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WorksheetsBiology Mid-Year Review
Total questions: 150
Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins
Which of the following best explains why pseudoscience does not meet the criteria of science?
It relies too heavily on quantitative data
It cannot be tested or potentially falsified
It changes too often based on new evidence
It requires peer review but not replication
A student claims that a scientific idea must remain unchanged to be considered reliable. Which CONPTT principle contradicts this statement?
Consistent
Observable
Predictable
Tentative
A biologist measures how plant growth changes when soil pH is altered. Which variable is the independent variable?
Height of the plant
Type of plant used
Soil pH
Amount of water added
Which scenario best represents a scientific investigation, not a controlled experiment?
Measuring reaction speed at different temperatures
Observing dolphin communication patterns for 6 months
Testing how fertilizer amount affects bean germination
Measuring mass loss during a chemical reaction
Which of the following statements about hypotheses is accurate?
A hypothesis is proven correct if data supports it
A hypothesis is an educated guess with no basis in prior knowledge
A hypothesis can be supported or not supported by data
A hypothesis must be rewritten every time results differ
Which of the following is the best example of a properly structured scientific question?
Why do plants grow?
How does light affect plant growth?
Will plants grow differently?
What will happen if plants receive sunlight?
A researcher conducts 25 trials of an experiment before drawing conclusions. Which statement best explains why this improves validity?
More trials increase the natural phenomena involved
Repetition increases the consistency and reliability of the results
More trials allow changing multiple variables at once
Repetition reduces the need for a control group
Why is replication by other scientists essential in experimental design?
It allows other scientists to rewrite the original hypothesis
It ensures the results are consistent when the procedure is repeated
It gives scientists a chance to improve the data table format
It eliminates the need for controlled variables
A student writes the following statement: "If the amount of caffeine a person consumes increases, then their heart rate will increase because caffeine is a stimulant." Which part of a hypothesis does this sentence represent?
It is invalid because it includes a reason ("because…")
It identifies both IV and DV and gives a predicted relationship
It should not include prior knowledge
It is inaccurate because it uses an "if/then" format
In a well-designed controlled experiment, the control group is essential because it:
Receives the independent variable first
Increases the number of dependent variables
Serves as a baseline to compare experimental results
Eliminates the need for repetition
What causes the polarity of a water molecule?
Equal sharing of electrons between hydrogen and oxygen
Unequal sharing of electrons, giving oxygen a partial negative charge
Attraction between two water molecules
The high specific heat of water
Hydrogen bonds form between water molecules because:
The covalent bonds within each molecule are weak
Opposite partial charges on different molecules attract each other
Electrons are transferred between water molecules
Water molecules are nonpolar
Why is water considered the “universal solvent”?
It dissolves only nonpolar molecules
It reacts chemically with most solutes
Its polarity allows it to easily dissolve many polar and ionic substances
It has no partial charges
Which property of water explains why certain insects can walk on the surface of water?
Adhesion
Universal solvent
High specific heat
Cohesion
Capillary action in plants results from which combination of water properties?
Cohesion and high specific heat
Adhesion and cohesion
Polarity and freezing
Solubility and surface tension
Why does water require a large amount of energy to increase in temperature?
Water molecules repel each other strongly
Ice is denser than liquid water
Hydrogen bonds must be broken before molecules can move faster
Water contains no intermolecular forces
When salt dissolves in water, the salt is considered the:
Solvent
Solute
Solution
Hydrogen bond
Which statement correctly explains why ice floats on liquid water?
Ice is more dense than liquid water
Water molecules contract when they freeze
The structure of water expands upon freezing, decreasing density
Freezing removes all hydrogen bonds
A drop of water clings to the side of a glass slide. This observation best demonstrates:
Cohesion
Adhesion
Surface tension
High specific heat
A lake stays insulated in winter because:
Ice sinks, cooling the water below
Ice floats, forming a layer that traps heat in the water beneath
Frozen water loses all polarity
Water cannot freeze above 0°C
Which of the following correctly matches a macromolecule with its monomer?
Carbohydrates – amino acids
Lipids – nucleotides
Proteins – fatty acids
Nucleic acids – nucleotides
Which statement best explains why carbohydrates are ideal for quick energy?
They contain nitrogen, which speeds up chemical reactions
Their monosaccharides can be rapidly broken down for cellular respiration
Which pair correctly identifies a disaccharide and its biological role?
Glucose – main energy molecule produced by plants
Sucrose – transports sugar in plants through the phloem
Cellulose – long-term energy storage in animals
Glycogen – structural support in plant cell walls
What structural feature distinguishes proteins from carbohydrates and lipids?
Presence of hydrogen
R-group (side chain) on the monomer
Long chains of monosaccharides
Ability to form colloidal suspensions
Polysaccharides differ from monosaccharides in that they:
Are sweet to the taste and dissolve easily in water
Must be digested before absorption and do not form true solutions
Are made only of lipids
Contain nitrogen and phosphorus
A lipid contains the elements CHO, but with far less oxygen than carbohydrates. Which lipid is used primarily for long-term energy storage?
Phospholipid
Triglyceride
Steroid
Cellulose
Which statement best describes the structure of a phospholipid in relation to its function?
Its hydrophobic nature makes it dissolve easily in water
Its insolubility in water helps form the cell membrane
Its amino acids form hydrogen bonds in the membrane
Its nucleotides store genetic information
Which macromolecule contains the instructions for building all proteins in living organisms?
Lipids
Polysaccharides
Nucleic acids
Triglycerides
ATP is classified as a nucleic acid because:
It stores long-term energy in fat molecules
It is composed of amino acids linked together
It contains a nucleotide structure with a phosphate group
It forms part of the cell membrane
Which of the following macromolecules is MOST directly involved in growth, repair, and enzyme function?
Lipids
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Which evidence provides the earliest support for life on Earth?
Miller-Urey experiment results
Stromatolite fossils in Western Australia dating to ~3.5 billion years ago
Formation of proteinoids by Sidney Fox
Pasteur’s sterile broth experiment
According to Oparin, what characteristic of the early Earth’s atmosphere allowed life to originate?
Oxygen-rich atmosphere
Reducing (oxygen-poor) atmosphere
High levels of nitrogen only
Presence of complex DNA molecules
The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated that:
Organic molecules such as amino acids can form from simple gases under conditions simulating early Earth
Life spontaneously arises from nutrient-rich broth in sealed flasks
Complex DNA molecules assembled in the early atmosphere without precursors
Early Earth’s atmosphere contained abundant free oxygen supporting modern life
Sidney Fox showed that amino acids could:
Form DNA spontaneously
Link together when heated without water to form protein-like structures called proteinoids
Survive in the presence of oxygen-rich atmospheres
Be synthesized only inside living cells
Louis Pasteur’s experiments led to which scientific principle?
Spontaneous generation
Biogenesis – life arises only from pre-existing life
Reducing atmosphere hypothesis
Endosymbiotic theory
The Endosymbiotic Theory primarily explains:
How stromatolites formed 3.5 billion years ago
How mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from symbiotic prokaryotic cells
How proteins form from amino acids
How the Miller-Urey experiment simulates early Earth
Which of the following statements about mitochondria and chloroplasts is true according to the Endosymbiotic Theory?
Both organelles are found in all prokaryotic cells
Chloroplasts originated from engulfed cyanobacteria, and mitochondria from another prokaryotic cell
Both organelles arose spontaneously from nonliving molecules
Mitochondria are only found in plant cells
Why was Oparin skeptical that life could originate under current Earth conditions?
Modern Earth has too few amino acids
The current atmosphere is oxidizing rather than reducing
Water cannot exist as a liquid today
Lightning no longer provides energy
Which combination of scientists and contributions is correct?
Miller-Urey – disproved spontaneous generation
Pasteur – synthesized amino acids under reducing conditions
Fox – formed proteinoids from amino acids
Margulis – first created Miller-Urey apparatus
The “primordial soup” hypothesis refers to:
The formation of oceans on early Earth
Accumulation of organic molecules in early Earth’s oceans, leading to life
Pasteur’s sterile broth experiment
Symbiotic bacteria forming mitochondria
Which scientist is credited with proposing that all plants are made of cells?
Theodor Schwann
Matthias Schleiden
Rudolph Virchow
Louis Pasteur
The third part of the cell theory, “all cells come from pre-existing cells,” was proposed by:
Schleiden
Schwann
Virchow
Margulis
Which of the following statements is NOT part of the cell theory?
All organisms are made of one or more cells
Cells are the basic unit of life
Cells can spontaneously appear from nonliving matter
All cells come from pre-existing cells
Which type of organism consists of only a single cell?
Multicellular organism
Unicellular organism
Prokaryotic only
Eukaryotic only
A compound microscope has high magnification but low resolution. Which of the following is a correct use for it?
Viewing large, three-dimensional specimens during dissection
Observing living individual cells
Examining the exterior of a gold-coated specimen
Passing electrons through thin slices of a specimen
Which microscope produces a 3-D image of the exterior of a specimen and requires coating the specimen in gold?
Compound microscope
Dissection microscope
Scanning electron microscope
Transmission electron microscope
Which microscope allows electrons to pass through thin slices of a specimen to create a 2-D image with high magnification and high resolution?
Compound microscope
Dissection microscope
Scanning electron microscope
Transmission electron microscope
Which statement about dissection microscopes is accurate?
They have high magnification and can see individual cells
They produce 2-D images only
They are used to view larger specimens in 3-D
They require coating the specimen with metal
The collaboration between Schleiden and Schwann led to the development of:
The endosymbiotic theory
The first two parts of the cell theory
The discovery of DNA
The idea of spontaneous generation
Scientific theories differ from hypotheses in that theories:
Are single, untested predictions
Seek to explain phenomena and are supported by multiple lines of evidence
Cannot be modified based on new data
Are only accepted if experiments are performed by one scientist
Which of the following structures is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Nucleus
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Chloroplast
Which statement correctly describes prokaryotic cells?
They have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles
They are always multicellular
They have DNA in the form of a circular plasmid and no nucleus
They contain chloroplasts for photosynthesis
Flagella in prokaryotic cells are used for:
Photosynthesis
Cellular respiration
Movement
Protein synthesis
Which organelle is responsible for packaging and moving proteins to the outside of the eukaryotic cell?
Ribosome
Golgi apparatus
Rough ER
Mitochondria
What is the primary function of the chloroplast in plant cells?
Cellular respiration
Protein synthesis
Photosynthesis
Storage of water
The rough endoplasmic reticulum is specialized for:
Making and transporting proteins
Making and transporting lipids
Producing ATP
Digesting cellular waste
In plant cells, which structure works with the cell wall to maintain shape and store water?
Chloroplast
Large central vacuole
Mitochondria
Lysosome
How do cilia differ from flagella in eukaryotic cells?
Cilia are longer than flagella
Cilia are short hair-like projections; flagella are long whip-like structures
Cilia are found only in prokaryotes
Cilia produce ATP for the cell
Which organelle is the site of ATP production in eukaryotic cells?
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Smooth ER
Which statement correctly describes the pathway of protein production in eukaryotic cells?
Proteins are produced in the nucleus, move through the Golgi, and are packaged by the ribosome
Proteins are produced in the ribosome, move through the ER, and are packaged by the Golgi apparatus
Proteins are produced in the mitochondria and stored in the vacuole
Proteins are synthesized in the chloroplast and transported by lysosomes
Which part of a phospholipid is hydrophilic?
Fatty acid tails
Phosphate head
Glycerol backbone
Cholesterol molecule
The cell membrane is described as a “fluid mosaic model” because:
It is rigid and solid
Phospholipids and proteins move laterally, creating flexibility
It contains only proteins and cholesterol
Molecules cannot pass through it
Which statement about the cell membrane is correct?
It is impermeable to all substances
It is selectively permeable, allowing some substances in and out while restricting others
It consists solely of phospholipids
It is static and cannot move
Which process does NOT require cellular energy (ATP)?
Osmosis
Endocytosis
Protein pumps
Exocytosis
In which type of solution does a cell swell as water enters?
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Facilitated
Facilitated diffusion differs from simple diffusion because:
It moves molecules from low to high concentration
It requires protein channels to transport large or polar molecules
It always uses ATP
It moves water only
Which of the following correctly pairs a transport process with its mechanism?
Phagocytosis – cell uses a vesicle to release molecules
Exocytosis – cell engulfs large particles
Protein pump – molecules are actively transported using energy
Osmosis – requires ATP to move solutes
Hypertonic solutions cause water to:
Enter the cell, swelling it
Leave the cell, causing it to shrivel
Remain balanced inside and outside the cell
Move only through protein channels
Which components help maintain membrane fluidity?
Saturated fatty acid tails
Unsaturated fatty acid tails
Carbohydrate chains only
Cytoplasm
Which correctly describes endocytosis?
Large molecules are engulfed into the cell using vesicles
Molecules exit the cell via vesicles
Small molecules diffuse freely across the membrane
Water moves from low to high concentration
Which of the following are the reactants of photosynthesis?
Glucose and oxygen
Water, carbon dioxide, and sunlight
ATP and oxygen
Carbon dioxide and glucose
Where does photosynthesis occur in plant cells?
Mitochondria
Cytoplasm
Chloroplast
Nucleus
What is the primary role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?
Break down glucose into ATP
Collect sunlight energy to drive chemical reactions
Transport water from roots to leaves
Release carbon dioxide
Which structure in the leaf allows carbon dioxide to enter and oxygen to exit?
Xylem
Stomata
Phloem
Chloroplast
Aerobic respiration produces approximately how many ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule?
2
12
36
100
Where does aerobic cellular respiration occur?
Chloroplast
Cytoplasm
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Anaerobic respiration differs from aerobic respiration in that it:
Requires oxygen
Produces more ATP per glucose molecule
Occurs in the cytoplasm and produces less ATP
Only occurs in plant cells
Lactic acid fermentation is an example of:
Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration
Photosynthesis
Alcoholic fermentation
Alcoholic fermentation produces which byproducts?
Lactic acid and ATP
Ethanol and ATP
Oxygen and glucose
Carbon dioxide only
How are photosynthesis and aerobic respiration interrelated?
Photosynthesis creates glucose and oxygen, which are used in respiration; respiration produces CO2 and H2O, which are used in photosynthesis
Photosynthesis only occurs at night; respiration only occurs during the day
Both produce lactic acid as a byproduct
Respiration occurs in plants; photosynthesis occurs in animals
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by:
Increasing the activation energy
Providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy
Changing the substrate permanently
Acting as a source of energy
Which term describes the specific region of an enzyme where the substrate binds?
Cofactor
Active site
Denaturation site
Ribosome
What happens to an enzyme when it is denatured?
It works faster
Its shape changes and it can no longer bind the substrate
It becomes more specific for its substrate
It turns into ATP
Which of the following can denature an enzyme?
Optimal temperature
Optimal pH
Excessively high temperature or extreme pH
Moderate substrate concentration
How does substrate concentration affect enzyme activity?
Increasing substrate always slows the reaction
Reaction rate increases until enzymes are saturated, then plateaus
Substrate concentration has no effect
Reaction stops if substrate concentration is low
Which protein structure level describes the folding of a coiled polypeptide into a three-dimensional shape?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary
Hemoglobin, actin, and myosin are examples of proteins that function in:
Digestion, oxygen transport, and movement
Photosynthesis, cellular respiration, and fermentation
ATP production, lipid transport, and DNA replication
Cell wall formation, vacuole storage, and endocytosis
Which statement best explains enzyme specificity?
Enzymes can catalyze any reaction in the cell
Each enzyme has a 3-D shape that only fits a specific substrate
Enzymes work best at extremely high temperatures
Enzyme activity is random and unpredictable
What is the main function of antibodies in living organisms?
Transport oxygen
Facilitate muscular contraction
Defend the body against foreign invaders like bacteria and viruses
Digest food
The primary structure of a protein is:
Two or more polypeptide chains linked together
The three-dimensional folding of a polypeptide chain
A single, linear sequence of amino acids
Coiled or pleated sections of the polypeptide chain
DNA is described as a “twisted ladder” because it is shaped like:
A single strand
A double helix
A triple helix
A circular plasmid
Which of the following correctly pairs DNA bases according to the Base Pairing Rule?
Adenine – Guanine, Cytosine – Thymine
Adenine – Thymine, Guanine – Cytosine
Adenine – Cytosine, Guanine – Thymine
Adenine – Uracil, Guanine – Cytosine
What type of bond connects the nitrogenous bases in a DNA molecule?
Covalent bonds
Ionic bonds
Hydrogen bonds
Peptide bonds
During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
Mitosis
Cytokinesis
Interphase
Anaphase
Which enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds?
DNA Polymerase
Ligase
Helicase
Primase
What is the main function of DNA Polymerase?
Unwinds the DNA molecule
Assembles new nucleotides into a DNA strand and proofreads the sequence
Creates a primer for replication
Seals gaps between DNA fragments
Ligase is responsible for:
Starting DNA replication
Proofreading the DNA
Binding free-floating nucleotides to the DNA strand
Creating a primer for DNA Polymerase
Primase plays an essential role in DNA replication by:
Unwinding the DNA double helix
Synthesizing an RNA primer to initiate replication
Proofreading DNA sequences
Joining Okazaki fragments
DNA stores genetic information in:
Proteins
Amino acids
Nitrogenous base sequences
Ribosomes
Which of the following statements is TRUE about DNA replication?
DNA replication produces two identical DNA molecules
DNA replication occurs after mitosis
Helicase joins nucleotides together
Only one enzyme is needed for DNA replication
Which of the following correctly describes RNA?
Double-stranded, contains thymine, deoxyribose sugar
Single-stranded, contains uracil, ribose sugar
Double-stranded, contains uracil, ribose sugar
Single-stranded, contains thymine, deoxyribose sugar
The central dogma of molecular biology is:
DNA → Protein → RNA
Protein → DNA → RNA
DNA → RNA → Protein
RNA → DNA → Protein
Which type of RNA carries the genetic code from the DNA to the ribosome?
rRNA
tRNA
mRNA
tRNA and rRNA
What is the role of tRNA during translation?
Carries DNA from the nucleus to the ribosome
Catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds
Reads the mRNA codon and brings the corresponding amino acid
Synthesizes mRNA from DNA
Which enzyme initiates transcription by copying DNA into RNA?
DNA Polymerase
Ligase
RNA Polymerase
Helicase
Translation occurs in which part of the cell?
Nucleus
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Chloroplast
Which of the following is the correct start codon for translation?
AUG
UAA
CAA
CGA
Stop codons signal the ribosome to:
Start translation
Add more amino acids
End translation and release the polypeptide
Transcribe DNA into RNA
Peptide bonds form between:
Nucleotides
Amino acids
Which statement best summarizes the relationship between transcription and translation?
Transcription converts RNA into DNA; translation converts DNA into protein
Transcription copies DNA into mRNA; translation decodes mRNA to build a polypeptide
Transcription occurs in the cytoplasm; translation occurs in the nucleus
Both processes produce RNA from protein
Cells spend most of their time in which phase of the cell cycle?
Mitosis
Interphase
Cytokinesis
G2 phase
During which phase of interphase does DNA replication occur?
G1
S phase
G2
Mitosis
In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell?
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
What is the result of mitosis in somatic cells?
Two genetically identical diploid daughter cells
Four genetically identical haploid daughter cells
Two genetically unique haploid cells
One cell with double the chromosomes
Cyclins are proteins that:
Control the rate of the cell cycle
Cause mutations in DNA
Form the spindle fibers
Replicate DNA
Which type of gene mutation results from the insertion or deletion of a nucleotide?
Point mutation
Frameshift mutation
Silent mutation
Missense mutation
What is the main difference between a point mutation and a frameshift mutation?
Point mutation affects multiple codons; frameshift affects one codon
Point mutation substitutes one nucleotide; frameshift shifts all subsequent codons
Frameshift mutations never change proteins; point mutations always do
Point mutations only occur in RNA
Binary fission occurs in:
Eukaryotic somatic cells
Prokaryotic cells like bacteria and archaea
Plant cells only
Animal cells only
Which step is common to both mitosis and binary fission?
PMAT
DNA replication, cell growth, cytokinesis, formation of daughter cells
Crossing over
Meiosis
Cancer can result from:
Uncontrolled cell cycle due to mutations in proto-oncogenes or tumor suppressor genes
Increased apoptosis and reduced cell division
Accurate DNA repair and regulated checkpoints
Balanced cyclin–CDK activity
How many haploid daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
2
4
1
8
During which phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?
Prophase 1
Metaphase 1
Prophase 2
Anaphase 2
What is the main difference between meiosis 1 and meiosis 2?
Meiosis 1 separates sister chromatids; meiosis 2 separates homologous chromosomes
Meiosis 1 separates homologous chromosomes; meiosis 2 separates sister chromatids
Meiosis 1 produces diploid cells; meiosis 2 produces diploid cells
Meiosis 1 does not involve spindle fibers; meiosis 2 does
In which cells does meiosis occur in humans?
Somatic cells
Gametes (sex cells)
Liver cells
Muscle cells
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the cells produced by meiosis?
They are genetically identical
They are haploid and genetically different
They are diploid and genetically identical
They are tetraploid
A chromosomal mutation that occurs when a segment of a chromosome flips and reattaches is called:
Deletion
Inversion
Translocation
Nondisjunction
Nondisjunction results in:
Extra or missing chromosomes in gametes
A flipped segment of a chromosome
A gene sequence repeated in a chromosome
Translocation between homologous chromosomes
Translocation occurs when:
A segment of a chromosome is lost
A segment of a chromosome attaches to a non-homologous chromosome
A segment of a chromosome flips backwards
A gene is duplicated within the same chromosome
Which phase of meiosis is responsible for aligning homologous chromosome pairs at the metaphase plate?
Prophase 1
Metaphase 1
Metaphase 2
Anaphase 2
The primary purpose of meiosis is to:
Produce identical somatic cells
Repair damaged cells
Produce genetically diverse haploid gametes for sexual reproduction
Copy DNA for mitosis
Which of the following best describes a scientific hypothesis?
A guess with no prior research
A predicted outcome based on observations, research, and prior knowledge
A statement that is always proven correct after an experiment
A scientific law
What property of water allows it to move up plant roots through capillary action?
High specific heat
Cohesion and adhesion
Universal solvent capability
Polarity of oxygen only
Which macromolecule’s monomer is an amino acid?
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Which scientist disproved spontaneous generation by showing that microorganisms come from pre-existing life?
Oparin
Pasteur
Miller-Urey
Margulis
Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP through cellular respiration?
Chloroplast
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
In which type of solution will a cell swell and possibly burst due to water intake?
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Saturated
During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles?
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Which enzyme unwinds the DNA helix during DNA replication?
DNA Polymerase
Ligase
Primase
Helicase
Which process converts glucose into ATP in the absence of oxygen?
Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration
Photosynthesis
Transcription
Which type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome and matches them to the codons on mRNA?
mRNA
rRNA
tRNA
DNA
Which part of the cell membrane is primarily responsible for forming a barrier between the inside and outside of the cell?
Cholesterol
Phospholipids
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Which statement best describes enzymes?
They are consumed in chemical reactions
They lower the activation energy of a reaction
They change the products of a reaction
They work on any substrate
During which phase of interphase does the cell grow and synthesize new proteins and organelles?
G1
S
G2
M
Which statement about prokaryotes is true?
They contain a nucleus
They have membrane-bound organelles
They reproduce through binary fission
They have mitochondria for ATP production
Which statement about DNA is correct?
RNA contains thymine, DNA contains uracil
Adenine pairs with guanine
DNA is double-stranded with a sugar-phosphate backbone
DNA is single-stranded with ribose sugar
What is the main role of chloroplasts in plant cells?
Cellular respiration
Protein synthesis
Photosynthesis
Lipid storage
Which of the following is an example of passive transport?
Endocytosis
Exocytosis
Facilitated diffusion
Protein pump
Which macromolecule stores and transmits genetic information?
Protein
Lipid
Nucleic acid
Carbohydrate
What is the primary product of photosynthesis that stores energy for the plant?
ATP
Glucose
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Which type of mutation is caused by the substitution of a single nucleotide?
Frameshift mutation
Point mutation
Deletion
Nondisjunction
