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Lymphatic System Worksheet

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

a)

Fluid Balance

b)

Fat Absorption

c)

Defense

d)

Oxygen Transport

2.

Fill in the blank: The fluid that enters lymphatic capillaries is called _____

a)

lymph

b)

plasma

c)

serum

d)

interstitial fluid

3.

Which vessels absorb lipids from the digestive tract and are called lacteals?

a)

Lymphatic vessels

b)

Blood vessels

c)

Capillaries

d)

Veins

4.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the lymphatic system?

a)

Lymphatic Vessels

b)

Lymphatic Ducts

c)

Kidneys

d)

Spleen

5.

Lymphatic capillaries are tiny, closed-ended vessels that allow fluid to move easily into capillaries.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which organ filters pathogens and other foreign substances from lymph?

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Kidneys

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

7.

What is the name of the fluid absorbed by lacteals and carried to the venous circulation?

a)

chyle

b)

plasma

c)

lymph

d)

bile

8.

Which of the following is a function of valves in lymphatic capillaries?

a)

To allow fluid in and prevent backflow

b)

To absorb nutrients

c)

To produce hormones

d)

To transport oxygen

9.

Which of the following is NOT a function that helps lymph move forward in lymphatic vessels?

a)

Contraction of surrounding skeletal muscles

b)

Contraction of smooth muscle in lymphatic vessels

c)

Pressure changes in the thorax during breathing

d)

Contraction of cardiac muscle

10.

The right lymphatic duct empties into which vein?

a)

Left subclavian vein

b)

Right subclavian vein

c)

Jugular vein

d)

Femoral vein

11.

The thoracic duct collects lymph from the remaining lymphatic vessels which do not enter the right and empties into the _________?

a)

left subclavian vein

b)

right subclavian vein

c)

left jugular vein

d)

right jugular vein

12.

Match the following tonsils with their locations:

a)

Near internal opening of nasal cavity

1.

Palatine Tonsil

b)

On each side of oral cavity

2.

Pharyngeal Tonsil

c)

Posterior surface of tongue

3.

Lingual Tonsil

13.

Waldeyer’s Ring forms a protective ring of lymphatic tissue around nasal and oral cavities.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Which of the following is NOT a superficial aggregation of lymph nodes?

a)

Cervical nodes in the neck

b)

Axillary nodes in the axilla

c)

Inguinal nodes in the groin

d)

Popliteal nodes in the knee

15.

Fill in the blank: Lymph passes through ________ before entering blood.

a)

lymph nodes

b)

arteries

c)

veins

d)

capillaries

16.

Which lymphatic organ is located on the posterior surface of the tongue?

a)

Palatine Tonsil

b)

Pharyngeal Tonsil

c)

Lingual Tonsil

d)

Thymus

17.

What is the function of the capsule in a lymph node?

a)

It produces lymphocytes

b)

It surrounds each lymph node with dense connective tissue

c)

It destroys old red blood cells

d)

It filters blood

18.

Fill in the blank: The extensions of the capsule called ______ divide the lymph node into compartments.

a)

trabeculae

b)

follicles

c)

sinuses

d)

cortex

19.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?

a)

Filters blood

b)

Destroys old red blood cells

c)

Produces insulin

d)

Serves as a blood reservoir

20.

The spleen is located in the ______, superior corner of the abdomen.

a)

left

b)

right

c)

lower

d)

central

21.

Which tissue type in the spleen surrounds arteries and can be stimulated to produce more lymphocytes?

a)

Red pulp

b)

White pulp

c)

Germinal center

d)

Cortex

22.

Red pulp in the spleen contains macrophages and red blood cells that connect to veins and filters out foreign substances.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What is the function of germinal centers in lymph nodes?

a)

Lymphatic nodules containing the rapidly dividing lymphocytes.

b)

Production of red blood cells.

c)

Filtration of blood plasma.

d)

Storage of platelets.

24.

The thymus is a ______ gland located in the mediastinum behind the sternum.

a)

bilobed

b)

trilobed

c)

unilobed

d)

multilobed

25.

Which hormone influences the production and maturation of T lymphocytes in the thymus?

a)

Insulin

b)

Thymosin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Cortisol

26.

Production of T cells in the thymus ______ later in life.

a)

declines

b)

increases

c)

remains constant

d)

accelerates

27.

What is immunity?

a)

The ability to resist damage from foreign substances

b)

The ability to produce energy

c)

The ability to digest food

d)

The ability to move

28.

Fill in the blank: Immunity can protect against ________, toxins, and cancer cells.

a)

microbes

b)

vitamins

c)

hormones

d)

enzymes

29.

Which of the following is NOT a type of immunity?

a)

Innate (nonspecific resistance)

b)

Adaptive (specific immunity)

c)

Passive immunity

d)

Both A and B are types of immunity

30.

Fill in the blank: Innate immunity is ________ at birth.

a)

present

b)

absent

c)

acquired

d)

developed

31.

Which of the following is a characteristic of adaptive immunity?

a)

Present at birth

b)

Slower than innate immunity

c)

Does not use lymphocytes

d)

No specificity

32.

Fill in the blank: Adaptive immunity uses ________ (B and T cells).

a)

lymphocytes

b)

erythrocytes

c)

platelets

d)

macrophages

33.

Which of the following is a physical barrier in innate immunity?

a)

Skin

b)

White blood cells

c)

Interferon

d)

Antibodies

34.

Fill in the blank: Tears, saliva, and urine wash away ________ and toxins.

a)

pathogens

b)

nutrients

c)

hormones

d)

vitamins

35.

Chemical mediators are chemicals that can kill ________ and prevent their entry into cells.

a)

microbes

b)

enzymes

c)

hormones

d)

vitamins

36.

Lysozyme is found in tears and saliva to kill ________.

a)

bacteria

b)

viruses

c)

fungi

d)

protozoa

37.

Mucous membranes prevent entry of ________.

a)

microbes

b)

nutrients

c)

oxygen

d)

hormones

38.

Which of the following promotes inflammation by causing vasodilation and increasing vascular permeability?

a)

Lysozyme

b)

Histamine, complement, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes

c)

White blood cells

d)

Mucous membranes

39.

Fill in the blank: A group of over 20 proteins found in blood plasma is called ________.

a)

complement

b)

hemoglobin

c)

albumin

d)

fibrinogen

40.

Interferon proteins protect the body against ________ infections.

a)

viral

b)

bacterial

c)

fungal

d)

parasitic

41.

White blood cells are produced in ________ and lymphatic tissues.

a)

red bone marrow

b)

yellow bone marrow

c)

cartilage

d)

muscle tissue

42.

Which chemicals are released by pathogens and damaged tissues that attract WBCs to leave the blood and enter affected tissues?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Chemicals: Complement, Leukotrienes, Kinins, and Histamine

c)

Enzymes

d)

Hormones

43.

What is chemotaxis?

a)

Movement of red blood cells towards chemicals

b)

Movement of white blood cells (WBC) towards chemicals

c)

Movement of platelets towards chemicals

d)

Movement of plasma towards chemicals

44.

Monocytes and macrophages form the ________ phagocytic system.

a)

mononuclear

b)

polymorphonuclear

c)

granular

d)

lymphoid

45.

Given specific names for certain areas of the body, match the following:

a)

Central Nervous System

1.

B

b)

Liver

2.

C

c)

Lungs

3.

A

46.

The most important phagocytes are ________ and ________.

a)

neutrophils and macrophages

b)

lymphocytes and basophils

c)

eosinophils and platelets

d)

monocytes and erythrocytes

47.

Neutrophils are the first to respond to infection but die quickly.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

What is pus composed of?

a)

Only bacteria

b)

Only plasma

c)

An accumulation of fluid, dead neutrophils, and other cells at the site of an infection

d)

Only red blood cells

49.

Basophils are made in the ________.

a)

red bone marrow

b)

liver

c)

spleen

d)

thymus

50.

Mast cells are nonmotile cells in ________ tissue.

a)

connective

b)

epithelial

c)

muscle

d)

nervous

51.

Eosinophils release chemicals to reduce inflammation associated with ________ and ________.

a)

allergies and asthma

b)

bacterial infections and fever

c)

viral infections and cancer

d)

arthritis and diabetes

52.

Natural Killer (NK) cells recognize general classes of cells such as tumor cells or virus infected cells and release chemicals which ________ cells.

a)

lyse

b)

repair

c)

nourish

d)

divide

53.

Local inflammation is confined to a specific area of the body.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Systemic inflammation occurs all over the body.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

What is the ability to recognize a particular substance in the immune system called?

a)

Specificity

b)

Immunity

c)

Tolerance

d)

Resistance

56.

Which type of immunity involves B cells becoming plasma cells that produce antibodies in response to an antigen?

a)

Cell-mediated Immunity

b)

Antibody-mediated Immunity

c)

Innate Immunity

d)

Passive Immunity

57.

Which cells destroy virus-infected cells, tumor cells, and tissue transplants?

a)

Helper T cells

b)

Cytotoxic T cells

c)

B cells

d)

Memory cells

58.

Foreign antigens come from outside the body and may cause an allergic reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

What is the molecule produced by the person’s body that identifies body cells as part of 'self'?

a)

Self-antigen

b)

Antibody

c)

Pathogen

d)

Hormone

60.

What is the process called when small groups of identical B cells or T cells are formed during embryonic development?

a)

Clones

b)

Mutation

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Differentiation

61.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a foreign antigen?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Virus

c)

Self-antigen

d)

Pollen

62.

Where do B cells mature?

a)

Thymus gland

b)

Red bone marrow

c)

Lymph node

d)

Spleen

63.

Which cells have antigen receptors on their surface?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Macrophages

64.

What do B-cell receptors bind to?

a)

T cells

b)

Specific antigens

c)

Cytokines

d)

Macrophages

65.

Fill in the blank: When antigen receptors combine with the antigen, the lymphocyte is activated and _______ immunity begins.

a)

adaptive

b)

innate

c)

passive

d)

cellular

66.

Which molecule binds to antigen receptor on B or T cells and stimulates response?

a)

Cytokine

b)

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

c)

Antibody

d)

CD4

67.

How many classes of MHC molecules are there?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

68.

Class I MHC molecules are found on the cell membranes of most nucleated cells and display ______ antigens.

a)

internal

b)

external

c)

bacterial

d)

viral

69.

Which cells are considered antigen-presenting cells?

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Macrophages, B cells, and other defense cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Neurons

70.

What is the function of Helper T cells with CD4?

a)

Connect helper T cells to a macrophage by binding to MHC class II molecules

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Stimulate platelets

d)

Bind to toxins

71.

Which type of immunity is effective against antigens in body fluids and uses B cells to produce antibodies?

a)

Cell-mediated immunity

b)

Antibody-mediated immunity

c)

Innate immunity

d)

Passive immunity

72.

What is the function of the variable region (V of Y)?

a)

Bind to epitopes of antigen using antigen-binding site

b)

Bind to cytokines

c)

Bind to MHC molecules

d)

Bind to CD4

73.

Which antibody type is present at 80 to 85% in serum and can cross the placenta to provide protection to the fetus?

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

74.

Match the following antibody types with their properties:

a)

First antibody produced in response to an antigen

1.

IgM

b)

Found in colostrum and milk

2.

IgA

c)

Stimulates inflammatory response

3.

IgE

d)

Functions as antigen-binding receptor on B cells

4.

IgD

e)

Can cross the placenta

5.

IgG

75.

Which antibody type is responsible for transfusion reactions in the ABO blood system?

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

76.

Which antibody type is secreted into saliva, tears, and onto mucous membranes to protect body surfaces?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

77.

Which antibody type binds to mast cells and basophils and stimulates the inflammatory response?

a)

IgE

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

78.

Which antibody type functions as an antigen-binding receptor on B cells and is present at 0.2% in serum?

a)

IgD

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgM

79.

Which antibody class has the highest number of 'arms' or binding sites?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

80.

What is the effect of an antibody binding to an antigen?

a)

Inactivates antigen

b)

Activates antigen

c)

Destroys antigen

d)

No effect

81.

What happens when antibodies bind several antigens together?

a)

Antibodies bind several antigens together, causing agglutination.

b)

Antibodies bind several antigens together, causing precipitation.

c)

Antibodies bind several antigens together, causing neutralization.

d)

Antibodies bind several antigens together, causing lysis.

82.

What is activated when an antigen binds to an antibody, leading to inflammation, chemotaxis, and lysis?

a)

Complement cascade

b)

Cell-mediated immunity

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Antigen presentation

83.

What happens when an antibody binds to a mast cell or a basophil?

a)

It triggers the release of chemicals that cause inflammation.

b)

It causes the cell to divide rapidly.

c)

It destroys the cell immediately.

d)

It prevents the cell from functioning.

84.

How does an antibody facilitate phagocytosis?

a)

An antibody binds to an antigen and then to a macrophage which phagocytizes the antibody and antigen.

b)

An antibody destroys the antigen directly without involving macrophages.

c)

An antibody converts the antigen into a harmless substance.

d)

An antibody prevents the antigen from entering the body cells.

85.

What is the primary response in antibody production?

a)

The primary response results from the first exposure of a B cell to an antigen. The B cell undergoes division and forms plasma cells and memory cells.

b)

The primary response occurs after repeated exposure to the same antigen, leading to a faster and stronger reaction.

c)

The primary response involves only the production of memory cells without plasma cells.

d)

The primary response is triggered by T cells rather than B cells.

86.

Plasma cells are responsible for producing ________.

a)

antibodies

b)

hormones

c)

enzymes

d)

red blood cells

87.

How long does it normally take for the primary response to produce enough antibodies to be effective against an antigen?

a)

3 to 14 days

b)

1 to 2 hours

c)

30 to 60 days

d)

less than 1 day

88.

The secondary response involves which type of cells?

a)

Memory cells

b)

Plasma cells

c)

Helper T cells

d)

Macrophages

89.

The secondary response occurs when the immune system is exposed to an antigen that has been seen before.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

What is the role of memory B cells in secondary production?

a)

Memory B cells are responsible for the secondary response. When exposed to the antigen, they quickly divide to form plasma cells which produce antibodies.

b)

Memory B cells directly attack pathogens without producing antibodies.

c)

Memory B cells suppress the immune response to prevent overreaction.

d)

Memory B cells only function during the primary immune response and are inactive during secondary response.

91.

An MHC class I molecule displays an antigen, such as a viral protein, on the surface of a target cell. What is the role of the MHC class I molecule in cell-mediated immunity?

a)

It presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells, enabling them to recognize and destroy infected cells.

b)

It helps B cells produce antibodies against the antigen.

c)

It activates helper T cells to stimulate immune responses.

d)

It prevents the immune system from attacking healthy cells.

92.

The activation of a cytotoxic T-cell begins when the T-cell receptor binds to the MHC class I/antigen complex. What is the next step in the activation process?

a)

The cytotoxic T-cell receives a co-stimulatory signal from an antigen-presenting cell.

b)

The cytotoxic T-cell releases antibodies into the bloodstream.

c)

The cytotoxic T-cell engulfs the antigen-presenting cell.

d)

The cytotoxic T-cell differentiates into a helper T-cell.

93.

What is released from helper T cells to further stimulate the cytotoxic T cell?

a)

Interleukin-2

b)

Histamine

c)

Antibodies

d)

Insulin

94.

The significance of this process is:

a)

It enables the conversion of energy for cellular activities.

b)

It provides structural support to cells.

c)

It is responsible for genetic variation.

d)

It aids in the transport of nutrients.

95.

Which type of T cell activates macrophages and helps B cells promote production of cytotoxic T cells?

a)

Cytotoxic T cells

b)

Regulatory T cells

c)

Helper T cells

d)

Memory T cells

96.

Which type of T cell destroys antigen in contact?

a)

Helper T cells

b)

Regulatory T cells

c)

Cytotoxic T cells

d)

Memory T cells

97.

Which type of T cell turns off the immune system response when the antigen is gone?

a)

Cytotoxic T cells

b)

Helper T cells

c)

Regulatory T cells

d)

Memory T cells

98.

Which type of T cell provides a secondary response?

a)

Cytotoxic T cells

b)

Helper T cells

c)

Memory T cells

d)

Regulatory T cells

99.

What is the difference between Active Natural Immunity and Passive Natural Immunity?

a)

Active Natural Immunity involves natural exposure to antigens causing production of antibodies, while Passive Natural Immunity involves antibodies being transferred from mother to child across the placenta before birth.

b)

Active Natural Immunity involves receiving antibodies from another person, while Passive Natural Immunity involves producing antibodies after vaccination.

c)

Active Natural Immunity is only acquired through vaccines, while Passive Natural Immunity is acquired through illness.

d)

Active Natural Immunity involves antibodies being transferred from mother to child, while Passive Natural Immunity involves natural exposure to antigens.