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Exam 4 (OB): Common Reproductive Concerns

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an intervention that can be implemented if a patient is experiencing dysmenorrhea?

a)

Administering NSAIDs for analgesia

b)

Increasing sodium intake to combat hyponatremia

c)

Encouraging prolonged bed rest without movement to allow patient to rest

d)

Recommending high-intensity exercise during pain episodes

2.

Endometriosis is:

a)

a presence of endometrial glands and stroma outside of the uterus

b)

a type of cancer affecting the endometrium and fallopian tubes

c)

an infectious process of the female reproductive organs, with the endometrium being the most severely affected

d)

a hormonal endometrial disorder causing irregular/absent periods

3.

Dysmenorrhea is:

a)

the absence of menses

b)

overabundance of menses

c)

difficult and painful menses

d)

menses after menopause

4.

It is recommended to decrease _______ and refined _____ 7-10 days prior to menses for dysmenorrhea patients.

a)

salt, sugar

b)

trans fats, unsaturated fats

c)

fiber, carbohydrates

d)

calcium, iron

5.

Oral _______ pills may be prescribed for dysmenorrhea.

a)

contraceptive

b)

antibiotic

c)

creatinine

d)

antihistamine

e)

cytokinetic

6.

What is the ONLY way to definitively diagnose endometriosis?

a)

Ultrasound

b)

MRI

c)

Laparoscopy

d)

CT scan

e)

Endoscopy

7.

Which endometriosis theory suggests that undifferentiated cells of the peritoneal cavity differentiate into endometrial cells during fetal development?

a)

Celomic metaplasia theory

b)

Implantation theory

c)

Dissemination theory

d)

Hormonal theory

8.

Which endometriosis theory explains that menstrual endometrium implants on other pelvic structures?

a)

Celomic metaplasia theory

b)

Implantation theory

c)

Dissemination theory

d)

Hormonal theory

9.

Which endometriosis theory states that endometrial tissue is transported through bloodstream or lymphatics?

a)

Celomic metaplasia theory

b)

Implantation theory

c)

Dissemination theory

d)

Hormonal theory

10.

Estrogen and progesterone release from the ovary causes monthly buildup of ______ tissue.

a)

endometrial

b)

muscular

c)

cartilaginous

d)

epithelial

11.

After menopause, hormone levels diminish and endometrial tissue stops proliferating, causing the symptoms of endometriosis to ______.

a)

cease

b)

worsen

c)

intensify

d)

persist

e)

spread

12.

Which of the following is NOT an intervention for endometriosis treatment?

a)

Therapeutic communication

b)

NSAIDs for analgesia

c)

Contraceptives as prescribed

d)

GnRH antagonist

e)

Hysterectomy

13.

What is the function of a GnRH agonist medication, such as Zoladex, in the treatment of endometriosis?

a)

Suppresses pituitary gonadotropin secretion, which decreases serum FSH and LH

b)

Stimulates estrogen production, which increases serum FSH and LH

c)

Promotes ovulation, which increases serum FSH and LH

d)

Enhances progesterone synthesis, which decreases serum FSH and LH

14.

What happens to FSH and LH stimulation when a patient is treated with a GnRH agonist for endometriosis?

a)

FSH and LH stimulation declines

b)

FSH and LH stimulation increases

c)

FSH and LH stimulation remains unchanged

d)

FSH and LH stimulation fluctuates unpredictably

15.

What is the ONLY 'cure' for endometriosis?

a)

A) Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

b)

B) Total dilation and curettage

c)

C) Total abdominal hysterectomy

d)

D) A and C

e)

E) A, B, and C

16.

Which symptom is described as pain with deep intercourse in endometriosis?

a)

Dyspareunia

b)

Menorrhagia

c)

Polydipsia

d)

Hematuria

17.

Which symptom is described as pain with bowel movements in endometriosis?

a)

Dyschezia

b)

Dyspareunia

c)

Dysuria

d)

Menorrhagia

18.

Which symptom of endometriosis is pain while urinating called?

a)

Pain with micturition

b)

Pain with dysmenorrhea

c)

Pain with dyspareunia

d)

Pain with pelvic heaviness

19.

What is an endometrioma?

a)

Buildup of endometrium in the ovary, can be cancerous

b)

Fluid-filled cyst in the uterus, benign

c)

Scar tissue formation in the fallopian tubes, can be cancerous

d)

Inflammation of the cervix, can be cancerous

20.

What is nodule formation in endometriosis?

a)

Significant scar tissue buildup

b)

Benign ovarian cysts

c)

Hormonal imbalance

d)

Infection of the uterus

21.

How can endometriosis lead to infertility?

a)

Embryos unable to pass from fallopian tube to uterus due to scar tissue obstruction

b)

Embryos unable to grown in the amniotic sac due to nodule and cyst build up

c)

Ovulation not possible due to infection secondary to endometriosis

d)

Fertilization not possible due to endometrial dyschezia

22.

How can endometriosis cause the formation of vaginal cysts?

a)

Accumulation of inflammatory fluid within scar tissue

b)

Proliferation of undifferentiated endometrial cells

c)

Formation of bone tissue within the uterus

d)

Development of blood clots in the fallopian tubes

23.

What is Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

a)

Infective process in the female reproductive organs

b)

Painful and difficult menses

c)

Endometrial tissue outside of the uterus growing in the pelvic cavity

d)

Local fibrosis of uterine tissue due to failure of excess endometrial tissue evacuation

24.

What is the most important factor in the goal of nursing management of PID?

a)

Prevention

b)

Antibiotic resistance

c)

Symptom management

d)

Surgical intervention

e)

Pain relief

25.

A patient is experiencing acute pain related to PID exacerbation. How should the RN position the patient in the bed to help relive pain?

a)

Semi-Fowlers

b)

Prone

c)

Supine

d)

Left Lateral

e)

Right-Lateral

26.

Patients being treated for active PID _______ abstain from sexual intercourse during treatment.

a)

should

b)

should not

27.

SATA: Which of the following is a sign or symptom of PID?

a)

fever and dyspareunia

b)

bilateral adnexal or cervical motion tenderness

c)

bilateral lower abdominal or pelvic pain

d)

vaginal and post-coital bleeding

e)

mucopurulent vaginal discharge

28.

SATA: Which of the following is a secondary complication of PID?

a)

Infertility

b)

Chronic pelvic pain

c)

Ectopic pregnancy

d)

Sepsis

e)

Tubo-ovarian abscess

29.

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease/PID is usually not serious, and will usually go away on its own without medical intervention.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

What are the 5 P’s for obtaining a patient’s sexual history? List all five P's.

a)

Partners, Pregnancy (Hx and/or future plans), Protection (from STIs), Practices, Past History (of STIs)

b)

Partners, Pain, Protection (from STIs), Practices, Past History (of STIs)

c)

Partners, Pregnancy, Protection (from STIs), Preferences, Past History (of STIs)

d)

Partners, Pregnancy, Protection (from STIs), Practices, Personal History

31.

SATA: Which activities should patients avoid to prevent contraction of an STI?

a)

practices that may increase tissue damage

b)

direct contact with lesions during intercourse

c)

exchange of bodily fluids

d)

increased number of sexual partners

e)

knowing partner's sexual history

32.

Chlamydia is often asymptomatic and is a reportable communicable disease.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which is the most prevalent STI in the US?

a)

Gonorrhea

b)

Chlamydia

c)

Syphilis

d)

Herpes

34.

What are the symptoms of Chlamydia in women?

a)

Penile discharge, burning/painful urination, testicular swelling

b)

Amenorrhea, frequent headaches, blurred vision, chest pain

c)

Vaginal discharge, burning/painful urination, bleeding between menses

d)

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, lochia rubra

35.

SATA: How can syphilis enter the body?

a)

Through ingestion of contaminated food

b)

Through small breaks in skin or mucous membranes

c)

Through airborne syphilitic droplets

d)

Through insect bites

e)

After contact with a syphilitic lesion

36.

Syphilis can spread to the fetus via intercourse during pregnancy after the ___ month of gestational age (GA).

a)

4th

b)

2nd

c)

6th

d)

8th

37.

Which stage of syphilis is the most infective?

a)

A) Primary

b)

B) Secondary

c)

C) Tertiary

d)

D) Latent

38.

The primary lesion of syphilis is called a ___ and is an ulcerative, painless lesion.

a)

Chancre

b)

Papule

c)

Vesicle

d)

Pustule

39.

How long after initial syphilis infection does a chancre appear?

a)

1-50 days

b)

5-90 days

c)

2-40 weeks

d)

6-120 months

40.

The primary lesion of syphilis heals spontaneously within 3-6 weeks.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

SATA: Which of the following is a systemic manifestation of secondary syphilis?

a)

Recurrent Fever

b)

Alopecia

c)

Severe Headache

d)

Lymphadenopathy

e)

Maculopapular rash on palms and soles

42.

Lesions of secondary syphilis appear ___ weeks to ___ months after the chancre is seen.

a)

6 weeks to 6 months

b)

2 weeks to 2 months

c)

8 weeks to 8 months

d)

10 weeks to 12 months

43.

Syphilis infection will only present with systemic manifestations if the infection has progressed to the secondary stage.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

If syphilis is left undiagnosed and untreated, the disease will progress to the ___ stage, also known as latent stage.

a)

tertiary

b)

primary

c)

secondary

d)

congenital

e)

quaternary

45.

Menstrual irregularities, greenish-yellow endocervical discharge, and vaginitis are clinical manifestations of which STI?

a)

Gonorrhea

b)

Syphilis

c)

Human Papilloma Virus

d)

HIV

46.

Herpes virus, or HSV, has 2 subtypes: HSV1 and HSV2. Which subtype is considered a STI?

a)

HSV1

b)

HSV2

c)

Both HSV1 and HSV2

47.

Gonorrhea is often asymptomatic and is reportable as a communicable disease.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which of the following is a manifestation of HSV1?

a)

Fever blisters

b)

Genital warts

c)

Jaundice

d)

Chickenpox

e)

Vaginal blisters

49.

Which of the following is a manifestation of HSV2?

a)

Vaginal blisters

b)

Yellow-green discharge

c)

Cervical hemorrhage

d)

Foul odor

e)

Fever blisters

50.

Painful lesions that progress from macules to papules to vesicles and typically last 4-15 days before crusting are symptoms of which STI?

a)

HSV1

b)

HIV

c)

HPV

d)

Syphilis

e)

HSV2

51.

Systemic symptoms of herpetic infection typically appear how many days after lesions appear?

a)

3-4 days

b)

1-2 days

c)

5-6 days

d)

7-8 days

52.

What are the symptoms of herpes in a newborn?

a)

Fever, malaise, headache, and photophobia

b)

Jaundice, persistent crying, and constipation

c)

Cough, wheezing, and chest pain

d)

Rash, poor feeding, lethargy, and seizures

53.

How long may herpes symptoms last in a newborn?

a)

2-3 weeks

b)

1-2 days

c)

4-6 months

d)

1 year

54.

Are pregnant patients with a history of herpes infection allowed to have vaginal births?

a)

Not under any circumstances, it is too dangerous for the baby.

b)

Always, history of herpes has no bearing on the safety of vaginal births.

c)

Yes, as long as the patient does not present with any tingling or herpetic lesions.

d)

Not usually, these patients can only have vaginal births when they have visible lesions.

55.

What areas should be inspected for active or healing herpes lesions in a newborn?

a)

Vulvar, perineal, and vaginal areas

b)

Oral cavity, scalp, and chest

c)

Hands, feet, and back

d)

Ears, nose, and neck

56.

If lesions are present in a mother with herpes, what delivery method is required?

a)

Cesarean section

b)

Normal vaginal delivery

c)

Forceps delivery

d)

Vacuum extraction

57.

SATA: Hepatitis B is transmitted through which of the following?

a)

Semen

b)

Vaginal Secretions

c)

Saliva

d)

Blood

e)

Breastmilk

58.

To minimize the risk of Hepatitis B transmission during delivery, the RN should ___________.

a)

Increase number of vaginal exams

b)

Minimize number of vaginal exams

c)

Not do a single vaginal exam for the patient

d)

None of the above

59.

SATA: A healthy baby has just been delivered by a mom with an active Hepatitis B infection. What should the RN do IMMEDIATELY, before doing ANYTHING ELSE?

a)

Remove mom's blood from the newborn

b)

Suction fluids from the airways of the newborn

c)

Instill eye prophylaxis into the conjunctival sac of the newborn

d)

Administer Hep B immune globulin to the newborn IM

e)

Administer Hep B vaccine to the newborn IM

60.

Before any invasive procedures, including injections (LIKE IVIG AND VACCINES), what should be done to the newborn whose mother has an active Hepatitis B infection?

a)

Bathe the newborn

b)

Feed the newborn

c)

Wrap the newborn in a blanket

d)

Check the newborn's temperature

61.

The Hepatitis B vaccine is offered shortly after birth, after the newborn has been cleaned if the parents consent. For the vaccination to be effective, it is important that the baby receives the full course of Hepatitis B vaccines. When are the 2nd and 3rd doses of the Hepatitis B vaccine given?

a)

at 1 month and at 6 months

b)

at 2 weeks and 10 weeks

c)

at 6 months and 1 year

d)

at 4 months and 8 months

e)

at 4 weeks and 8 weeks

62.

It is recommended to support breastfeeding after Hepatitis B treatment for the newborn.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

What is the most common means for transmission of HIV in women?

a)

Homosexual transmission

b)

Heterosexual transmission

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Sharing needles

64.

HIV is primarily transmitted through the exchange of which of the following?

a)

Airborne droplets

b)

Body fluids

c)

Contact with lesions

65.

Acute HIV infection can manifest as esophageal sores, myalgia, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, among other symptoms.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

SATA: Which of the following pathophysiologic process contributes to the symptoms of dysmenorrhea?

a)

increased uterine activity

b)

uterine ischemia

c)

sensitization of uterine nerve terminals to prostaglandins

d)

sensitization of uterine nerve terminals to endoperoxides

e)

sensitization of uterine nerve terminals to cytokines

67.

The same interventions for dysmenorrhea are also used for PMS and PMDD. However, what extra medication type is used for PMS and/or PPMD?

a)

oral histamine 2 receptor blockers

b)

oral contraceptives

c)

oral CNS stimulants

d)

oral SSRIs

68.

SATA: Select the ways in which Pelvic Inflammatory Disease/PID can be contracted.

a)

STI pathogens ascending into the upper genital tract

b)

Lymphatic spread of respiratory pathogens

c)

Lymphatic spread of enteric pathogens

d)

STI pathogens descending into the lower genital tract

e)

Increased lymphatic leukocyte count

69.

SATA: Select all of the common STIs that can cause PID.

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Mycoplasma Genitalium

d)

Escheria Coli

e)

Group B Streptococcus

70.

SATA: Select all of the common enteric/respiratory pathogens that can cause PID.

a)

Group B Streptococcus

b)

Staphylococcus Aureus

c)

E. Coli

d)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus

e)

Chlamydia

71.

PID can lead to damage of _______ cells of the fallopian tubes due to the infectious process.

a)

amniotic

b)

squamous

c)

stratified

d)

ciliated

e)

endothelial

72.

In latent syphilis, spirochetes can enter the internal organs, causing:

a)

mild inflammation

b)

nothing, the syphilis is latent

c)

permanent damage

d)

temporary excoriation

e)

fever and chills

73.

Manifestations of latent syphilis include cardiovascular, neurological, and musculoskeletal complications. These complications may not manifest for 10-30 _____ after initial infection.

a)

days

b)

weeks

c)

months

d)

years

74.

SATA: What are some common BACTERIAL STIs?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Syphilis

c)

Gonorrhea

d)

Hepatitis B

e)

HIV

75.

SATA: What are some common VIRAL STIs?

a)

HPV

b)

HSV2

c)

Hepatitis B

d)

Syphilis

e)

Gonorrhea

76.

At which prenatal visit should the RN assess for maternal HIV infection?

a)

the first prenatal visit

b)

the prenatal visit at 22-24 weeks GA

c)

the prenatal visit at 35-37 weeks GA

d)

the last prenatal visit before induction of labor

77.

SATA: Which interventions should be AVOIDED during the labor of a mother with HIV?

a)

Amniocentesis

b)

Oxytocin administration

c)

Fetal scalp electrode application

d)

Episiotomy

e)

Epidural administration

78.

The medication Zidovudine is an ______ given to mothers with an active _______ infection, as well as their newborns who were delivered in a state of active maternal infection.

a)

antibiotic, gonorrhea

b)

antibiotic, bacterial vaginosis

c)

antiviral, HPV

d)

antiviral, HIV

e)

antiviral, Hepatitis B

79.

Breastfeeding is encouraged for mothers with an active HIV infection.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

A mother with bacterial vaginosis has just given birth. Both her and her newborn are asymptomatic. Should they be treated for bacterial vaginosis infection?

a)

Yes, they both should be treated.

b)

Only the mom should be treated.

c)

Only the newborn should be treated.

d)

Treatment is not required for asymptomatic bacterial vaginosis.

81.

Viral STIs can be cured.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Adherence to vaccinations can help to prevent the contraction of STIs.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Bacterial vaginosis is the most common form of vaginitis. Is this infection considered an STI?

a)

Yes

b)

No

84.

Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can lead to ______ labor and birth.

a)

post-term

b)

preterm

c)

life threatening

d)

significantly delayed

85.

SATA: Which of the following are clinical manifestations of bacterial vaginosis?

a)

thin grayish-white or yellow discharge

b)

foul and/or fishy vaginal odor

c)

vaginal redness and itchiness

d)

vaginal bleeding after intercourse

e)

painful vaginal lesions that eventually crust over

86.

What is the recommended antibiotic medication for the treatment of bacterial vaginosis?

a)

Zidovudine

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Azithromycin

e)

Nystatin

87.

The sexual partners of a woman with bacterial vaginosis require infection treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

HPV can cause condylomata acuminata, which are also known as?

a)

genital warts

b)

fever blisters

c)

abnormal vaginal discharge

d)

abnormal endometrial tissue buildup

89.

HPV can be transmitted from the mother to the fetus during vaginal birth.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

HPV is associated with _________ in adult women, and epithelial _______ in the ______ of children.

a)

cervical/vulvar cancer, tumors, larynx

b)

breast cancer, cysts, esophagus

c)

cervical/vulvar cancer, fistulas, small intestine

d)

breast cancer, nodules, mucous membranes

91.

HPV growths most closely resemble which vegetable? (Don't hate, this is from the PowerPoint)

a)

Carrot

b)

Cauliflower

c)

Cabbage

d)

Cucumber

92.

Gardasil-9 is a vaccine for ____ that is approved by the FDA for patients aged 9-26. Vaccination should occur ____ becoming sexually active.

a)

HIV, before

b)

HSV2, before

c)

Hepatitis B, after

d)

HSV1, after

e)

HPV, before

93.

SATA: A patient is requesting that the HCP remove their growths from their HPV infection. What are some methods than can be used to remove these growths?

a)

Chemical therapy (trichloroacetic acid)

b)

Cryotherapy

c)

Electrocautery

d)

Laser therapy

e)

Pulling them off real hard

94.

Which test, ideally completed annually, can help detect instances of HPV infection?

a)

amniocentesis

b)

pap smear

c)

CBC

d)

cervical U/S

e)

cervical CT scan

95.

A pregnant woman with HPV has lesions that are partially obstructing her pelvic outlet. How will this affect her delivery?

a)

The outlet is only partially obstructed, this will not impact delivery at all.

b)

The woman can have a vaginal delivery as long as the lesions are removed prior.

c)

Labor and passage of the fetus will be more painful due to the decreased size of the outlet, but vaginal delivery is still possible.

d)

The patient will require a Cesarean section for the delivery of her newborn.