WorksheetsImmunity and Hypersensitivity Nursing Quiz
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
A nurse explains to a patient that the immunity they gained after recovering from chickenpox is classified as:
Artificial passive
Natural active
Artificial active
Natural passive
A newborn receives protection against certain infections from the mother. This is an example of:
Artificial active immunity
Natural active immunity
Natural passive immunity
Artificial passive immunity
A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops hemolysis due to antibodies attacking transfused red blood cells. This is an example of which hypersensitivity reaction?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
A client develops a rash and severe itching within minutes of eating shellfish. Which immunoglobulin is responsible?
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgG
A patient develops a firm, red, itchy area at a TB skin test site 48 hours later. This reaction represents:
Type I hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
Type III hypersensitivity
Type IV hypersensitivity
A nurse recognizes which immune response is responsible for preventing cancer cell formation?
Antibody-mediated immunity
Cell-mediated immunity
Innate immunity
Passive immunity
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has immune complexes depositing in the joints. Which hypersensitivity type is involved?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Which patient is at the highest risk for developing autoimmune disease?
22-year-old male
28-year-old female
68-year-old male
45-year-old female
Which statement by a student nurse indicates correct understanding of innate immunity?
It develops after exposure to infection.
It is transferred by vaccination.
It is present at birth and nonspecific.
It requires antibody production.
A patient who develops hypotension, wheezing, and facial swelling during IV antibiotic administration is most likely experiencing:
Type III hypersensitivity
Anaphylaxis
Delayed hypersensitivity
Autoimmune response
A patient with SLE presents with proteinuria and periorbital edema. Which organ system is primarily affected?
Cardiovascular
Neurologic
Renal
Respiratory
A nurse notes a butterfly-shaped rash on the face of a patient with joint pain and fatigue. Which lab test is most specific for this diagnosis?
ANA
ESR
Anti-Smith
CRP
A patient with SLE is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. What monitoring is essential?
Monthly CBC
Eye exams
Hearing tests
Liver ultrasound
Which finding indicates possible corticosteroid-induced psychosis in a patient with SLE?
Insomnia
Hallucinations
Fever
Joint stiffness
A nurse is caring for a patient with SLE experiencing a flare. Which intervention is priority?
Encourage sun exposure
Increase physical activity
Monitor neurologic status
Restrict fluid intake
A patient with SLE reports chest pain worse when lying flat and relieved by leaning forward. This suggests:
Myocardial infarction
Pericarditis
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia
Which patient statement indicates correct understanding of pregnancy risks with SLE?
There are no pregnancy risks with lupus.
Miscarriage and growth issues can occur.
Only infertility is a concern.
SLE improves during pregnancy.
A patient taking long-term corticosteroids is at risk for developing:
Osteonecrosis
Hypercalcemia
Bradycardia
Metabolic alkalosis
A nurse anticipates which medication will be used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE?
Ibuprofen
Methotrexate
Hydroxychloroquine
Aspirin
A patient with SLE is at highest risk of death from:
Stroke
Infection
Renal failure
Heart failure
Which assessment finding supports SLE diagnosis?
Joint deformity
Bilateral arthritis without deformity
Unilateral joint swelling
Bone destruction on x-ray
During a flare, the nurse should closely monitor:
Daily weights and intake/output
Vision only
Cardiac rhythm only
Blood glucose only
A patient with SLE reports alopecia and mouth sores. These symptoms are best described as:
Cardiopulmonary
Dermatologic and mucosal
Renal
Endocrine
Which lab finding is expected in SLE?
High CRP
Low ESR
Decreased RBC and WBC
Elevated platelets
Which medication helps reduce fatigue and skin/joint symptoms in SLE?
Cyclophosphamide
Hydroxychloroquine
Prednisone
Methotrexate
Which patient requires contact precautions?
TB
MRSA
Influenza
Measles
The nurse enters the room of a patient with MRSA. Which PPE is required?
Gloves only
Gloves and gown
N95 mask
Goggles only
A patient develops flushing and redness of the upper body during vancomycin infusion. The nurse recognizes:
Anaphylaxis
Red Man Syndrome
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome
Which lab must be monitored closely with vancomycin therapy?
AST
BUN and creatinine
Platelets
INR
A nurse is teaching a patient about MRSA. Which statement is correct?
It spreads through the air.
It spreads by direct contact.
It is spread only in hospitals.
It does not require isolation.
A nurse should draw a vancomycin trough level:
Immediately after infusion
30 minutes before next dose
2 hours after infusion
At bedtime only
A catheter patient with fever, chills, and positive blood cultures has what type of infection?
Localized
Opportunistic
Systemic
Viral
A hospitalized patient develops pneumonia after 4 days of admission. This is classified as:
Community-acquired
Opportunistic
Endogenous
Healthcare-associated
Which patient is at highest risk for infection?
22-year-old athlete
45-year-old teacher
68-year-old diabetic
35-year-old runner
Which organism is a multi-drug resistant organism (MDRO)?
C. diff
MRSA
Strep
E. coli
Biofilms commonly form on:
Skin
IV catheters
Hair follicles
Clothing
Which symptom suggests vancomycin-induced ototoxicity?
Muscle spasms
Tinnitus
Hypotension
Fever
Which finding suggests vancomycin anaphylaxis?
Facial flushing
Wheezing and lip swelling
Nausea
Insomnia
Which precaution protects immunocompromised patients?
Droplet isolation
Reverse isolation
Airborne isolation
Standard precautions only
Gloves are required for which situation under standard precautions?
Taking BP
Touching body fluids
Sitting in room
Delivering meals
TB is transmitted through:
Contact
Droplet
Airborne
Fecal-oral
A patient with positive TB skin test but no symptoms is classified as:
Active TB
Latent TB
Drug-resistant TB
Extrapulmonary TB
Which group is at highest risk for TB?
Athletes
IV drug users
School teachers
Office workers
The definitive diagnostic test for active TB is:
Chest x-ray
NAAT
Sputum culture
Skin test
How many negative sputum cultures are required to consider TB non-infectious?
1
2
3
4
Which medication causes orange urine?
INH
PZA
Rifampin
Ethambutol
Which TB drug requires visual acuity monitoring?
INH
Rifampin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
A patient on INH must avoid:
Salt
Alcohol
Sugar
Dairy
Which TB drug increases uric acid levels?
Rifampin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
INH
A patient hospitalized with active TB must be in:
Positive pressure room
Semi-private room
Negative pressure room
Reverse isolation
Which mask is required when caring for active TB?
Surgical mask
Cloth mask
N95 respirator
Face shield
DOT therapy means:
Medication at bedtime
Nurse watches patient take medications
Patient self-administers
Meds weekly only
Which symptom is most consistent with active TB?
Night sweats
Vomiting
Abdominal pain
Polyuria
A TB patient teaching priority is:
Avoid dairy
Cover mouth when coughing
Exercise daily
Increase iron
A patient with HIV has a PPD induration of 6 mm. This result is:
Negative
Borderline
Positive
Inconclusive
A patient with weak stream, nocturia, and dribbling likely has:
Bladder cancer
BPH
Renal failure
UTI
The most common non-surgical medication class for BPH is:
Beta blockers
Alpha blockers
Diuretics
ACE inhibitors
A patient taking tamsulosin is most at risk for:
Bradycardia
Orthostatic hypotension
Hyperkalemia
Urinary retention
Which test screens prostate size and cancer risk?
DRE
PSA
CBC
Urinalysis
Which DRE finding suggests prostate cancer?
Smooth
Enlarged
Hard
Symmetrical
The priority post-TURP complication is:
Infection
Hemorrhage
Constipation
Hypotension
Continuous bladder irrigation is used to:
Reduce pain
Prevent clots
Increase urine output
Treat infection
Which finding after TURP requires immediate provider notification?
Light pink urine
Burgundy-colored drainage
Small clots
Bright red clots
Which task can be delegated to the LPN after TURP?
Assess catheter patency
Increase irrigation flow
Perform abdominal exam
Interpret lab results
Post-TURP teaching includes:
Avoid fluids
Drink 2–3 L daily
Void once daily
Avoid walking
Retrograde ejaculation is described as:
Painful ejaculation
Semen flowing into the bladder
Inability to ejaculate
Excess semen output
A patient with BPH is most at risk for:
Infection
Stroke
Hypertension
Kidney stones
Which symptom is NOT associated with BPH?
Hesitancy
Nocturia
Dribbling
Anuria
Which psychosocial effect is most common with BPH?
Aggression
Social isolation
Mania
Hallucinations
Which urinary catheter is used for difficult insertion in BPH?
Straight
Foley
Prostate cancer is sensitive to:
Estrogen
Progesterone
Androgens
Thyroxine
Which group has the highest risk for prostate cancer?
White males under 40
Hispanic males 30–40
African American men >65
Asian males 45–55
Which test definitively confirms prostate cancer?
PSA
DRE
Biopsy
TRUS
What is a major complication after radical prostatectomy?
Hyperglycemia
Erectile dysfunction
Hypertension
Constipation
ADT therapy commonly causes which of the following?
Joint swelling
Hot flashes
Tachycardia
Hyponatremia
What is the first diagnostic test for lung cancer?
PET scan
Chest x-ray
CT scan
MRI
Small cell lung cancer is characterized by:
Slow growth
Rapid growth
High differentiation
Low metastatic potential
A lung cancer patient with facial swelling and distended neck veins may have:
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumothorax
SVC syndrome
Pleural effusion
A complication following thoracentesis is:
Pulmonary edema
Pneumothorax
Atelectasis
Bronchitis
After thoracentesis, the nurse’s priority assessment is:
Blood pressure
Lung sounds
Temperature
Bowel sounds
A lung cancer patient receiving chemotherapy is most at risk for:
Neutropenia
Hypoglycemia
Hypertension
Hyperkalemia
Which precaution is required for neutropenic patients?
Airborne isolation
Reverse isolation
Droplet isolation
Contact isolation
Which sign indicates chest tube obstruction?
Bubbling
Tidaling absence
2 cm water seal
Clear drainage
If a chest tube is accidentally pulled out, the nurse should first:
Reinsert the tube
Apply sterile occlusive dressing
Lower the bed
Clamp the tube
Oxygen therapy teaching should include:
Smoking is permitted
Avoid flames
Store near heat
Turn off alarms
Which lung cancer patient finding requires rapid response activation?
SpO₂ 82%
RR 18
BP 118/72
HR 72
A patient on radiation therapy should be taught to:
Scrub skin vigorously
Avoid direct sun
Use heating pads
Apply scented lotion
A lung cancer patient with clubbing likely has:
Anemia
Chronic hypoxia
Hypercalcemia
Dehydration
Which finding suggests lung metastasis to the brain?
Headache and confusion
Chest pain
Cough
Hemoptysis
A client with lung cancer has increased fremitus. This suggests:
Air trapping
Obstruction
Tumor/fluid
Atelectasis
Which patient should receive reverse isolation?
MRSA patient
TB patient
Chemotherapy patient
Influenza patient
A patient with chronic kidney disease on vancomycin requires close monitoring for:
Hepatotoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Neurotoxicity
Cardiotoxicity
A nurse is caring for a lung cancer patient post-thoracotomy. Priority care includes:
Incentive spirometry
Restricting fluids
Bedrest only
Delayed ambulation
A lung cancer patient receiving immunotherapy should be monitored for:
Immune overactivation
Hyperglycemia
Constipation
Bradycardia
A patient with TB being discharged home should be instructed that family members:
Require airborne isolation indefinitely
Should be tested for TB
Do not require screening
Must wear N95 constantly
A positive ANA test indicates:
Definitive SLE
Exposure only
Nonspecific autoimmune activity
Kidney damage
A patient on chemotherapy should avoid:
Fresh flowers
Hand hygiene
Oral care
Fluids
The best screening tool for lung cancer in high-risk patients is:
Chest x-ray
MRI
Low-dose CT
PET scan
The main purpose of a chest tube is to:
Drain urine
Restore negative pressure
Administer medication
Monitor heart rate
Which lung cancer patient condition is considered an immediate emergency?
Hemoptysis
Dyspnea with tracheal deviation
Fatigue
Weight loss
