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Neuroanatomy Final

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are histologic changes observed in degenerating axons?

a)

Swelling of the cell body

b)

Mitosis

c)

Nuclear displacement to an eccentric position

d)

Dispersion of ribosomes

2.

True or false: During Wallerian degeneration, the proximal axon dies and the myelin retracts.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

a)

The Glia of the CNS secrete growth factors

b)

The PNS has endoneurium

c)

Glia in the CNS express inhibitory molecules to inhibit axonal outgrowth

d)

The PNS Scwann cells make growth factors which encourage axonal outgrowth

4.

Which of the following is NOT TRUE in order for nerve re-growth to be successful?

a)

The nerve must enter the appropriate endoneurial tube

b)

There must be a functional connection with the target

c)

There must be an accurate apposition of perineurial sheaths

d)

There must be formation of a scar

5.

True or false: the reticular formation is located in the cerebral cortex.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which of the following IS NOT TRUE of the role of the reticular formation in consciousness?

a)

The reticular formation wakes up the cortex by stimulating the thalamus

b)

Decreased activity of the Ascending Reticular Activating System (ARAS) allows you to fall asleep.

c)

The pontine reticular formation is necessary for sleep

d)

The reticular formation receives inputs from the CTZ for sleep

7.

Which of the following nerves are involved in swallowing?

a)

VIII

b)

X

c)

XI

d)

IX

8.

Which of the following are inputs to cause vomiting?

a)

Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ)

b)

Vestibular System

c)

Afferent signals from the stomach and small intestine via the nucleus of the solitary tract (X)

d)

Ascending Reticular Activating System (ARAS)

9.

True or false: The pontine reticulospinal tract (ventral funiculus, ipsilateral, excite extensors) and the medullary reticulospinal tract (lateral funiculus, ipsilateral, excite flexors) are how the reticular formation act on motor function.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Where are pre-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons located?

a)

Thoracolumbar cord segments T1-L3

b)

Brain Stem

c)

Sacral cord segments S2, S3

d)

In the wall of the target tissue

11.

Which of the following causes pupillary dilation and smooth muscle constriction?

a)

Parasympathetic

b)

Sympathetic

12.

What type of receptors does norepinephrine from sympathetic post-ganglionic axons go to?

a)

Adrenergic

b)

Muscarinic

c)

Nicotinic

13.

What type of receptors does acetylcholine from parasympathetic and sympathetic pre-ganglionic axons go to?

a)

Adrenergic

b)

Muscarinic

c)

Nicotinic

14.

What type of receptors does acetylcholine from parasympathetic post-ganglionic axons go to?

a)

Adrenergic

b)

Muscarinic

c)

Nicotinic

15.

True or false: Horner's Syndrome is characterized by an inability to dilate the pupil, inability to sweat on the affected side ptosis (prolapsed eyelid), enopthalmus (slight retraction of the eyeball), and vasodilation.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What nerve functions in inhibiting detrusor muscle contraction and constricting the internal urethral sphincter?

a)

Pelvic nerve (Parasympathetic)

b)

Pudendal nerve (somatic)

c)

Hypogastric nerve (sympathetic)

d)

Sciatic nerve (somatic)

17.

What nerve stimulates the contraction of the detrusor muscle?

a)

Hypogastric (sympathetic)

b)

Pelvic (parasympathetic)

c)

Pudendal (somatic)

d)

Sciatic (somatic)

18.

What tract sends sensory signals to the pontine micturition center and cerebral cortex to report filling of the bladder?

a)

Spinothalamic

b)

Pontine reticulospinal

c)

Corticospinal

d)

Rubrospinal

19.

What tract allows the cerebral cortex to inhibit the micturition center and voluntarily release the external urethral sphincter? (house-training!)

a)

Spinothalamic

b)

Corticospinal

c)

Rubrospinal

d)

Pontine reticulospinal

20.

Phillip's pet miniature dachshund, Hannah, got stepped on by Phillip and caused a severe lesion in the thoracic region! Will her bladder leak or fill?

a)

Leak

b)

Fill

21.

Where is the vestibular organ located?

a)

Tibia

b)

Petrous temporal bone

c)

Squamous temporal bone

d)

Frontal bone

22.

________ detects the linear motion of the head.

a)

Utricle

b)

Saccule

c)

Semicircular ducts

23.

What detects straight up and down motion of the head?

a)

Utricle

b)

Saccule

c)

Semicircular canals

24.

Deflection of the stereocilia away from the kinocilium will result in a(n) ________ in firing rate.

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

25.

What fluid fills the osseous labyrinth?

a)

Perilymph

b)

Endolymph

26.

What structure(s) utilize a statoconial membrane with statoconia to sense changes in head position?

a)

Semicircular canals

b)

Utricle

c)

Saccule

27.

If you tilt your head in the direction show, will the kinocilium and stereocilia be pushed clockwise or counterclockwise?

a)

Clockwise (opposite direction of head movement)

b)

Counterclockwise (same direction as head movement)

28.

True or false: The gelatinous substance of the macula extends from the sensory epithelium to the membranous labyrinth (the roof of the macula).

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Which duct(s) is/are found in a vertical plane?

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Lateral

30.

Where do the vestibulospinal tracts run?

a)

Dorsal funiculus

b)

Ventral funiculus

c)

Lateral funiculus

31.

What reflex involves changing eye position in response to a change in head position and triggers physiologic nystagmus?

a)

Vestibulospinal reflex

b)

Vestibulo-ocular reflex

c)

Auditory reflex

32.

If your patient is falling to the right and its quick phase nystagmus is to the left and there are no signs of hypermetria, what side of the vestibular nuclei/nerve/organ is lesioned?

a)

Right

b)

Left

33.

Which of the following is a motor system function?

a)

Reflexes

b)

Posture

c)

Locomotion

d)

Balance

e)

Directed movement

34.

Which cranial nerves are involved in the vestibulo-ocular reflex?

a)

III

b)

V

c)

IV

d)

VI

e)

VIII

35.

True or false: Lower motor neurons excite smooth muscles.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

When you step on a Lego in the middle of the night, what reflexes are activated?

a)

Flexor reflex

b)

Crossed extensor reflex

c)

Auditory reflex

d)

Ouch reflex

37.

Identify what would be labeled in blue on the picture.

a)

Extensor

b)

Flexor

38.

Are the Upper Motor Neurons and Lower Motor Neurons excitatory or inhibitory in function?

a)

Excitatory

b)

Inhibitory

c)

Both!

39.

What tract begins in the primary motor cortex and terminates in the motor nuclei of the brainstem?

a)

Corticonuclear

b)

Corticospinal

c)

Reticulospinal

d)

Rubrospinal

40.

What tract from the primary motor cortex innervates interneurons?

a)

Corticonuclear

b)

Corticospinal

c)

Rubrospinal

d)

Reticulospinal

41.

Toxins from Clostridium tetani prevent the release of neurotransmitters from which type of neuron?

a)

Lower motor neuron

b)

Renshaw cells

c)

Interneurons

42.

Which of the following descending motor tracts run within the lateral funiculus?

a)

Lateral corticospinal

b)

Lateral vestibulospinal

c)

Rubrospinal

d)

Pontine reticulospinal

e)

Medullary reticulospinal

43.

Posture is modulated by what structure?

a)

Reticular formation

b)

cerebrum

c)

cerebellum

d)

vestibular nucleus

44.

An animal is experiencing paralysis with hyperreflexia, where is the lesion located?

a)

lower motor neuron

b)

upper motor neuron

45.

T/F: Descending tracts have a net excitatory effect.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The organization of the cerebellar cortex, from outermost to innermost, goes as follows:

a)

granule cell layer, molecular layer, purkinje cell layer

b)

purkinje cell layer, granule cell layer, molecular layer

c)

molecular layer, purkinje cell layer, granule cell layer

d)

molecular layer, granule cell layer, purkinje cell layer

47.

Choose the dorsally visible structures of the cerebellum.

a)

Vermis

b)

Cerebellar hemisphere

c)

nodulus

d)

cerebellar peduncles

e)

flocculus

48.

Purkinje cells are ________, while cerebellar nuclei are ________.

a)

excitatory, excitatory

b)

inhibitory, inhibitory

c)

excitatory, inhibitory

d)

inhibitory, excitatory

49.

Output from the cerebellum is excitatory, EXCEPT when the target is what?

a)

Vestibular nuclei

b)

Thalamus

c)

Reticular formation

d)

Red nucleus

50.

T/F: goal directed movement, posture, and balance are modulated by the pontocerebellar, spinocerebellar, and vestibulocerebellar modules, respectively.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Cerebellar hypoplasia can be classified as what?

a)

Death of purkinje cells

b)

underdevelopment of cerebellum

c)

absence of a cerebellum

52.

T/F: If the limbus of the fibrous tunic is damaged, then you are unable to do a corneal transplant.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which are differences between the cornea and the sclera?

a)

cornea has no blood vessels

b)

cornea is a regularly organized stroma

c)

cornea has no nerve endings

54.

What is the purpose of the pigment within the choroid?

a)

reflect incoming light

b)

absorb stray light

c)

to look cool

d)

to protect the underlying vasculature

55.

Which is true about the Tapetum Lucidum

a)

It is poor in zinc

b)

it enhances low light vision

c)

Absorbs light

d)

Located in the ventral half of the globe

56.

T/F: The ciliary epithelium located on the ciliary processes of the ciliary body produce Vitreous humor.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

As the ciliary muscle _______, the lens _______ in thickness.

a)

contracts, decreases

b)

relaxes, increases

c)

contracts, increases

d)

contracts, does not change

58.

T/F: The pupil is an empty space surrounded by the Iris, not a physical space.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which label is on the Posterior chamber?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

60.

Which order best describes the flow of Aqueous humor?

a)

4 --> 2 --> 3

b)

3 --> 2 --> 4

c)

1 --> 2 --> 3

d)

1 --> 4 --> 2 --> 3

61.

Which label is located in the Posterior segment?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

62.

Which layer of the retina forms the optic nerve?

a)

outer nuclear layer

b)

inner nuclear layer

c)

ganglion cell layer

63.

T/F: RPE65 is the main enzyme that converts 11-cis retinol into all-trans retinyl esters

a)

True

b)

False

64.

T/F: Most photoreceptors are rods

a)

True

b)

False

65.

The pretectal nucleus projects to what?

a)

Cortex

b)

parasympathetic nucleus of III

c)

tectum

66.

The rostral colliculus projects to the _______ descending tracts.

a)

ipsilateral

b)

contralateral

67.

The Pupillary light reflex is what kind of a response?

a)

parasympathetic

b)

sympathetic

c)

somatic

68.

Accommodation is described as what?

a)

Ability to focus on objects at varying distances

b)

ability of the iris to dilate and constrict

c)

getting comfortable after moving into a new home

69.

Which auditory ossicle is directly pressed against the tympanic membrane?

a)

Malleus

b)

Incus

c)

Stapes

70.

The middle and inner ear are separated by what structure?

a)

Cochlear window

b)

Tympanic membrane

c)

Nictitating membrane

d)

Vestibular window

71.

T/F: The endolymph located in the scala vestibuli and scale tympani is high in K+.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The basilar membrane gets _______ as it approaches the apex, thus is able to detect _______ frequencies.

a)

narrower, lower

b)

narrower, higher

c)

wider, lower

d)

wider, higher

73.

What is the second messenger that allows the sensory hair cells to release neurotransmitter onto the cochlear nerve?

a)

Ca2+

b)

K+

c)

IP3

74.

T/F: All fibers of the cochlear nerve terminate in the cochlear nuclei.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

What allows for localization of sound?

a)

delay between ears

b)

relative volume difference between the ears

c)

magic

d)

difference in path length to ipsilateral and contralateral dorsal nucleus of trapezoid body

76.

The Acoustic startle reflex utilizes what structures?

a)

caudal colliculus

b)

rostral colliculus

c)

tectospinal tract

d)

medial geniculate nucleus

77.

The Tensor tympani muscle and stapedius muscle are innervated by which cranial nerves, respectively

a)

CN V, CN V

b)

CN VII, CN VII

c)

CN VII, CN V

d)

CN V, CN VII