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MolGen Review (2025)

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the role of Cas9?

a)

Glue sections of DNA together.

b)

Target mutated genes.

c)

Change the sequence or order of DNA bases.

d)

Cut DNA at specific locations.

2.

Why do bacteria have CRISPR? Check all that apply.

a)

To be able to remember which viruses they have been infected with

b)

To be able to edit virus DNA

c)

To cut apart virus DNA thereby stopping the virus infection

d)

To be able to edit their own DNA

3.

CRISPR-Cas9 was discovered in which of the following organisms?

a)

protists

b)

fungi

c)

bacteria

d)

viruses

4.

What is the function of guide RNA in CRISPR-Cas9 system?

a)

Guide RNA helps in the replication of DNA.

b)

Guide RNA is responsible for repairing damaged DNA.

c)

Guide RNA guides the Cas9 enzyme to the target DNA sequence.

d)

Guide RNA acts as a template for protein synthesis.

5.

Which enzyme is responsible for cutting the target DNA in CRISPR-Cas9 system?

a)

Cas9

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

CRISPR

6.

What does the acronym CRISPR stand for?

a)

Controlled Reservative Image Spectacle Palindromic Recounts

b)

Clustered Regularly-Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats

7.

How does CRISPR edit DNA? Check ALL that apply.

a)

CRISPR chemically changes A's to C's

b)

CRISPR cuts the DNA and the cell makes errors when it tries to fix the broken DNA

c)

CRISPR cuts the DNA and the cell can use a similar DNA sequence as a template to try to fix the DNA

d)

CRISPR changes all PAM's so that they are no longer able to be recognized

8.

We have been modifying DNA sequences for many years - ever since restriction enzymes were discovered in the early 1970's. CRISPR and restriction enzymes are essentially the same because they can both be used to cut DNA and can be used inside of living cells.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE - Restriction enzymes do not cut DNA

c)

FALSE - CRISPR does not cut DNA

d)

FALSE - Restriction enzymes cannot be used inside of living cells

9.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the CRISPR Cas9 system?

a)

Trans-activating crRNA (tracrRNA)

b)

Guide RNA (gRNA)

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

Cas9 nuclease

10.

The following sequence is a known GENE MUTATION that geneticists would like to remove. What would be the guide RNA they need to build into a CRISPR-Cas9 enzyme?


TTA CCG

a)

AAU GGC

b)

AAT GGC

c)

TTA CCG

d)

GCC ATT

11.

What are the two main parts found in CRISPR?

a)

Repeats and Spacer DNA

b)

Repeats and Viral DNA

c)

Spacer DNA and Cas Proteins

d)

Cas Proteins and Viral DNA

12.

How does the CRISPR-Cas9 system differ from the immune system in humans?

a)

CRISPR-Cas9 system uses RNA to guide DNA cutting, while the immune system uses antibodies

b)

CRISPR-Cas9 system repairs damaged DNA, while the immune system fights infections

c)

CRISPR-Cas9 system prevents viral DNA transcription, while the immune system produces antibodies

d)

CRISPR-Cas9 system replicates viral DNA, while the immune system attacks viral DNA

13.
What is gene knockout?
a)
Technique to produce a non-functional gene
b)
Technique to insert genes
c)
Technique to amplify DNA
d)
Technique to sequence DNA
14.
Which organism is commonly used for gene knockout studies?
a)
Mouse (Mus musculus)
b)
Fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster)
c)
Zebra fish (Danio rerio)
d)
E. coli (Escherichia coli)
15.
Which of the following are examples of model organisms?
a)
Caenorhabditis elegans (soil roundworm)
b)
Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly)
c)
Danio rerio (zebra fish)
d)
Arabidopsis thaliana (flowering plant)
16.
What are potential unintended effects of CRISPR technology?
a)
Off-target mutations
b)
High costs
c)
Ethical concerns
d)
Loss of human diversity
17.
Why are model organisms used in genetic research?
a)
To predict similar effects in closely related organisms
b)
To replace human subjects
c)
To reduce costs
d)
To increase complexity
18.
What is the primary reason for using Arabidopsis thaliana in genetic research?
a)
Its genome was the first to be sequenced
b)
Its high homology with human cells
c)
Its transparent embryos
d)
Its ability to fly
19.
What is a highly conserved genetic sequence?
a)
A sequence that remains unchanged over long periods of evolution
b)
A sequence that mutates frequently
c)
A sequence unique to one species
d)
A sequence that controls cell division
20.
Why do highly transcribed genes show lower mutation rates?
a)
Enhanced proofreading and repair mechanisms
b)
Increased metabolic rate
c)
Greater exposure to mutagens
d)
Lower gene expression
21.

Which of the following is the correct order of each step in the process of using CRISPR- Cas9 to inactivate a gene?

a)

Targeting, Cleaving, DNA Repair, Binding

b)

Binding, Targeting, DNA Repair, Cleaving

c)

DNA Repair, Targeting, Cleaving, Binding

d)

Targeting, Binding, Cleaving, DNA Repair

22.

In the cleaving step of the CRISPR-Cas9 process, which strand(s) will be cleaved in the DNA?

a)

5' -> 3'

b)

3' -> 5'

c)

Both strands

d)

Neither strand

23.

A special protein that targets a specific base sequence and cuts DNA into smaller fragments is a(n)

a)

Gene

b)

DNA Probe

c)

Exon

d)

Restriction Enzyme

24.

A vector in genetic engineering is

a)

plasmid or virus that contains or carries modified genetic material

b)

a host organism that is used to grow up lots of copies of transfected DNA

c)

an organism that can carry a disease to a host

d)

CRISPR is an example

25.

How does CRISPR-Cas9 differ from other gene editing techniques?

a)

CRISPR-Cas9 is less efficient than other gene editing techniques.

b)

CRISPR-Cas9 is more precise and efficient than other gene editing techniques.

c)

CRISPR-Cas9 is more error-prone than other gene editing techniques.

d)

CRISPR-Cas9 is slower than other gene editing techniques.

26.

Evaluate the potential societal impacts of genetic engineering technologies becoming widely accessible.

a)

It could democratize access to advanced medical treatments but may also raise ethical and privacy concerns.

b)

It could democratize access to advanced medical treatments but may also lead to increased healthcare costs.

c)

It could limit access to advanced medical treatments and raise ethical and privacy concerns.

d)

It could limit access to advanced medical treatments and lead to increased healthcare costs.

27.

The enzyme that glues DNA back together

a)

Sticky Ends

b)

DNA Polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Ligase

28.

The taking in of DNA that the cell or organism did not have before. The new DNA gives new traits to the cell or organism.

a)

Transformation

b)

Restriction Enzymes

c)

Plasmid

d)

Cloning

29.

The gene that the scientist is manipulating to make a product.

a)

Okasaki Fragment

b)

Plasmid

c)

Transformation

d)

Gene of Interest

30.

New strand of DNA made by inserting the gene of one organisms into the DNA of another.

a)

gel electrophoresis

b)

polymerase chain reactions

c)

recombinant DNA (rDNA)

d)

clone

31.
A gene gun and a virus may both be classified as ____ because they are mechanisms by which foreign DNA may be transferred into a host cell.
a)
bacteria
b)
plasmids
c)
vectors
d)
splicers
32.
____ is an application of the human genome project that involves the insertion of normal genes into cells with defective genes in order to correct genetic disorders.
a)
gene gun
b)
gene mapping
c)
gene linkage
d)
gene therapy
33.

A technique that produces millions or even billions of copies of a specific DNA sequence in just a few hours.

a)

gene sequencing

b)

PCR

c)

DNA microarray

d)

cloning

34.
How does CRISPR differ from previous techniques of gene editing?
a)
slower, more expensive, but more accurate
b)
faster, cheaper, and more accurate
c)
faster, more expensive, more accurate
d)
slower, cheaper, less accurate
35.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the regulatory region for transcription are called ____________.
a)

transcription factors

b)

topoisomerase

c)

regulatory genes

d)

activators

36.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)

regulator

b)

repressor

c)

activator

d)

corepressor

37.

Transcription of genes by RNA polymerase requires energy, so a bacteria's operon is usually not always turned on.

In E. coli bacteria, the trp operon encodes genes for the synthesis of tryptophan, and the lac operon encodes genes for the digestion of lactose.

Which of the following strains of E. coli is likely to use its energy most efficiently?

a)

A strain in which RNA polymerase is inhibited (stopped) from transcribing the trp operon when tryptophan is present

b)

A strain in which RNA polymerase transcribes the trp operon when tryptophan is present

c)

A strain in which RNA polymerase is inhibited (stopped) from transcribing the lac operon when lactose is present

d)

A strain in which RNA polymerase transcribes the lac operon when lactose is absent

38.

Which statement best explains why gene expression can be more complex and sophisticated in eukaryotic cells than in prokaryotic cells?

a)

Gene expression in eukaryotic cells involves both transcription and translation.

b)

Transcription and translation occur in different places and at different times in eukaryotic cells.

c)

Eukaryotic cells use double-stranded DNA and single-stranded RNA

d)

Eukaryotic cells use a more complex genetic code

39.

Genes can be shut off (not expressed) when a ___ binds to the ____.

a)

activator, operator

b)

repressor, operator

c)

corepressor, operator

d)

repressor, promotor

40.

Which of the following is/are similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression?

a)

both use proteins to interact with the DNA to control gene expression

b)

both have histones complexed with their DNA

c)

both separate the processes of transcription and translation spatially

d)

both use operons to control genes being repressed or activated

41.

Which enzyme is crucial for the process of PCR?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Taq polymerase

d)

Reverse transcriptase

42.

Which of the following is a key difference between proteomics and genomics?

a)

Genomics focuses on mutations, while proteomics studies entire genomes.

b)

Proteomics studies DNA sequences, while genomics studies proteins.

c)

Proteomics examines DNA replication, while genomics tracks gene mutations.

d)

Genomics studies all genetic material, while proteomics studies protein expression.

43.

Why is defining a species considered difficult?

a)

Because all organisms reproduce sexually.

b)

Because asexual and sexually reproducing organisms require different criteria.

c)

Because all organisms are eukaryotes.

d)

Because there is only one species concept.

44.

What is the primary focus of the morphological species concept?

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

Breeding behaviors

c)

Structural features

d)

Genetic mutations

45.

When is the morphological species concept typically used?

a)

When the genetic species concept is unavailable.

b)

When the biological species concept cannot be used.

c)

When studying plant species only.

d)

When species are extinct.

46.

The broadest category in the classification system is the

a)

Family

b)

Class

c)

Order

d)

Domain

47.
All organisms have names that include
a)
class and order
b)
order and family
c)
genus and species
48.
The first word in an organism's scientific name is its
a)
genus
b)
species
c)
phylum
d)
Domain
49.

A horse and donkey can mate and produce offspring of a mule. What is one reason why a horse and donkey are NOT considered the same species?

a)

The horse and donkey are not classified as Kingdom Animalia

b)

The horse and donkey naturally created the mule offspring

c)

The horse has a larger body size than the donkey

d)

The mule offspring is unable to reproduce

50.

A correctly written scientific name is--

a)

Canis Lupus

b)

Felis domesticus

c)

mus domesticus

d)

quercus Alba

51.

Why does PCR work much faster than cellular DNA replication?

a)

Heating the DNA removes the need for DNA helicase

b)

Cooling the DNA removes the need for DNA polymerase

c)

Exactly the needed nucleotides are supplied in PCR

d)

PCR only requires single-stranded DNA, so it's twice as fast

52.

Today, obtaining a person's full genome from a good genetic sample takes:

a)

About a decade

b)

About a year

c)

About a month

d)

About a day

53.

What is the primary use of a karyotype?

a)

To create a library of DNA fragments

b)

To measure changes in pH during sequencing

c)

To determine the sequence of nucleotides in DNA

d)

To detect genetic disorders caused by missing or extra chromosomes

54.

What does VNTR stand for?

a)

Verified Number of Tandem Repeats

b)

Variable Nucleotide Tandem Repeats

c)

Very New Tandem Repeats

d)

Variable Number of Tandem Repeats

55.
The main goal of the Human Genome Project is to
a)
identify the unique parts of each person's DNA.
b)
identify genes responsible for human diseases.
c)
identify genes responsible for human behavior.
d)
determine the entire sequence of human DNA.
56.

True or False: The number of genes is determined by the complexity of the organism.

a)

True

b)

False

57.
What happens in the Denature step of PCR?
a)
The DNA nucleotides are broken apart.
b)
The base-pairing rules for DNA are reversed.
c)
The double-stranded DNA is separated into two single strands of DNA.
d)
The DNA is returned to its natural setting.
58.
What happens during the Anneal step of PCR?
a)
Primers are created.
b)
The primers attach to the target DNA region.
c)
Primers copy the new DNA strand.
d)
Primers sequence DNA
59.

What is the Extension step?

a)

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 5' end

b)

RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 5' end

c)

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' end

d)

RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' end

60.

During which PCR step do primers form complementary base pairs with single-stranded template DNA?

a)

Denaturation

b)

Annealing

c)

Extension

d)

Synthesis

61.

Observe the results above. What gene is present in the engineered plasmid?

a)

kanamycin resistant gene

b)

ampicillin resistant gene

c)

tetracycline resistant gene

d)

No plasmid is necessary to grow on plate 3.

62.

Examine the results for group 4. Why would this group see growth without RFP in the third plate?

a)

The bacteria cells did not transform.

b)

The bacteria cells transformed, but did not incorporate the plasmid containing the RFP gene.

c)

The bacteria cells transformed, but did not incorporate the plasmid with the arabinose gene.

d)

Group 4 did not observe growth in the third plate.

63.

What type of cut is this photo?

a)

Blunt

b)

sticky

64.

How many fragments resulted from the cut above?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

65.

What is the full form of BLAST?

a)

Basic Linear Alignment Search Tool

b)

Basic Local Alignment Search Tool

c)

Basic Local Analysis Search Tool

d)

Basic Linear Analysis Search Tool

66.

Most Popular Nucleotide Database is

a)

GenBank

b)

ENA

c)

DDBJ

d)

None

67.

Molecular consequences of an SNP can be

a)

Synonymous amino acid substitution

b)

Nonsynonymous amino acid substitution

c)

creation of a Stop codon

d)

All

68.
Why is it unwise to try to relate an organism's complexity with its size or number of cells?
a)
A very large organism may be composed of very few cells or very few cell types.
b)
A single-celled organism, such as a bacterium or a protist, still has to conduct all the complex life functions of a large multicellular organism.
c)
A single-celled organism that is also eukaryotic, such as a yeast, still reproduces mitotically.
d)
A simple organism can have a much larger genome.
e)
A complex organism can have a very small and simple genome.
69.
If humans have 2,900 Mb, a specific member of the lily family has 120,000 Mb, and a yeast has ~13 Mb, why can't this data allow us to order their evolutionary significance?
a)
Size matters less than gene density.
b)
Size does not compare to gene density.
c)
Size does not vary with gene complexity.
d)
Size is mostly due to "junk" DNA.
e)
Size is comparable only within phyla.
70.
Why might the cricket genome have 11 times as many base pairs as that of Drosophila melanogaster?
a)
The two insect species evolved at very different geologic eras.
b)
Crickets have higher gene density.
c)
Drosophila are more complex organisms.
d)
Crickets must have more noncoding DNA.
e)
Crickets must make many more proteins
71.

What characteristic of short tandem repeat DNA makes it useful for DNA fingerprinting?

a)

The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal.

b)

The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual.

c)

The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments.

d)

Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats.

72.
Compared to sticky ends, which are exposed bases, blunt ends___
a)
are made of repeating bases
b)
are paired bases
c)
are restricted bases
d)
are made of non complementary bases
73.

"transgenic" refers to an animal that:

a)

Has DNA from another organism spliced into its genome

b)

Has undergone DNA modification

c)

Has unique genes for its species

74.

How much of your genome is the same as everyone else’s genome?

a)

A. 1%

b)

B. 50%

c)

C. 99.9%

d)

D. 75%

75.

Which of these is a true statement?

a)

Both plasmids and viruses can serve as

vectors.

b)

Plasmids can carry recombinant DNA but

viruses cannot.

c)

Vectors carry only the foreign gene into the

host cell.

d)

All of these statements are true.

76.

Put the following phrases in order to form a

plasmid carrying recombinant DNA.

1. use restriction enzyme

2. use DNA ligase

3. remove plasmid from parent bacterium

4. introduce plasmid into new host bacterium

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

4, 3, 2, 1

c)

3, 1, 2, 4

d)

2, 3, 1, 4

77.

Which of the following is NOT needed to

make a recombinant DNA molecule?

a)

foreign DNA

b)

vector DNA

c)

restriction enzymes

d)

DNA ligase

e)

DNA polymerase

78.

Genetically engineered plants have or will

be used to

a)

resist insects

b)

resist herbicides

c)

produce protein-enhanced beans, corn, and wheat

d)

produce animal neuropeptides, blood factors, and growth hormones

e)

all of these are correct

79.

Which of the following is NOT a form of

genetic recombination in bacteria?

a)

binary fission

b)

conjugation

c)

transduction

d)

transformation

e)

All are forms of recombination.

80.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized below. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.


Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing include which of the following?

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

IV only

d)

I and II

81.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized below. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.


Which of the following best explains why there is no growth on plate II?

a)

The initial E. coli culture was not ampicillin resistant.

b)

The transformation procedure killed the bacteria.

c)

Nutrient agar inhibits E. coli growth.

d)

The bacteria on the plate were transformed.

82.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized below. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.


Plates I and III were included in the experimental design in order to

a)

demonstrate that the E. coli cultures were viable.

b)

demonstrate that the plasmid can lose its ampr gene.

c)

demonstrate that the plasmid is needed for E. coli growth.

d)

prepare the E. coli for transformation.

83.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized below. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.


Which of the following statements best explains why there are fewer colonies on plate IV than on plate III?

a)

Plate IV is the positive control.

b)

Not all E. coli cells are successfully transformed.

c)

The bacteria on plate III did not mutate.

d)

The plasmid inhibits E. coli growth.

84.

The DNA fragment indicated is approximately ____ base pairs in size.

a)

300

b)

450

c)

580

d)

610

e)

700

85.

Does suspect A have more or less repeats at TPO than the crime scene DNA?

a)

More

b)

Less

c)

The same

86.

Which suspect most likely committed the crime?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Neither

d)

Can't tell

87.

Lane showing most restriction sites

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

88.

Which of the following describes a plasmid? (Choose all that apply)

a)

part of the bacterial chromosome

b)

self-replicating, small and able to transform other bacteria

c)

found in eukaryotes

d)

exists within a cell separate from the bacterial chromosome

e)

able to be edited to include genes from other organisms

89.

If you start with two double stranded DNA strands, how many would there be after 3 thermal cycles of PCR?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

24

e)

32

90.

What percentage of the human genome codes for genes?

a)

1.5%

b)

5%

c)

10%

d)

25%

91.

The complete genomes of many organisms have been sequenced. The table shows the number of genes and base pairs in the genome of several species, as well as their haploid chromosome number (n). Which organism has the largest number of base pairs (bp) in their genome?

a)

Rice

b)

Capsicum

c)

Human

d)

Horse

92.

How can computer programs be used in genomics?

a)

To identify base sequences by looking for sequences similar to known genes.

b)

To create physical models of DNA structures.

c)

To synthesize new genes from scratch.

d)

To replace laboratory experiments entirely.

93.

Amino acid sequences can be compared to determine relationships between species. When comparing the sequences provided, which two organisms are humans most closely related to?

a)

horses and gorillas

b)

gorillas and chimpanzees

c)

chimpanzees and zebras

d)

zebras and horses

94.

When scientists compare the amino acid sequences for the red blood cell protein hemoglobin between various species, what can they determine about the evolutionary relationship between the species?

a)

It can be determined how efficient hemoglobin is for different species.

b)

It can determine relatedness between members of the same species.

c)

It can provide evidence about the relatedness of different species.

d)

It can show which species evolved first.

95.

This table shows the number of differences in amino acids of a protein when compared to humans. Which species is LEAST closely related to humans?

a)

Chimpanzee

b)

Fruit fly

c)

Horse

d)

Pigeon

e)

Rattlesnake

96.

Why can similarities in amino acid sequences be used to determine species relatedness?

a)

You are born with all of you amino acids

b)

amino acids control which DNA is used to build you

c)

DNA codes for amino acid sequences, so similar amino acid sequences indicate similar DNA

d)

amino acids cannot provide valid data on species relatedness

97.

A scientist wants to determine the function of a certain sequence of DNA in a snake. What might be the most reasonable approach?

a)

use RT-PCR to amplify and examine the sequence

b)

look for an identical sequence in another species, and perform a knockout experiment of this sequence in that species

c)

genetically engineer a mouse with a copy of the sequence and examine its phenotype

d)

prepare a genetically engineered bacterial culture with the new sequence

98.

DNA biotechnology has allowed scientists to identify many human genetic disorders, such as hemophilia and cystic fibrosis. When the gene has been amplified by PCR, the DNA is sequenced to determine whether the individual has the disease. If scientists decide to create a test for a new genetic disease, what must first occur before PCR can be used to test for that disease?

a)

the genome must be run through gel electrophoresis

b)

the gene for the disease must be located in the genome

c)

the complementary sequence specific to the gene must be created in the lab through cDNA

d)

it must be recombined into a bacterial cell through recombination

99.

In gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments will migrate towards the

a)

anode or positive electrode

b)

cathode or negative electrode

c)

anode or negative electrode

d)

neutral electrode

100.

The charge present on the DNA backbone is negative. The force required to accelerate the molecules towards anode is directly proportional to number of

a)

sugar molecules

b)

nitrogenous bases

c)

phosphate groups

d)

both A and C

101.

How is the size of molecules under analysis measured?

a)

by measuring the distance moved using a ruler

b)

by measuring the amount of dye seen under analysis

c)

by running a standard molecule, whose size is already known

d)

none of the above

102.

In PCR, _______ is from a thermophilic bacterium. It is highly resistant to heat, and does not denature easily.

a)

DNA Polymerase I

b)

DNA Polymerase II

c)

Taq

d)

Sigma