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Blood Coagulation & GPCR

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which component of the GPCR signaling pathway is Ras?

a)

Ligand

b)

GPCR

c)

G protein

d)

Enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction: ATP <-> cAMP

e)

secondary messenger

2.

Which component of the GPCR signaling pathway is Adenylyl Cyclase?

a)

Ligand

b)

GPCR

c)

GTPase activator protein (GAP)

d)

Enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction: ATP <-> cAMP

e)

Enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction: cAMP <-> 5'-AMP

3.

Which component of the GPCR signaling pathway is Epinephrine?

a)

GPCR

b)

Ligand

c)

G protein

d)

secondary messenger

e)

GTPase activator protein (GAP)

4.

How does Protein Kinase A (PKA) modulate GPCR signaling?

a)

phosphorylates other proteins

b)

dephosphorylates proteins

c)

degrades cAMP

d)

synthesizes cAMP

e)

cleaves a cytoplasmic portion the GPCR

5.

Turning OFF a previously activated GPCR signaling pathway is/are attributed to which of the following option(s)?

a)

Phosphorylation of the cytoplasmic domain of the GPCR leading to a decreased Kd value for GPCR : ligand binding

b)

Decreased expression of GAP proteins

c)

Decreased association between the α and β/γ subunits of the G protein

d)

Intrinsic GTPase activity of the α subunit of the G protein

e)

All of the above

6.

Which of the following, if any, would cause an increase in sensitivity for a given signal transduction pathway?

a)

A. Cleavage of the extracellular domain of a cell surface receptor, resulting in the following change in Kd value between the receptor and an agonist (a ligand that stimulates the pathway): 100 uM -> 1,000 uM

b)

B. Cooperative binding in a receptor that dimerizes

c)

C. An increase in endocytosis leading to a reduced # of receptors present at the cell membrane

d)

D. Options A & B only

e)

E. Options A, B, & C

7.

What kind of messenger is Epinephrine?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

8.

What kind of messenger is cAMP?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

9.

Which option best describes a zymogen?

a)

Zymogens are cleaved proteins that are "inactive"

b)

Zymogens are "full-length" proteins that are "active"

c)

Zymogens are "full-length" that are "inactive"

d)

Zymogens are cleaved proteins that are "active"

10.

Fibrinogen is ______; Fibrin is ______

a)

full length & soluble; cleaved & insoluble

b)

cleaved & soluble; full length & insoluble

c)

full length & insoluble; cleaved & soluble

d)

cleaved & insoluble; full length & soluble

11.

What is the mesh-like substance (i.e. looks like long strings) that is helping trap cells at the site of a blood clot?

a)

prothrombin

b)

thrombin

c)

fibrinogen

d)

fibrin

e)

platelets

12.

Factors VIIa and Thrombin play important roles in blood coagulation. Where are they normally found?

a)

Inside the red blood cells

b)

Inside the platelets

c)

Extracellular space (i.e. plasma)

13.

Which of the following activities of thrombin would lead to less blood coagulation?

a)

Cleavage of F XIII->XIIIa

b)

Cleavage of F XI->XIa

c)

Decreased levels of ATIII

d)

Decreased levels of TFPI

e)

None of the answers

14.

______ cleaves Fibrinogen into Fibrin.

a)

Thrombin

b)

Factor VIIIa

c)

Protein C

d)

Factor XIIIa

e)

Plasmin

15.

_______ cleaves fibrin polymers (after they have already formed) to smaller fragments, including D-dimers.

a)

Thrombin

b)

Plasmin

c)

Factor VIIa

d)

Protein C

e)

Factor XIIIa

16.

_______ is a zymogen.

a)

Prothrombin

b)

Factor VIIIa

c)

Factor XIIIa

d)

TFPI

17.

_______ directly converts "soft" clot to "hard" blood clot?

a)

Thrombin

b)

Protein C

c)

Factor XIIIa

d)

Factor VIIa

e)

Plasmin

18.

When a snake bites a squirrel vs. an adult human, it leads to different effects on blood clotting. Which option best explains how the snake venom would effect the smaller organism, like a squirrel?

a)

Lots of "mini" blood clots; blood remains liquid but unable to form specific blood clots

b)

Massive blood clots; all blood solidifies and is no longer liquid

19.

Which of the following options best describes the role of Vitamin K in blood coagulation?

a)

Prevents association of Thrombin with ATIII

b)

Promotes binding of Ca2+ to proteases

c)

Promotes cell division of platelets

d)

Recruits platelets to site of vascular injury

e)

Promotes association of Thrombin with ATIII

20.

Genetic screening indicates that a patient has a mutation in the gene that encodes for Protein C. The mutation destabilizes Protein C, resulting in its rapid degradation (i.e. lower overall protein levels). Would prescribing blood thinners be an appropriate treatment for this patient?

a)

yes

b)

no

21.

Genetic screening indicates that a patient has a mutation in the gene for factor XIII (13). This mutation results in overall less XIII protein levels. Would prescribing blood thinners be an appropriate treatment for this patient?

a)

yes

b)

no

22.

Upon analysis of a patient's blood sample, you discover that they have high levels of D-dimers. Would prescribing blood thinners be an appropriate treatment for this patient?

a)

yes

b)

no

23.

Genetic screening indicates that a patient has a mutation in the gene that encodes for factor VII. The mutation prevents TFPI from binding to factor VII. Would prescribing blood thinners be an appropriate treatment for this patient?

a)

yes

b)

no

24.

Genetic screening indicates that a patient has a mutation in the gene that encodes for Thrombin. The mutation results in the change of a single amino acid that greatly increases Thrombin's affinity for ATIII. Would prescribing blood thinners be an appropriate treatment for this patient?

a)

yes

b)

no

25.

Ligand (stars) bind to GPCR (rectangle), embedded in a lipid bilayer, and an associated G protein (circle) in the cytosol. Which option best highlights the behavior of a ligand that is a full antagonist?

a)

black

b)

grey

c)

white

26.

Which option best illustrates binding of Narcan to a GPCR?

a)

black

b)

grey

c)

white

27.

Interacts with βARK to facilitate receptor down-regulation

a)

Gα

b)

Gβγ

c)

GPCR

d)

Adenylyl Cyclase

e)

PKA

28.

Directly synthesizes a secondary messenger

a)

Gα

b)

Gβγ

c)

GPCR

d)

Adenylyl Cyclase

e)

PKA

29.

Interacts with effector proteins to inhibit or stimulate their activity

a)

Gα

b)

Gβγ

c)

GPCR

d)

Adenylyl Cyclase

e)

PKA

30.

Epinephrine is a/an _______; when it binds to βAR, a G-protein then ______ the effector protein.

a)

agonist; inhibits

b)

agonist, stimulates

c)

antagonist; inhibits

d)

antagonist; stimulates

31.

Vasopressin is a/an ______; when it binds to Vasopressin Receptor, a G-protein then ______ the effector protein.

a)

agonist; inhibits

b)

agonist; stimulates

c)

antagonist; inhibits

d)

antagonist; stimulates

32.

Narcan binds to a receptor ________?

a)

A. with a higher affinity than fentanyl

b)

B. with a lower affinity than fentanyl

c)

C. elicits a physiological response due to Gα dissociation from Gβγ

d)

D. Options A & C

e)

E. Options B & C

33.

During activation of a GPCR pathway, ______ is bound to ______?

a)

GTP, Gα

b)

GTP, Gβγ

c)

ATP, Gα

d)

ATP, βγ

e)

GDP, Gα

34.

cAMP binds directly to the ______ subunit of PKA (protein Kinase A), leading to _____ PKA activity?

a)

catalytic (C), increased

b)

catalytic (C), decreased

c)

regulatory (R), increased

d)

catalytic (R), decreased

35.

How does PKA modulate GPCR signaling?

a)

synthesizes cAMP from ATP

b)

degrades cAMP

c)

proteolytically cleaves GPCR

d)

phosphorylates other proteins

e)

recruits βARK, leading to desensitization

36.

True or False. Increased GEF activity results in increased GPCR signaling overall.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

True or False. Increased GAP activity results in decreased GPCR, signaling overall.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

True or False. The active form of Gα always results in increased secondary messenger levels.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which letter describes Ras?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

40.

Which letter describes Mutated in Carney Complex?

a)

B

b)

E

c)

AB

d)

AD

e)

AC

41.

Which letter describes Rhodopsin?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

42.

Which letter describes Adenylyl Cyclase?

a)

AB

b)

B

c)

A

d)

C

e)

D

43.

Which letter describes Epinephrine?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

E

d)

AC

e)

AD

44.

Which letter describes Fentanyl?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

AB

45.

Which letter describes Phosphodiesterase (PDE)?

a)

AC

b)

AD

c)

B

d)

C

e)

D

46.

Which mutation described below in PKA would generally be correlated with increased morbidity associated with cancer due to prolonger GPCR signaling and subsequent cell growth?

a)

Mutation in PKA catalytic subunit results in increased Km, decreased Vmax

b)

Mutation in PKA catalytic subunit results in decreased Kd for interaction with PKA regulatory subunit

c)

Mutation in PKA regulatory subunit that promotes its degradation

d)

Mutation in PKA regulatory subunit that increases Kd for interactions with downstream substrates for cell response

e)

None of the options, all of the options would be correlated with less cell proliferation

47.

True or False. All Gα subunits bind to GTP or GDP and have GTPase activity.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

True or False. All Gα subunits, when bound to GTP, activate effector proteins.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

True or False. Most antagonists prevent physiological responses by binding to agonists and subsequently preventing the agonist from binding to GPCR's.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which is a "natural" opioid?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Naloxone

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Morphine

51.

Which is a "synthetic" opioid?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Naloxone

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Morphine

52.

Binding of which of these to a GPCR would result in MINIMUM dissociation of Gα from G𝛽𝛾

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Naloxone

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Morphine

53.

Which is a partial agonist?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Naloxone

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Morphine

54.

Which is an antagonist?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Naloxone

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Morphine

55.

Which is an agonist?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Naloxone

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Morphine

56.

Which is used to treat active opioid overdose?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Naloxone

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Morphine

57.

Which is used to treat patients in remission (i.e. suffering from withdrawal symptoms)?

a)

Fentanyl

b)

Naloxone

c)

Buprenorphine

d)

Morphine

58.

Which mutation(s) in Ras would be correlated with increased morbidity in cancer patients?

a)

Gα, GTPase activity is increased

b)

Gα, GTPase activity is decreased

c)

Kd for Ras and AC is increased

d)

Kd for Ras and AC is decreased

59.

Which subunit of PKA binds to cAMP?

a)

Regulatory subunit of PKA

b)

Catalytic subunit of PKA

c)

Both the regulatory and catalytic subunit

d)

none of the options; cAMP binds to GPCR's

60.

What does PKA do?

a)

binds to epinephrine

b)

phosphorylates downstream targets

c)

palmitoylates G-proteins

d)

synthesizes secondary messengers

e)

promotes GTP dissociation from G proteins and association of GDP

61.

Which of the following best characterizes the INACTIVE state of PKA?

a)

GDP binds to the catalytic subunit of PKA

b)

cAMP binds to catalytic subunit of PKA

c)

cAMP binds to regulatory subunit of PKA

d)

regulatory subunit of PKA binds to catalytic subunit of PKA

e)

PKA exists in its "full-length" form (i.e. is not yet cleaved)

62.

Which mutations would be associated with increased morbidity for patients with Carney syndrome?

a)

Mutation in surface of R that binds C cleft, leading to increased Kd

b)

Mutation in R that causes its unfolding and subsequent rapid degradation

c)

Mutation that prevents cAMP binding

63.

True or False. Ligand binding to all GPCR's results in more secondary messengers being synthesized.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Which types of mutations(s) in the gene(s) for PKA (R & C subunits) would be more correlated with cancer? Why?

a)

PKA, regulatory subunit has increased affinity for catalytic subunit

b)

PKA, regulatory subunit has decreased affinity for catalytic subunit

c)

PKA, catalytic subunit has decreased Km, but no change in Vmax

d)

PKA, catalytic has decreased Vmax and increased Km

65.

What does the word, "active" mean in the context of the G protein in this figure?

a)

Increased GTPase activity

b)

Increased binding to effectors

66.

What causes a transition from the "inactive" to "active" form of the G protein?

a)

Phosphorylation of G protein by
β-arrestin (β-AR)

b)

Dephosphorylation of G proteins by β-arrestin (β-AR)

c)

Binding of GDP to G protein

d)

Binding of GTP to G protein

67.

GAPs do which of the following?

a)

Stimulate intrinsic GTPase activity of G proteins

b)

Inhibit intrinsic GTPase activity of G proteins

c)

Promote dissociation of GDP and association of GTP

d)

Promote dissociation of GTP and association of GDP

e)

None of the options

68.

GAPs are ______ of some G protein enzymatic activity.

a)

inhibitors, likely competitive

b)

inhibitors, likely non-competitive, un-competitive, or mixed

c)

inhibitors, likely irreversible

d)

stimulators

e)

none of the options

69.

GAPs directly promote the _____ form _____ G proteins.

a)

active, α

b)

active, βγ

c)

inactive, α

d)

inactive, βγ

e)

none; doesn't directly alter G protein activity

70.

GAPs most directly do which of the following to duration of signaling?

a)

increase duration of signaling initiated by ligand binding to GPCR

b)

decrease duration of signaling initiated by ligand binding to GPCR

c)

increase the diversity of ligands that bind to GPCRs on a cell

d)

decrease the diversity of ligands that bind to GPCRs on a cell

e)

none of the options

71.

GAPs primarily impact _____ of GPCR signaling.

a)

sensitivity

b)

specificity

72.

GEFs do which of the following?

a)

stimulate intrinsic GTPase activity of G proteins

b)

inhibit intrinsic GTPase activity of G proteins

c)

Promote dissociation of GDP and association of GTP

d)

Promote dissociation of GTP and association of GDP

e)

none of the options

73.

GEFs are _____ of some G protein enzymatic activity.

a)

inhibitors, likely competitive

b)

inhibitors, likely non-competitive, un-competitive, or mixed

c)

inhibitors, likely irreversible

d)

stimulators

e)

none of the options

74.

GEFs directly promote the _____ form of ______ G proteins.

a)

active, α

b)

active, βγ

c)

inactive, α

d)

inactive, βγ

e)

none; doesn't directly alter G protein activity

75.

Which binds to GPCR?

a)

antagonist

b)

agonist

c)

both, antagonist and agonist

d)

neither antagonist nor agonist

76.

Which elicits a physiological response?

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

c)

both, antagonist and agonist

d)

neither antagonist nor agonist

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