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Immunity and Hypersensitivity Nursing Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse explains to a patient that the immunity they gained after recovering from chickenpox is classified as:

a)

Artificial passive

b)

Natural active

c)

Artificial active

d)

Natural passive

2.

A newborn receives protection against certain infections from the mother. This is an example of:

a)

Artificial active immunity

b)

Natural active immunity

c)

Natural passive immunity

d)

Artificial passive immunity

3.

A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops hemolysis due to antibodies attacking transfused red blood cells. This is an example of which hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

4.

A client develops a rash and severe itching within minutes of eating shellfish. Which immunoglobulin is responsible?

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

5.

A patient develops a firm, red, itchy area at a TB skin test site 48 hours later. This reaction represents:

a)

Type I hypersensitivity

b)

Type II hypersensitivity

c)

Type III hypersensitivity

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity

6.

A nurse recognizes which immune response is responsible for preventing cancer cell formation?

a)

Antibody-mediated immunity

b)

Cell-mediated immunity

c)

Innate immunity

d)

Passive immunity

7.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has immune complexes depositing in the joints. Which hypersensitivity type is involved?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

8.

Which patient is at the highest risk for developing autoimmune disease?

a)

22-year-old male

b)

28-year-old female

c)

68-year-old male

d)

45-year-old female

9.

Which statement by a student nurse indicates correct understanding of innate immunity?

a)

It develops after exposure to infection.

b)

It is transferred by vaccination.

c)

It is present at birth and nonspecific.

d)

It requires antibody production.

10.

A patient who develops hypotension, wheezing, and facial swelling during IV antibiotic administration is most likely experiencing:

a)

Type III hypersensitivity

b)

Anaphylaxis

c)

Delayed hypersensitivity

d)

Autoimmune response

11.

A patient with SLE presents with proteinuria and periorbital edema. Which organ system is primarily affected?

a)

Cardiovascular

b)

Neurologic

c)

Renal

d)

Respiratory

12.

A nurse notes a butterfly-shaped rash on the face of a patient with joint pain and fatigue. Which lab test is most specific for this diagnosis?

a)

ANA

b)

ESR

c)

Anti-Smith

d)

CRP

13.

A patient with SLE is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. What monitoring is essential?

a)

Monthly CBC

b)

Eye exams

c)

Hearing tests

d)

Liver ultrasound

14.

Which finding indicates possible corticosteroid-induced psychosis in a patient with SLE?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Hallucinations

c)

Fever

d)

Joint stiffness

15.

A nurse is caring for a patient with SLE experiencing a flare. Which intervention is priority?

a)

Encourage sun exposure

b)

Increase physical activity

c)

Monitor neurologic status

d)

Restrict fluid intake

16.

A patient with SLE reports chest pain worse when lying flat and relieved by leaning forward. This suggests:

a)

Myocardial infarction

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Pneumonia

17.

Which patient statement indicates correct understanding of pregnancy risks with SLE?

a)

There are no pregnancy risks with lupus.

b)

Miscarriage and growth issues can occur.

c)

Only infertility is a concern.

d)

SLE improves during pregnancy.

18.

A patient taking long-term corticosteroids is at risk for developing:

a)

Osteonecrosis

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

19.

A nurse anticipates which medication will be used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Hydroxychloroquine

d)

Aspirin

20.

A patient with SLE is at highest risk of death from:

a)

Stroke

b)

Infection

c)

Renal failure

d)

Heart failure

21.

Which assessment finding supports SLE diagnosis?

a)

Joint deformity

b)

Bilateral arthritis without deformity

c)

Unilateral joint swelling

d)

Bone destruction on x-ray

22.

During a flare, the nurse should closely monitor:

a)

Daily weights and intake/output

b)

Vision only

c)

Cardiac rhythm only

d)

Blood glucose only

23.

A patient with SLE reports alopecia and mouth sores. These symptoms are best described as:

a)

Cardiopulmonary

b)

Dermatologic and mucosal

c)

Renal

d)

Endocrine

24.

Which lab finding is expected in SLE?

a)

High CRP

b)

Low ESR

c)

Decreased RBC and WBC

d)

Elevated platelets

25.

Which medication helps reduce fatigue and skin/joint symptoms in SLE?

a)

Cyclophosphamide

b)

Hydroxychloroquine

c)

Prednisone

d)

Methotrexate

26.

Which patient requires contact precautions?

a)

TB

b)

MRSA

c)

Influenza

d)

Measles

27.

The nurse enters the room of a patient with MRSA. Which PPE is required?

a)

Gloves only

b)

Gloves and gown

c)

N95 mask

d)

Goggles only

28.

A patient develops flushing and redness of the upper body during vancomycin infusion. The nurse recognizes:

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Red Man Syndrome

c)

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

d)

Toxic shock syndrome

29.

Which lab must be monitored closely with vancomycin therapy?

a)

AST

b)

BUN and creatinine

c)

Platelets

d)

INR

30.

A nurse is teaching a patient about MRSA. Which statement is correct?

a)

It spreads through the air.

b)

It spreads by direct contact.

c)

It is spread only in hospitals.

d)

It does not require isolation.

31.

A nurse should draw a vancomycin trough level:

a)

Immediately after infusion

b)

30 minutes before next dose

c)

2 hours after infusion

d)

At bedtime only

32.

A catheter patient with fever, chills, and positive blood cultures has what type of infection?

a)

Localized

b)

Opportunistic

c)

Systemic

d)

Viral

33.

A hospitalized patient develops pneumonia after 4 days of admission. This is classified as:

a)

Community-acquired

b)

Opportunistic

c)

Endogenous

d)

Healthcare-associated

34.

Which patient is at highest risk for infection?

a)

22-year-old athlete

b)

45-year-old teacher

c)

68-year-old diabetic

d)

35-year-old runner

35.

Which organism is a multi-drug resistant organism (MDRO)?

a)

C. diff

b)

MRSA

c)

Strep

d)

E. coli

36.

Biofilms commonly form on:

a)

Skin

b)

IV catheters

c)

Hair follicles

d)

Clothing

37.

Which symptom suggests vancomycin-induced ototoxicity?

a)

Muscle spasms

b)

Tinnitus

c)

Hypotension

d)

Fever

38.

Which finding suggests vancomycin anaphylaxis?

a)

Facial flushing

b)

Wheezing and lip swelling

c)

Nausea

d)

Insomnia

39.

Which precaution protects immunocompromised patients?

a)

Droplet isolation

b)

Reverse isolation

c)

Airborne isolation

d)

Standard precautions only

40.

Gloves are required for which situation under standard precautions?

a)

Taking BP

b)

Touching body fluids

c)

Sitting in room

d)

Delivering meals

41.

TB is transmitted through:

a)

Contact

b)

Droplet

c)

Airborne

d)

Fecal-oral

42.

A patient with positive TB skin test but no symptoms is classified as:

a)

Active TB

b)

Latent TB

c)

Drug-resistant TB

d)

Extrapulmonary TB

43.

Which group is at highest risk for TB?

a)

Athletes

b)

IV drug users

c)

School teachers

d)

Office workers

44.

The definitive diagnostic test for active TB is:

a)

Chest x-ray

b)

NAAT

c)

Sputum culture

d)

Skin test

45.

How many negative sputum cultures are required to consider TB non-infectious?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

46.

Which medication causes orange urine?

a)

INH

b)

PZA

c)

Rifampin

d)

Ethambutol

47.

Which TB drug requires visual acuity monitoring?

a)

INH

b)

Rifampin

c)

Ethambutol

d)

Pyrazinamide

48.

A patient on INH must avoid:

a)

Salt

b)

Alcohol

c)

Sugar

d)

Dairy

49.

Which TB drug increases uric acid levels?

a)

Rifampin

b)

Ethambutol

c)

Pyrazinamide

d)

INH

50.

A patient hospitalized with active TB must be in:

a)

Positive pressure room

b)

Semi-private room

c)

Negative pressure room

d)

Reverse isolation

51.

Which mask is required when caring for active TB?

a)

Surgical mask

b)

Cloth mask

c)

N95 respirator

d)

Face shield

52.

DOT therapy means:

a)

Medication at bedtime

b)

Nurse watches patient take medications

c)

Patient self-administers

d)

Meds weekly only

53.

Which symptom is most consistent with active TB?

a)

Night sweats

b)

Vomiting

c)

Abdominal pain

d)

Polyuria

54.

A TB patient teaching priority is:

a)

Avoid dairy

b)

Cover mouth when coughing

c)

Exercise daily

d)

Increase iron

55.

A patient with HIV has a PPD induration of 6 mm. This result is:

a)

Negative

b)

Borderline

c)

Positive

d)

Inconclusive

56.

A patient with weak stream, nocturia, and dribbling likely has:

a)

Bladder cancer

b)

BPH

c)

Renal failure

d)

UTI

57.

The most common non-surgical medication class for BPH is:

a)

Beta blockers

b)

Alpha blockers

c)

Diuretics

d)

ACE inhibitors

58.

A patient taking tamsulosin is most at risk for:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Orthostatic hypotension

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Urinary retention

59.

Which test screens prostate size and cancer risk?

a)

DRE

b)

PSA

c)

CBC

d)

Urinalysis

60.

Which DRE finding suggests prostate cancer?

a)

Smooth

b)

Enlarged

c)

Hard

d)

Symmetrical

61.

The priority post-TURP complication is:

a)

Infection

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Constipation

d)

Hypotension

62.

Continuous bladder irrigation is used to:

a)

Reduce pain

b)

Prevent clots

c)

Increase urine output

d)

Treat infection

63.

Which finding after TURP requires immediate provider notification?

a)

Light pink urine

b)

Burgundy-colored drainage

c)

Small clots

d)

Bright red clots

64.

Which task can be delegated to the LPN after TURP?

a)

Assess catheter patency

b)

Increase irrigation flow

c)

Perform abdominal exam

d)

Interpret lab results

65.

Post-TURP teaching includes:

a)

Avoid fluids

b)

Drink 2–3 L daily

c)

Void once daily

d)

Avoid walking

66.

Retrograde ejaculation is described as:

a)

Painful ejaculation

b)

Semen flowing into the bladder

c)

Inability to ejaculate

d)

Excess semen output

67.

A patient with BPH is most at risk for:

a)

Infection

b)

Stroke

c)

Hypertension

d)

Kidney stones

68.

Which symptom is NOT associated with BPH?

a)

Hesitancy

b)

Nocturia

c)

Dribbling

d)

Anuria

69.

Which psychosocial effect is most common with BPH?

a)

Aggression

b)

Social isolation

c)

Mania

d)

Hallucinations

70.

Which urinary catheter is used for difficult insertion in BPH?

a)

Straight

b)

Foley

71.

Prostate cancer is sensitive to:

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

Androgens

d)

Thyroxine

72.

Which group has the highest risk for prostate cancer?

a)

White males under 40

b)

Hispanic males 30–40

c)

African American men >65

d)

Asian males 45–55

73.

Which test definitively confirms prostate cancer?

a)

PSA

b)

DRE

c)

Biopsy

d)

TRUS

74.

What is a major complication after radical prostatectomy?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Erectile dysfunction

c)

Hypertension

d)

Constipation

75.

ADT therapy commonly causes which of the following?

a)

Joint swelling

b)

Hot flashes

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Hyponatremia

76.

What is the first diagnostic test for lung cancer?

a)

PET scan

b)

Chest x-ray

c)

CT scan

d)

MRI

77.

Small cell lung cancer is characterized by:

a)

Slow growth

b)

Rapid growth

c)

High differentiation

d)

Low metastatic potential

78.

A lung cancer patient with facial swelling and distended neck veins may have:

a)

Pulmonary embolism

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

SVC syndrome

d)

Pleural effusion

79.

A complication following thoracentesis is:

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Atelectasis

d)

Bronchitis

80.

After thoracentesis, the nurse’s priority assessment is:

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Lung sounds

c)

Temperature

d)

Bowel sounds

81.

A lung cancer patient receiving chemotherapy is most at risk for:

a)

Neutropenia

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hyperkalemia

82.

Which precaution is required for neutropenic patients?

a)

Airborne isolation

b)

Reverse isolation

c)

Droplet isolation

d)

Contact isolation

83.

Which sign indicates chest tube obstruction?

a)

Bubbling

b)

Tidaling absence

c)

2 cm water seal

d)

Clear drainage

84.

If a chest tube is accidentally pulled out, the nurse should first:

a)

Reinsert the tube

b)

Apply sterile occlusive dressing

c)

Lower the bed

d)

Clamp the tube

85.

Oxygen therapy teaching should include:

a)

Smoking is permitted

b)

Avoid flames

c)

Store near heat

d)

Turn off alarms

86.

Which lung cancer patient finding requires rapid response activation?

a)

SpO₂ 82%

b)

RR 18

c)

BP 118/72

d)

HR 72

87.

A patient on radiation therapy should be taught to:

a)

Scrub skin vigorously

b)

Avoid direct sun

c)

Use heating pads

d)

Apply scented lotion

88.

A lung cancer patient with clubbing likely has:

a)

Anemia

b)

Chronic hypoxia

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Dehydration

89.

Which finding suggests lung metastasis to the brain?

a)

Headache and confusion

b)

Chest pain

c)

Cough

d)

Hemoptysis

90.

A client with lung cancer has increased fremitus. This suggests:

a)

Air trapping

b)

Obstruction

c)

Tumor/fluid

d)

Atelectasis

91.

Which patient should receive reverse isolation?

a)

MRSA patient

b)

TB patient

c)

Chemotherapy patient

d)

Influenza patient

92.

A patient with chronic kidney disease on vancomycin requires close monitoring for:

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Neurotoxicity

d)

Cardiotoxicity

93.

A nurse is caring for a lung cancer patient post-thoracotomy. Priority care includes:

a)

Incentive spirometry

b)

Restricting fluids

c)

Bedrest only

d)

Delayed ambulation

94.

A lung cancer patient receiving immunotherapy should be monitored for:

a)

Immune overactivation

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Constipation

d)

Bradycardia

95.

A patient with TB being discharged home should be instructed that family members:

a)

Require airborne isolation indefinitely

b)

Should be tested for TB

c)

Do not require screening

d)

Must wear N95 constantly

96.

A positive ANA test indicates:

a)

Definitive SLE

b)

Exposure only

c)

Nonspecific autoimmune activity

d)

Kidney damage

97.

A patient on chemotherapy should avoid:

a)

Fresh flowers

b)

Hand hygiene

c)

Oral care

d)

Fluids

98.

The best screening tool for lung cancer in high-risk patients is:

a)

Chest x-ray

b)

MRI

c)

Low-dose CT

d)

PET scan

99.

The main purpose of a chest tube is to:

a)

Drain urine

b)

Restore negative pressure

c)

Administer medication

d)

Monitor heart rate

100.

Which lung cancer patient condition is considered an immediate emergency?

a)

Hemoptysis

b)

Dyspnea with tracheal deviation

c)

Fatigue

d)

Weight loss