20° and 60° from the equator

d)

farthest from the equator

90.

Ocean → Evaporation → Condensation Which of these would come next in the water cycle?

a)

Aeration

b)

Sedimentation

c)

Deposition

d)

Precipitation

91.

The two most common ions found in ocean water are —

a)

chloride and sodium

b)

potassium and calcium

c)

phosphate and nitrate

d)

magnesium and sodium

92.

Which of these will cause the greatest high tides?

a)

Configuration F

b)

Configuration G

c)

Configuration H

d)

Configuration J

93.

Why is the ice shelf floating?

a)

The ice is melting faster than it can sink.

b)

The ice is less dense than the ocean water.

c)

The ice is warmer than the ocean water.

d)

The ocean water is filled with vegetation that keeps the ice from sinking.

94.

The table shows the area and average depth of the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans. Approximately how many times greater is the volume of water in the Pacific Ocean than in the Atlantic Ocean?

a)

2 times

b)

20 times

c)

2,000 times

d)

2,000,000 times

95.

The Marianas Trench in the Pacific Ocean is 36,160 feet below sea level. This deep oceanic trench is caused by —

a)

swift ocean currents eroding away the ocean floor

b)

the collapse of an empty magma chamber in a large volcano

c)

excessive boat traffic disrupting the normal sedimentation process

d)

two tectonic plates colliding and one plunging below the other

96.

A boat will float higher in the Atlantic Ocean than it will in the Potomac River because ocean water has —

a)

a lower freezing point

b)

more organisms in it

c)

more oxygen in it

d)

a greater density

97.

Oil spills have a tremendous impact on the ocean environment, and the oil must be cleaned up after these spills. A new technique for cleaning oil from beaches is called bioremediation. This technique uses naturally occurring bacteria to break down the oil. How is this accomplished?

a)

The bacteria bind with the oil and bring it to land.

b)

The bacteria pull the oil down to the ocean floor.

c)

The bacteria chemically change the oil into less harmful substances.

d)

The bacteria die and absorb the oil.

98.

Only 3% of the Earth's water is fresh water. The world's oceans contain the rest of the Earth's water. Of that 3%, three-fourths is tied up in glaciers, ice caps, and snow fields. Antarctic glaciers contain nearly 85% of all the ice in the world, and floating sea ice in the Arctic contains 10% of the ice. Sea ice freezes from ocean water, but the salt is excluded in the freezing process, resulting in mostly freshwater ice. Where is the remaining 5% of the world's permanent supply of ice and snow?

a)

High mountain peaks

b)

Permanent Arctic blizzards

c)

Floating icebergs

d)

Drifting Antarctic snow

99.

Fish are abundant in areas where the ocean is upwelling because it —

a)

causes currents that carry fish into the area

b)

brings nutrients to the surface

c)

causes surface turbulence that attracts fish

d)

changes tidal flow in that area

100.

Oxygen must be dissolved in ocean water in order to sustain animal life. Using the above table as a guide, which human activity should be regulated because of the difficulty it causes for sea creatures to breathe?

a)

Piping heated waste water into the ocean

b)

Excessive motorboat traffic

c)

Growing seaweed as a food source

d)

Scuba diving around coral reefs

101.

Seawater is typically denser than freshwater due to seawater's —

a)

higher salinity

b)

lower freezing point

c)

smaller mass

d)

greater depth

102.

Which of these describes the most common way that material is added to a continental shelf?

a)

Evaporation from continental watersheds

b)

Deposition of continental sediments

c)

Eruption of continental volcanoes

d)

Subduction of continental plates

103.

Which of these are caused primarily by the gravitational force between Earth and the Moon?

a)

Tides

b)

Seasons

c)

Prevailing winds

d)

Magnetic poles

104.

London and Irkutsk are located at approximately the same latitude. What would help explain why London experiences a more moderate range of temperatures than does Irkutsk?

a)

A large lake keeps Irkutsk cool.

b)

Irkutsk has fewer trees than London has.

c)

High mountains near London block cold winds.

d)

Warm ocean currents influence London's climate.

105.

The surface of the sea is not level due to all of the following except —

a)

currents

b)

tides

c)

salinity

d)

winds

106.

The accumulated salts in seawater make the seawater much more dense than fresh water. One of the characteristics of salt water is that it has —

a)

higher levels of dissolved oxygen than fresh water

b)

a lower freezing point than fresh water

c)

decreased buoyancy for swimmers

d)

ninety elements that are easily extracted from seawater

107.

Many species of the order Cetacea (whales, dolphins, and porpoises) have become so scarce that they are now protected under international law. Which of the following probably did not contribute to the decline in these populations?

a)

Whaling industry

b)

Fishing nets

c)

Ocean pollution

d)

Greenhouse effect

108.

Which of the following would have the greatest salinity?

a)

Arctic

b)

Atlantic

c)

Mediterranean

d)

Pacific

109.

At which ocean feature would the greatest amount of water pressure be exerted?

a)

Continental shelf

b)

Continental slope

c)

Abyssal plain

d)

Trench

110.

What does the diagram illustrate about turbidity currents?

a)

They move along the bottom.

b)

They stop moving as soon as they reach the ocean floor.

c)

They are temperature-dependent.

d)

They only occur in salt water.

111.

Pictured above is a shoebox with rows of holes in the top, large enough for straws to fit through. By placing straws through the holes, students have to determine the shape of an unseen object in the box. This activity simulates the technology used to map the seafloor. What is that technology called?

a)

Laser beams

b)

Doppler radar

c)

Sonar

d)

Seismology

112.

All of the following features of the ocean indicate tectonic activity except —

a)

abyssal plains

b)

mid-ocean ridges

c)

seamounts

d)

trenches

113.

Why is the surface temperature of the oceans more variable than the water near the ocean floor?

a)

Most energy is exchanged at the surface.

b)

Most animals live near the surface.

c)

The water is less dense at the surface.

d)

The salt concentration is more variable at the surface.

114.

During which of these phases of the moon will the tides be highest?

a)

Full Moon

b)

Quarter Moon

c)

Crescent Moon

d)

Gibbous Moon

115.

Rivers, springs, and aquifers are all -

a)

frozen in winter

b)

human-made structures

c)

located above ground

d)

sources of fresh water

116.

Sinkholes associated with natural processes are characteristic of what type of bedrock?

a)

Limestone

b)

Granite

c)

Basalt

d)

Gneiss

117.

Porosity is the amount of pore space in soils. Permeability is the ability of water to pass through the soil. Why do some soils have high porosity but low permeability?

a)

Some soils have large pores that do not lead anywhere but simply hold groundwater.

b)

Sandy soils dry out quickly, and the pore space fills with air which blocks the downward flow of water.

c)

Some soils have a large volume of pore space, but the individual pores are too small to allow water to pass through.

d)

Water with dissolved iron cannot pass through the magnetic field of soils that are rich in magnetite.

118.

According to the above diagram, the water supply will be most consistent in well —

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

119.

This picture shows a simple well that was dug down to the groundwater. What probably caused the lower level of groundwater, known as a "cone of depression," in the vicinity of the well?

a)

The weight of the atmosphere presses down on the groundwater in the well.

b)

The ground below the well acts as a vacuum sucking out the water.

c)

Gravity pulls down the water beneath the well.

d)

As water is drawn from the well, it takes time for the groundwater to percolate through the soil and restore the level.

120.

Limestone chips dissolve after they are placed in a beaker of dilute acid. Which geologic process is this most similar to?

a)

Faulting

b)

Folding

c)

Weathering

d)

Subduction

121.

During droughts, lack of rain can lead to wells drying up. This is because the drought has lowered the —

a)

water table

b)

water trough

c)

zone of aeration

d)

zone of porosity

122.

In karst regions, caves are carved by the flow of water through limestone bedrock. How do the stalagmites and stalactites in the caves develop?

a)

They are carbonate deposits formed by dripping water in air-filled cavities.

b)

They are granite intrusions that remain behind after water dissolves the surrounding limestone.

c)

They are crystals that grow as water hollows out the cavern.

d)

They are carvings made in limestone by the swirling water as it hollows out the cavern.

123.

The picture above shows that one of the main pollution problems associated with sinkholes is that —

a)

they can destroy roadways

b)

tractors can fall into them

c)

homes can be damaged by them

d)

they can connect directly to the water table

124.

Which diagram below best represents the most common arrangement of zones in a water table?

a)

Surface → Aerated zone → Bedrock → Saturated zone

b)

Surface → Bedrock → Aerated zone → Saturated zone

c)

Surface → Aerated zone → Saturated zone → Bedrock

d)

Surface → Bedrock → Saturated zone → Aerated zone

125.

Which type of land cover absorbs the most rainwater?

a)

Grassland

b)

Crop land

c)

Bare clay soils

d)

Asphalt streets

126.

Which of the following can result when underground water is heated by hot igneous rock?

a)

Metamorphism

b)

Geysers

c)

Salt domes

d)

Karst topography

127.

In Virginia and some other parts of the world, water has carved vast caverns out of underground limestone deposits. Water, however, must contain dissolved carbon dioxide in order to break down the limestone. What role does the carbon dioxide play?

a)

It supports the microscopic plant life that destroys the limestone.

b)

It raises the freezing point so the underground water continues to flow all winter.

c)

In water it forms an acid which reacts with limestone to produce a water-soluble substance.

d)

It reduces viscosity so the water flows more quickly.

128.

Which of these describes the area immediately below a water table?

a)

Zone of aeration

b)

Capillary zone

c)

Recharge zone

d)

Zone of saturation

129.

All of the following may be found deep in a natural cave EXCEPT —

a)

groundwater

b)

mineral deposits

c)

photosynthetic organisms

d)

stalagmites

130.

The three wells shown provide water for a growing city. What is the most likely effect on the system if six new wells are brought into production as the population increases?

a)

The limestone layer will collapse.

b)

The shale layer will shrink.

c)

The aquifer will increase in volume.

d)

The water table will drop.

131.

Which of these pieces of basalt rock has probably been in a river the longest?

a)

Piece A

b)

Piece B

c)

Piece C

d)

Piece D

132.

The layer in the above soil profile that has the most humus is —

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

133.

Barrier islands are low and narrow sandy islands that form a rim offshore from a coastline. These islands protect inland shores from the surf, especially during storms. These islands are becoming increasingly developed because people want to live by the open ocean, yet the islands themselves are not permanent. Why aren’t the islands permanent?

a)

People develop the islands and remove sand during housing construction.

b)

Offshore earthquakes cause the islands to sink below sea level.

c)

The wind and the waves are constantly redistributing the sand.

d)

Development companies mine the sand for use in inland construction projects.

134.

The pictures show different stages in the development of a river valley. Which picture shows the first stage of development?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

135.

Organic matter in soil is made from —

a)

weathered parent rock

b)

decayed plants and animals

c)

acid rain

d)

carbon dioxide

136.

Which layer of the above soil profile would be affected the most by weathering and erosion?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

137.

The canyon shown in the picture was most likely formed by —

a)

a volcano

b)

high winds

c)

earthquakes

d)

running water

138.

Why does erosion not occur on the moon?

a)

The rock surface of the moon is too hard.

b)

There is no animal life.

c)

There is no wind or rain.

d)

The gravitational pull of the moon is too weak.

139.

Virginia has large deposits of sand and gravel. These are usually found in areas where —

a)

water once flowed

b)

lava once covered the ground

c)

swamps once were present

d)

the water table was once very low

140.

Which of the following is an example of chemical weathering?

a)

Splits in a rock due to tree roots

b)

Pulverized rock resulting from a landslide

c)

A rock broken into chunks after being carried by rapidly flowing water

d)

The dissolving of limestone by acid rain

141.

Which of these best shows wind-deposited sediments?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

142.

Why does water move more slowly through clay than through humus?

a)

Clay has greater permeability.

b)

Clay has very small pore spaces.

c)

Clay prevents capillary attraction of water.

d)

Clay reduces evaporation rates.

143.

Photographs of the surface of Mars reveal the presence of sand dunes that shift over time. These dunes demonstrate the presence of what phenomenon on Mars?

a)

Precipitation

b)

Winds

c)

Magnetic pole reversals

d)

Plate tectonics

144.

The pictures above represent various stages of soil development. The correct order in which these pictures should be ordered is —

a)

I, II, IV, III

b)

III, I, II, IV

c)

II, IV, III, I

d)

III, II, IV, I