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Unit 2 AICE Env. Management

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?

a)

A review of project costs and timelines

b)

An evaluation of potential environmental impacts

c)

A legal approval for construction permits

d)

A survey of public opinions on development

2.

Which step occurs first in the scientific method?

a)

Formulate a hypothesis

b)

Make an observation

c)

Test using collected data

d)

Draw conclusions from data

3.

Which option is qualitative data in an environmental study?

a)

Plant height in centimeters

b)

Number of fish per kilometer

c)

Annual rainfall in millimeters

d)

Visible dieback of vegetation

4.

In an EIA for a proposed mine, which factor is typically considered?

a)

Only project profitability

b)

National tax incentives

c)

Social, economic, and environmental effects

d)

Exclusive geological composition

5.

What is the primary purpose of forming a hypothesis after observations?

a)

To state the expected final report

b)

To finalize conclusions without testing

c)

To explain a possible cause for patterns

d)

To assign numerical values to data

6.

Which statement correctly differentiates qualitative from quantitative data?

a)

Qualitative is statistical; quantitative is pictorial

b)

Qualitative is descriptive; quantitative is numerical

c)

Qualitative uses numbers; quantitative uses words

d)

Qualitative can be counted; quantitative cannot

7.

Why is retesting important in the scientific method?

a)

It guarantees all predictions are accurate

b)

It prevents any incorrect observations

c)

It can change conclusions when hypotheses shift

d)

It replaces data collection entirely

8.

Which prediction aligns with a hypothesis about declining vegetation?

a)

Soil nutrients will increase rapidly

b)

Rainfall will continue decreasing gradually

c)

Mining permits will be revoked soon

d)

Biodiversity will instantly double

9.

During field studies for species identification in a remote area, which method is appropriate?

a)

On-the-ground sampling and interviews

b)

Random internet searches for species lists

c)

Immediate policy drafting without data

d)

Exclusive reliance on building blueprints

10.

Which statement best describes an unbiased hypothesis test in experimental science?

a)

Adjust the hypothesis after seeing the results

b)

Design an experiment that can disprove the prediction

c)

Ignore data that contradicts the expected outcome

d)

Use only qualitative observations to support claims

11.

In an experiment on plant growth, which variable is the quantity of fertilizer added to each pot?

a)

Independent variable

b)

Control variable

c)

Extraneous variable

d)

Dependent variable

12.

What is the primary role of a control group in an experiment?

a)

To maximize changes in all variables

b)

To isolate the effect of the independent variable

c)

To randomly alter the dependent variable

d)

To make data more difficult to compare

13.

Which option correctly pairs variable type with what is measured?

a)

Control group — receives the largest treatment

b)

Dependent variable — factor intentionally changed

c)

Independent variable — outcome measured

d)

Control variables — kept constant across groups

14.

A researcher varies room temperature and records standardized math test scores. Identify the independent variable.

a)

The number of students

b)

The math test scores

c)

Room temperature level

d)

The test difficulty

15.

When testing the effect of salt addition on water salinity, which is the dependent variable?

a)

Type of container used

b)

Amount of salt added

c)

Water salinity measured

d)

Water temperature kept constant

16.

A scientist hypothesizes that sunlight increases plant growth. Which setup best represents a proper control group?

a)

Plants in total darkness for two weeks

b)

Plants under variable light cycles daily

c)

Plants under standard daylight for normal growth

d)

Plants under intense continuous illumination

17.

Which practice reduces experimental bias when evaluating a hypothesis?

a)

Change the hypothesis to match observed data

b)

Collect quantitative data and apply statistics

c)

Select only trials that confirm expectations

d)

Avoid using a control group to save resources

18.

A sewage leak’s impact is studied by sampling organisms downstream and upstream. What is the purpose of the upstream samples?

a)

To serve as the control group for comparison

b)

To measure a different dependent variable

c)

To increase the leak’s effect

d)

To change the independent variable’s level

19.

Which statement best describes a control variable in an experiment?

a)

A variable measured only after data interpretation

b)

A variable deliberately changed to test its effect

c)

A variable randomly fluctuating during the procedure

d)

A variable kept constant to prevent confounding effects

20.

Why must only one independent variable be changed when testing its effect?

a)

It increases statistical power of the dataset

b)

It allows determination of which variable caused changes

c)

It ensures instruments remain properly calibrated

d)

It reduces the need for control variables entirely

21.

Which set lists factors commonly controlled to ensure valid results in biological experiments?

a)

Sample size, budget, staff expertise, travel time

b)

Temperature, CO2, O2, pH, light intensity

c)

Ethics approval, consent forms, publication venue

d)

Calibration logs, storage labels, shipping records

22.

During data interpretation, what is the main goal?

a)

To eliminate all sources of random error from instruments

b)

To transform a hypothesis directly into a scientific law

c)

To decide if findings support or discredit the hypothesis

d)

To collect raw measurements for future studies

23.

Which scenario most clearly illustrates researcher bias as a limitation?

a)

Expecting a specific outcome and overlooking contrary data

b)

Collecting data only once due to remote site access

c)

Using outdated instruments that drift in calibration

d)

Working with too small a sample due to budget limits

24.

What distinguishes a scientific theory from a hypothesis in this context?

a)

A theory is proven once and never revised

b)

A theory is supported consistently by reliable data

c)

A theory is created during instrument calibration

d)

A theory is a tentative guess without evidence

25.

Which example best represents an experimental limitation affecting reliable data in field research?

a)

Use of standardized protocols across all trials

b)

Difficulty revisiting remote locations for repeat sampling

c)

Transparent reporting of methods and potential errors

d)

Multiple repeat measurements under controlled conditions

26.

Which statement best defines unbiased data collection in climate research?

a)

Selecting records only from regions with severe warming

b)

Gathering data that supports a preferred viewpoint

c)

Collecting measurements transparently using scientific method

d)

Using anecdotal evidence from affected communities

27.

Historical global climate data became broadly reliable starting around which year?

a)

Circa 1750 from early barometers

b)

After 1950 with satellites

c)

Around 1880 with systematic records

d)

Before 1600 due to ship logs

28.

Which factor most improves the reliability of long‑term climate datasets?

a)

Exclusive focus on urban stations

b)

Smaller sample sizes from key sites

c)

Discarding anomalous years from series

d)

Consistent methods across many locations

29.

What do trapped air bubbles in ice cores primarily reveal?

a)

Seismic activity beneath ice sheets

b)

Average wind speed for that decade

c)

Atmospheric composition at formation

d)

Ocean salinity of polar waters

30.

Which greenhouse gas increase is closely linked with recent temperature rise in precise records?

a)

Nitrous oxide from soils

b)

Ozone from photochemical smog

c)

Methane from wetlands

d)

Carbon dioxide from fossil fuels

31.

Which technological advance enabled global, continuous monitoring of multiple weather variables?

a)

Manual rain gauges at farms

b)

Paper charts at observatories

c)

Wooden thermometers in cities

d)

Satellite platforms with sensors

32.

Ice cores can show volcanic activity through which visible feature?

a)

Radial cracks from pressure release

b)

Clear bubble‑free layers

c)

Alternating blue‑white bands

d)

A distinct black particulate band

33.

Which scenario exemplifies confirmation bias in climate studies?

a)

Publishing full methods for replication

b)

Including uncertainty ranges in analyses

c)

Seeking only evidence that matches prior beliefs

d)

Comparing multiple independent datasets

34.

ppm, used in CO2 measurements, most accurately means what?

a)

Per‑percent measurement ratio

b)

Pounds per metric megaton

c)

Parts per million molecules

d)

Percent of gas volume present

35.

A researcher compares glacier extent maps with ice‑core CO2 records to infer past temperature changes. Which reasoning step strengthens the inference?

a)

Ignoring dating uncertainty in cores

b)

Assuming glaciers respond instantly

c)

Cross‑validating with independent proxies

d)

Excluding regions without present ice

36.

Which natural process can directly inject CO2, SO2, and dust into the atmosphere, altering temperatures and solar radiation reception?

a)

Ocean circulation redistributing heat globally

b)

Volcanic eruptions releasing gases and particles

c)

Changes in Earth’s orbital eccentricity

d)

Variable solar output affecting insolation

37.

How do ocean currents influence regional climate patterns?

a)

They trap outgoing infrared radiation

b)

They circulate heat from equator to poles

c)

They increase volcanic aerosol formation

d)

They block solar radiation at high latitudes

38.

In the context of insolation, what primarily causes heating or cooling of the atmosphere?

a)

Increase in surface mass balance of ice

b)

Expansion of stratospheric ozone thickness

c)

Fluctuations in solar radiation reaching Earth

d)

Changes in urban heat island effects

39.

Why is comparing single-year ice coverage insufficient for claims about climate change trends in Greenland?

a)

Satellite images are unreliable in polar regions

b)

Greenland’s ice is unaffected by global forcing

c)

Surface mass balance never varies annually

d)

Short-term data can contradict long-term patterns

40.

Which statement best illustrates confirmation bias in climate reporting?

a)

Using multiple datasets across decades

b)

Highlighting only a year of increase to deny warming

c)

Applying standardized climate models to verify results

d)

Publishing uncertainties alongside trend analyses

41.

What makes long-term datasets more reliable for climate inference than short-term snapshots?

a)

They show the most dramatic annual extremes

b)

They reveal persistent trends across many years

c)

They eliminate measurement errors completely

d)

They prioritize media headlines over analysis

42.

A headline claims, “For the 25th year in a row, Greenland ice sheet shrinks.” What key analytical step is needed before accepting this as evidence for climate change?

a)

Check orbital distance during the winter solstice

b)

Measure SO2 concentrations near the ice edge

c)

Compare multi-decade records and trend context

d)

Confirm global volcanic activity that year

43.

Which factor must climate models account for to improve prediction reliability?

a)

Seasonal temperature fluctuations

b)

Uniform wind directions globally

c)

Constant ocean salinity everywhere

d)

Static land surface over time

e)

Stable ice sheets without melt

44.

What is the primary reason climate models retain uncertainty despite large datasets?

a)

Data points always contradict each other

b)

Scientists misinterpret basic arithmetic often

c)

Mathematical equations cannot use variables

d)

Satellites provide uniformly perfect measurements

e)

Climate processes occur on small, complex scales

45.

In fieldwork, what distinguishes primary data from secondary data?

a)

Collected firsthand by the researcher

b)

Aggregated by government agencies

c)

Modeled using computational simulations

d)

Published in peer‑reviewed journals

e)

Derived from historical archives

46.

Which sampling strategy aims to represent a population without selection bias?

a)

Targeted convenience samples

b)

Systematic modeling assumptions

c)

Opportunistic field observations

d)

Random sampling of units

e)

Purposive expert selection

47.

A sample must represent the variable being investigated mainly to enable what?

a)

Ensuring identical individual outcomes

b)

Preventing any model uncertainties

c)

Eliminating all measurement errors

d)

Avoiding the need for replication

e)

Generalizing findings to the population

48.

Which statement best describes random sampling in environmental studies?

a)

Picking points where patterns appear most obvious

b)

Sampling only locations with known species presence

c)

Selecting points using random numbers across a grid

d)

Choosing nearby points that are easiest to access

49.

Systematic sampling is most appropriate when which condition holds?

a)

The population is very small

b)

Data show minimal spatial patterning

c)

Accidental releases are frequent

d)

All individuals are equally accessible

50.

Which option illustrates sampling bias in field surveys?

a)

Surveying only houses on one convenient street

b)

Numbering grid points and selecting by random draw

c)

Sampling every third house along both sides

d)

Using a field grid pattern consistently

51.

A town has 20,000 households. Using the guideline, what is the maximum sample size for a household survey?

a)

1000 households

b)

2000 households

c)

720 households

d)

100 households

52.

When is choosing the minimum sample size most justified?

a)

Budget and time are limited

b)

Multiple subgroup analyses are planned

c)

High precision estimates are essential

d)

Strong spatial heterogeneity is expected

53.

Which practice helps minimize researcher manipulation risk in sampling?

a)

Using a regular pattern to select points

b)

Targeting areas with known high densities

c)

Changing methods mid-survey for flexibility

d)

Selecting points near roads for convenience

54.

For in-lab experiments, repeating a test five times primarily achieves what goal?

a)

Reducing fieldwork time and costs

b)

Eliminating all measurement error completely

c)

Providing a sufficient baseline for statistics

d)

Ensuring identical outcomes across trials

55.

Point sampling for plant cover estimates typically involves which procedure?

a)

Measuring biomass of every plant encountered

b)

Walking transects and counting visible plants

c)

Capturing all individuals within a quadrat area

d)

Choosing points and recording hits on target species

56.

Which statement best describes quadrat sampling in ecology?

a)

Counts only organisms touching a line

b)

Uses cups buried to trap insects

c)

Marks animals to estimate population

d)

Data collected inside a framed area

57.

What is a primary benefit of quadrat sampling compared to estimation without frames?

a)

Requires advanced taxonomic skills

b)

Captures fast-moving animals

c)

Eliminates all observer bias

d)

Easy, quick, inexpensive

58.

Which metric can be derived using a gridded quadrat?

a)

Water flow rate in streams

b)

Daily migration distance

c)

Percentage cover of a species

d)

Average trap escape speed

59.

In point sampling with a point quadrat, what is counted for abundance?

a)

First pin hit on each plant

b)

Total pins dropped per site

c)

All leaves intersecting the pin

d)

Number of seeds per plant

60.

Which limitation is common to point sampling when repeating surveys?

a)

Points are hard to relocate

b)

Plants grow too quickly

c)

Requires antifreeze in pins

d)

Pins damage the roots

61.

Which feature typically characterizes pitfall traps used for ground-active insects?

a)

Bright light attracting nocturnal moths

b)

Light cloth stretched under branches

c)

Nets swung in a figure-of-eight

d)

Containers level with soil surface

62.

Why might antifreeze be added to some pitfall traps?

a)

Prevent decay and escape

b)

Increase plant growth rate

c)

Reduce turbidity in water

d)

Attract flying pollinators

63.

Which is a notable limitation of pitfall traps?

a)

Predators may eat trapped insects

b)

Only suitable for urban pavements

c)

Measures leaf area directly

d)

Requires underwater deployment

64.

Which statement about sweep nets is accurate?

a)

Animals are marked and released

b)

Cups are buried at ground level

c)

Pins are dropped through holes

d)

Nets are swung through vegetation

65.

What is a practical drawback of sweep net sampling in dense habitats?

a)

Heavy vegetation hampers sweeping

b)

Excess light reduces captures

c)

Quadrat frames cannot be placed

d)

Antifreeze harms plant roots

66.

Beating trays are primarily used by doing what procedure?

a)

Shake branches over a cloth

b)

Lay a line and record contacts

c)

Sink containers flush with soil

d)

Swing a net in pendulum motion

67.

Which limitation applies to beating tray sampling?

a)

Cannot estimate species richness

b)

Requires deep-water wading

c)

Always damages soil structure

d)

Flying insects may escape quickly

68.

Line sampling along a transect typically involves which action?

a)

Record each plant touching the line

b)

Place cups at equal intervals

c)

Mark animals with unique tags

d)

Lower quadrat into a stream

69.

Capture-mark-recapture is best suited to estimate what?

a)

Population size of mobile animals

b)

Percentage cover in plant quadrats

c)

Water turbidity of a pond

d)

Number of pins required per frame

70.

Which sampling technique is most appropriate for sedentary species like snails?

a)

Quadrat sampling

b)

Sweep netting

c)

Light trapping

d)

Kick sampling

71.

Which step initiates random sampling in a habitat grid?

a)

Extend a measuring tape across habitat

b)

Generate coordinates using random numbers

c)

Select species with an identification key

d)

Place quadrats at systematic intervals

72.

In systematic sampling, what is the purpose of moving equipment along a measuring tape at regular intervals?

a)

To standardize sampling across the transect

b)

To reduce observer bias completely

c)

To avoid counting the same species twice

d)

To ensure random coordinate generation

73.

Which action is essential for both random and systematic sampling to make data comparable?

a)

Avoid using any sampling equipment

b)

Use only computer‑generated coordinates

c)

Increase transect length continuously

d)

Standardize time or area sampled at points

74.

What is the primary use of a quadrat in ecological studies?

a)

Measuring water turbidity depth

b)

Counting species within a defined area

c)

Identifying species along a stream

d)

Capturing mobile insects overnight

75.

When is the belt transect method most appropriate?

a)

Where only aquatic organisms are present

b)

Where species are uniformly distributed

c)

Where random coordinates are unavailable

d)

Where gradual change occurs across habitat

76.

Which instruction is correct for using a point quadrat to measure abundance?

a)

Place point quadrat at non‑sampled sites

b)

Count only the first pin hit per plant

c)

Record every pin contact multiple times

d)

Push pins halfway without touching plants

77.

What is a key preparatory step for setting a pitfall trap?

a)

Suspend a net parallel to the ground

b)

Lower a disc until it disappears

c)

Dig a hole and insert a clean cup

d)

Extend a tape to mark transect

78.

How should rainwater accumulation in a pitfall trap be minimized?

a)

Check the trap only once weekly

b)

Cover the trap tightly with soil

c)

Elevate the pot above ground level

d)

Make a hole in the cup for drainage

79.

Which practice supports ethical handling in pitfall trapping?

a)

Leave traps unchecked for several days

b)

Keep all captured insects as specimens

c)

Release insects near where found

d)

Avoid recording date and location

80.

For sweep net sampling, how should the net opening be oriented?

a)

Opening fully perpendicular to path

b)

Lower rim slightly ahead of upper rim

c)

Upper rim tilted downward toward ground

d)

Net held vertical with rim level

81.

Which statement about Secchi disc measurements is accurate?

a)

Greater Secchi depth indicates lower turbidity

b)

Greater Secchi depth indicates higher turbidity

c)

Secchi depth is unrelated to visibility

d)

Shallow Secchi depth shows high visibility

82.

What limitation affects Secchi disc turbidity assessments?

a)

Susceptible to researcher visual bias

b)

Requires complex electronic sensors

c)

Cannot compare sites over time

d)

Measures only sediment size directly

83.

Which benefit explains routine use of a Secchi disc?

a)

Quick visual comparisons between sites

b)

Precise automated depth recording

c)

Calibrates transect tapes accurately

d)

Detects chemical contaminants directly

84.

During systematic sampling, what should occur after recording results at 0 m?

a)

Calculate mean of entire dataset

b)

Switch to pitfall traps overnight

c)

Generate fresh random coordinates

d)

Move equipment along tape and repeat

85.

Which step belongs to random sampling but not the initial step of systematic sampling?

a)

Use random numbers to set coordinates

b)

Sample at 0 m on a measuring tape

c)

Record results in a data table

d)

Collect relevant data at each point

86.

What is the correct procedure after lowering pins in a point quadrat?

a)

Record the different plants each pin touches

b)

Rotate frame to increase contacts artificially

c)

Count each plant multiple times per pin

d)

Ignore plants touching only one pin

87.

Why is using an identification key recommended in systematic sampling?

a)

To reliably identify species encountered

b)

To generate numerical coordinates

c)

To ensure equipment remains stationary

d)

To eliminate the need for recording

88.

Which action improves data integrity when using pitfall traps?

a)

Check traps regularly during daytime

b)

Leave traps closed without drainage

c)

Avoid noting capture location

d)

Place cups above ground surface

89.

What should be calculated after completing sampling along a transect?

a)

The median of random coordinates

b)

The ratio of tape length to net size

c)

The total number of quadrat frames

d)

The average (mean) of collected data

90.

Which step begins a belt transect survey?

a)

Lower Secchi disc to measure visibility

b)

Place quadrat at 0 m and count species

c)

Set pitfall cups near vegetation

d)

Generate random coordinates for sites

91.

During kick sampling in a stream, where should the first sample be taken to standardize the method?

a)

At the shaded bank upstream

b)

At the middle section downstream

c)

At the lowest point upstream

d)

At the highest point downstream

92.

Which action ensures organisms dislodged from the stream bed are captured during kick sampling?

a)

Use one foot to kick the bottom

b)

Stir the water using the net rim

c)

Drag the net along the bank

d)

Kick the bottom with both feet

93.

For kick sampling, where should the fine‑mesh net be held relative to your position in the stream?

a)

Across the stream center

b)

Downstream of your stance

c)

Directly beside your stance

d)

Upstream of your stance

94.

When setting up a light trap with an electric bulb, which safety measure is essential to prevent electrocution?

a)

Stand on wooden planks

b)

Wear rubberized gloves

c)

Keep bulb and wiring dry

d)

Use a battery power source

95.

What time window is recommended for operating a light trap to attract flying insects effectively?

a)

4:00 AM to 8:00 AM

b)

12:00 PM to 4:00 PM

c)

6:00 PM to 10:00 PM

d)

10:00 AM to 2:00 PM

96.

Why is a shallow basin with soapy water placed beneath a light source in a light trap setup?

a)

To weigh captured insects

b)

To trap insects that fall

c)

To cool the bulb assembly

d)

To disinfect the equipment

97.

During turbidity measurement with a Secchi Disc, why should sampling occur on a bright, calm day between 10 am and 3 pm?

a)

To align with boat traffic

b)

To minimize wave ripples

c)

To maximize disc contrast

d)

To reduce plankton growth

98.

Which instruction helps avoid biased readings when using a Secchi Disc for turbidity?

a)

Avoid wearing sunglasses

b)

Wear polarized sunglasses

c)

Use a larger diameter disc

d)

Sample on cloudy mornings

99.

For Secchi Disc readings, what is recorded when the disc is lowered until it is no longer visible?

a)

Boat shadow angle

b)

Depth at disappearance

c)

Water temperature profile

d)

Surface reflectance value

100.

How is the Secchi depth determined according to the method described?

a)

Median of hourly readings

b)

Average of multiple visibility cycles

c)

Sum of raise and lower depths

d)

Maximum single disappearance depth

101.

Which statement best distinguishes closed questions from open questions in a survey?

a)

Closed questions restrict responses to predefined choices

b)

Closed questions invite detailed narrative explanations

c)

Closed questions mainly collect qualitative descriptions

d)

Closed questions are used only during interviews

102.

What is the primary purpose of conducting a pilot survey before the full investigation?

a)

To test and refine the proposed research method

b)

To increase sample size for stronger statistics

c)

To replace interviews with questionnaires entirely

d)

To train respondents to answer consistently

103.

Which limitation most likely affects questionnaires and interviews alike?

a)

They guarantee large, perfectly representative samples

b)

They eliminate all interpretation differences

c)

They always capture emotions and body language

d)

Respondents may provide dishonest or incomplete answers

104.

Which benefit is most characteristic of questionnaires compared with interviews?

a)

They capture non‑verbal cues like facial expressions

b)

They require skilled interviewers for accurate screening

c)

They ensure small, targeted sample sizes

d)

They are inexpensive and produce fast, analyzable data

105.

Which advantage is specific to face‑to‑face interviews?

a)

Standardized tick‑box quantitative responses

b)

Unlimited sample size across regions

c)

Lower costs due to minimal personnel

d)

Ability to observe verbal and non‑verbal cues

106.

Which statement correctly defines the Lincoln Index in ecological studies?

a)

An estimator of population size using capture‑mark‑recapture

b)

A measure of species diversity from quadrat sampling

c)

A test for correlation between abiotic variables

d)

A formula for growth rate under logistic models

107.

Given N = n1 × n2 / m2, which term represents the number of marked individuals recaptured in the second sample?

a)

m2 in the denominator of the equation

b)

n1 from the first sampling effort

c)

n2 from the second mixed sample

d)

N as the final population estimate

108.

A team marks 120 beetles in the first sample (n1). In the second sample, they catch 300 beetles total (n2), of which 60 are marked (m2). What is the estimated population size N?

a)

360 by doubling the recaptured marked beetles

b)

180 by subtracting marked from unmarked counts

c)

480 by averaging the two sample sizes

d)

600 by substituting into N = n1 × n2 / m2

109.

Which planning decision would improve reliability when using the Lincoln Index?

a)

Sampling the same location using systematic or random grids

b)

Switching to open questions for qualitative insights

c)

Conducting interviews instead of field sampling

d)

Reducing marking to avoid affecting recapture rates

110.

Which statement best describes what Simpson's index measures in an ecosystem?

a)

Only species richness without abundance

b)

Genetic diversity within a single species

c)

Species diversity combining richness and abundance

d)

Only evenness of individuals among species

111.

In Simpson's index notation, what does n represent?

a)

Number of quadrats sampled

b)

Total individuals of all species

c)

Number of individuals of each species

d)

Sum of all diversity values

112.

A species is found in 6 of 15 quadrats. What is its percentage frequency?

a)

90 percent

b)

60 percent

c)

40 percent

d)

30 percent

113.

Which statement about percentage cover is accurate for plant surveys?

a)

Estimates area occupied by a species

b)

Measures genetic variation of plants

c)

Counts individuals per quadrat precisely

d)

Requires transects rather than quadrats

114.

Which ACFOR category would denote a plant recorded as present in most quadrats with high coverage?

a)

Occasional

b)

Frequent

c)

Rare

d)

Abundant

115.

A limitation of using the ACFOR scale is most likely which of the following?

a)

It measures percentage cover too precisely

b)

It requires advanced statistical software

c)

It cannot be used with quadrats at all

d)

It is qualitative and prone to observer bias

116.

Which step should occur first when planning an environmental investigation?

a)

Formulate a hypothesis from a question

b)

Design sampling and data collection

c)

Draft recommendations for policymakers

d)

Analyze results and draw conclusions

117.

A researcher hypothesizes rainfall is decreasing in a town. Which principle could reasonably underpin this hypothesis?

a)

Increase in local fish species diversity

b)

Historic climate records and vegetation changes

c)

Genetic drift in local plant populations

d)

Observer fatigue during field surveys

118.

Which action helps reduce bias when estimating plant abundance with quadrats?

a)

Use ungridded frames to speed counts

b)

Use gridded quadrats and consistent half-occupancy rules

c)

Increase subjectivity to capture rare species

d)

Prefer flowering plants for easier identification

119.

Which statement best describes a geospatial information system (GIS)?

a)

A tool to capture, store and manage geographic data

b)

A device to measure atmospheric pressure at sea level

c)

A platform for crowdsourced social opinions and trends

d)

A laboratory instrument for chemical water testing

120.

In GIS, what is the main purpose of using layered digital maps?

a)

To compress images for faster web loading

b)

To randomize map points to protect privacy

c)

To encrypt files for secure cloud storage

d)

To overlay data to reveal spatial relationships

121.

Which application is most appropriate for satellite sensing?

a)

Recording one hiker’s heart rate on a trail

b)

Measuring pH in a single pond sample

c)

Tracking sea level rises over large regions

d)

Counting individual trees in a backyard

122.

What type of data can satellite sensors collect using thermal infrared and radar?

a)

Genetic sequences and microbial taxonomy

b)

Detailed chemical composition of rock cores

c)

Blood glucose levels and human body metrics

d)

Land cover change and surface temperature patterns

123.

Radio tracking primarily gathers which kind of information about animals?

a)

Dietary micronutrient intake and gut flora

b)

Location, movement patterns and seasonal habits

c)

Long-term genetic mutations and heredity

d)

Exact birth dates and reproductive hormones

124.

Why are high levels of skill required for technological environmental data collection?

a)

Interpreting complex datasets and operating specialized tools

b)

Writing literature reviews and summarizing articles

c)

Negotiating fieldwork permits and travel logistics

d)

Designing logos for reports and presentations

125.

Which scenario best demonstrates integrated environmental assessment via computer modelling?

a)

Evaluating emissions, ecosystem impacts and human health together

b)

Counting trees in a single park over one afternoon

c)

Measuring the mass of a rock sample in class

d)

Checking weather on a phone to plan a picnic

126.

Crowdsourcing in environmental monitoring is best defined as

a)

Collecting data from many public contributors

b)

Hiring only professional field scientists

c)

Purchasing satellite time from agencies

d)

Using radios to track tagged wildlife

127.

Which pair correctly matches technology with a typical output?

a)

Radio tracking—blood chemistry lab reports

b)

Crowdsourcing—microscopic cell images

c)

GIS—interactive maps revealing spatial patterns

d)

Satellite sensors—personal fitness metrics

128.

What is a practical benefit of combining GIS with satellite imagery for an oil spill?

a)

Predicting movement of oil using ocean temperature and flow

b)

Scheduling tanker arrivals at commercial ports

c)

Estimating the price of crude using market algorithms

d)

Identifying the chemical formula of hydrocarbons

129.

Which of the following is a limitation often associated with technology use in field data collection?

a)

Inability to store digital records of observations

b)

Legal requirement to destroy data after one month

c)

High financial cost and need for highly trained staff

d)

Mandatory prohibition on remote sensing worldwide

130.

Which example aligns with the 5 Vs of big data characteristics?

a)

Perfectly uniform records with no errors ever

b)

Single small dataset measured once per decade

c)

Data that never changes and needs no context

d)

High volume, velocity and variety of environmental streams