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Geoscience Review for Exam Questions SM1 -- Dec 2025

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A gas has

a)

a definite volume but no definite shape

b)

a definite shape but no definite volume

c)

no definite shape or definite volume

d)

a definite volume and definite shape

2.

In which of the substances in Figure 3-1 are the forces of attraction among the particles so weak that they can be ignored under ordinary conditions?

a)

Substance A

b)

Substance B

c)

Substance C

d)

all of the above

3.

Forces of attraction limit the motion of particles most in

a)

a solid

b)

a liquid

c)

a gas

d)

both b and c

4.

A hypothesis

a)

can be completely proven

b)

may be disproved by a single experiment

c)

does not have to be tested to be accepted as probably correct

d)

is a proven fact

5.

Hypotheses may arise from

a)

prior knowledge

b)

logical inferences

c)

informed, creative imagination

d)

all of the above

6.

A controlled experiment allows the scientist to isolate and test

a)

a conclusion

b)

a mass of information

c)

several variables

d)

a single variable

7.

The ability to reproduce results is an important part of any

a)

hypothesis

b)

theory

c)

law

d)

experiment

8.

A hypothesis

a)

may be disproved by a single experiment

b)

can be completely proven

c)

does not have to be tested to be accepted as probably correct

d)

is a proven fact

9.

Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense (refer to the jar image with four horizontal layers labeled 1 at the top through 4 at the bottom).

a)

4,3,2,1

b)

1,2,3,4

c)

4,2,3,1

d)

2,3,4,1

10.

Why do objects sink or float

a)

Because their densities are using gravity to pull down

b)

Because their mass and volumes are equal

c)

Because their densities are higher or lower compared to water

d)

Because their densities are heavier or lighter

11.

Which statement about the image of fresh water above salt water with an egg suspended between them is correct

a)

the fresh water is more dense than the salt water

b)

The egg is suspended in the middle between the fresh water and the salt water because it is less dense than the salt water, but more dense than the fresh water.

c)

The egg has less volume than the salt water.

d)

The egg is suspended in the middle between the fresh water and the salt water because it is less dense than the fresh water, but more dense than the salt water.

12.

What is the formula for density

a)

density=mass−volumedensity=mass-volume

b)

density=massvolumedensity=\frac{mass}{volume}

c)

density=mass×volumedensity=mass\times volume

d)

density=mass+volumedensity=mass+volume

13.

A golf ball has greater density than a tennis ball because it

a)

is lighter than the tennis ball

b)

contains a different kind of matter than the tennis ball

c)

contains more matter than the tennis ball

d)

contains less matter than the tennis ball

14.

What layers of Earth make up the lithosphere?

a)

the crust and lower mantle

b)

the crust and upper mantle

c)

the continental crust and oceanic crust

d)

the upper and lower mantle

15.

What layer of Earth is labeled C in Figure 8-2?

a)

the crust

b)

the asthenosphere

c)

the mantle

d)

the lithosphere

16.

What layer of Earth is labeled E in Figure 8-2?

a)

the continental crust

b)

the lithosphere

c)

the oceanic crust

d)

the mantle

17.

What layer of Earth is labeled B in Figure 8-2?

a)

the continental crust

b)

the lithosphere

c)

the oceanic crust

d)

the mantle

18.

What layer of Earth is labeled B in Figure 8-2?

a)

the lithosphere

b)

the mantle

c)

the continental crust

d)

the oceanic crust

19.

What layer of Earth is labeled C in Figure 8-2?

a)

the lithosphere

b)

the crust

c)

the asthenosphere

d)

the mantle

20.

What layer of Earth is labeled E in Figure 8-2?

a)

the continental crust

b)

the lithosphere

c)

the mantle

d)

the oceanic crust

21.

Earth’s thin, rocky outer layer is its

a)

core

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

crust

22.

The Moho is

a)

the boundary between the outer and inner core

b)

boundary between the crust and the mantle

c)

the material of which the mantle is composed

d)

an area of the mantle that will not transmit seismic waves

23.

Most of the information about Earth’s interior was obtained by studying

a)

seismic waves

b)

rocks of the ocean crust

c)

meteorites

d)

rocks in deep wells

24.

Earth’s core is made of an alloy of

a)

iron and nickel

b)

copper and iron

c)

zinc and magnesium

d)

iron and zinc

25.

Earth’s inner core is solid because of

a)

the composition of its rock

b)

its great diameter

c)

extreme temperatures

d)

immense pressure

26.

The two layers that make up the lithosphere are the

a)

upper mantle and lower mantle

b)

oceanic crust and continental crust

c)

inner core and outer core

d)

crust and upper mantle

27.

The three main layers of Earth’s interior are the

a)

crust, core, and lithosphere

b)

crust, mantle, and core

c)

mantle, inner core, and outer core

d)

crust, mantle, and asthenosphere

28.

Molten rock beneath Earth’s surface is called

a)

magma

b)

tephra

c)

lava

d)

pyroclasts

29.

The layer on which the tectonic plates move is the

a)

lithosphere

b)

asthenosphere

c)

core

d)

crust

30.

In Figure 1-1, what layer of Earth’s geosphere is labeled A?

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

c)

upper mantle

d)

crust

31.

In Figure 1-1, what layer of Earth’s geosphere is labeled C?

a)

crust

b)

upper mantle

c)

lower mantle

d)

outer core

32.

What are the three main parts of the geosphere? (Remember inner and outer ______)

a)

atmosphere, crust, core

b)

crust, mantle, core

c)

lithosphere, mantle, core

d)

asthenosphere, lithosphere, atmosphere

33.

The crust and uppermost mantle make up the rigid outer layer of Earth called the

a)

geosphere

b)

asthenosphere

c)

lithosphere

d)

lower mantle

34.

Earth’s inner core is solid because of

a)

its great diameter

b)

immense pressure

c)

the composition of its rock

d)

extreme temperatures

35.

What type of plate boundary is illustrated in Figure 9-1?

a)

convergent oceanic-continental boundary

b)

divergent boundary

c)

transform fault boundary

d)

convergent oceanic-oceanic boundary

36.

What process is illustrated by the area labeled G in Figure 9-1?

a)

subduction

b)

seafloor spreading

c)

continental volcanism

d)

rifting

37.

What feature is labeled B in Figure 9-1?

a)

trench

b)

volcanic island arc

c)

continental volcanic arc

d)

ocean ridge

38.

What is a break in a rock mass along which movement occurs?

a)

epicenter

b)

earthquake

c)

fault

d)

fold

39.

The supercontinent in the continental drift hypothesis was called

a)

Panthalassa

b)

Pangaea

c)

Africa

d)

Mesosaurus

40.

Earth’s core is made of an alloy of

a)

iron and nickel

b)

zinc and magnesium

c)

iron and zinc

d)

copper and iron

41.

The Himalayas in South Asia are an example of what type of plate boundary?

a)

convergent continental-continental boundary

b)

divergent boundary

c)

transform fault boundary

d)

convergent oceanic-continental boundary

42.

Earth’s thin, rocky outer layer is its

a)

crust

b)

outer core

c)

core

d)

mantle

43.

The hypothesis that the continents move slowly over Earth’s surface and once were joined into one supercontinent is called

a)

subduction

b)

plate tectonics

c)

sea-floor spreading

d)

continental drift

44.

Why was Wegener’s hypothesis of continental drift originally rejected by geologists?

a)

Wegener could not explain how the continents could move through the ocean floor.

b)

Wegener’s data were incorrect.

c)

Wegener did not have any data to support his hypothesis.

d)

The continents of South America and Africa do not fit well together.

45.

What kind of plate boundary occurs where two plates grind past each other without destroying or producing lithosphere?

a)

transform fault boundary

b)

divergent boundary

c)

convergent boundary

d)

transitional boundary

46.

Wegener’s continental drift hypothesis stated that all the continents once joined together to form

a)

three major supercontinents.

b)

two major supercontinents and three smaller continents.

c)

two major supercontinents.

d)

one major supercontinent.

47.

Evidence that Earth’s core has a high iron content comes from

a)

the study of earthquake waves.

b)

deep wells.

c)

deep-sea drilling.

d)

meteorites.

48.

Deep ocean trenches are associated with

a)

transform fault boundaries.

b)

ocean ridge systems.

c)

subduction zones.

d)

rift zones.

49.

New ocean crust is formed at

a)

convergent boundaries.

b)

divergent boundaries.

c)

transform fault boundaries.

d)

continental volcanic arcs.

50.

The three main layers of Earth’s interior are the

a)

crust, mantle, and asthenosphere.

b)

crust, mantle, and core.

c)

mantle, inner core, and outer core.

d)

crust, core, and lithosphere.

51.

At a transform fault boundary,

a)

new oceanic crust is formed.

b)

lithosphere is neither destroyed nor produced.

c)

new continental crust is formed.

d)

oceanic lithosphere is destroyed.

52.

New ocean crust is formed along

a)

trenches.

b)

mid-ocean ridges.

c)

subduction zones.

d)

mountain belts.

53.

Which of the following results when divergence occurs between two oceanic plates?

a)

an ocean trench

b)

seafloor spreading

c)

a subduction zone

d)

a volcanic island arc

54.

The thermal convection that drives plate motion is caused by

a)

seafloor spreading.

b)

subduction.

c)

an unequal distribution of heat.

d)

gravity.

55.

A fault is

a)

the place on Earth’s surface where structures move during an earthquake.

b)

another name for an earthquake.

c)

a fracture in the Earth where movement has occurred.

d)

a place on Earth where earthquakes cannot occur.

56.

What type of boundary occurs where two plates move together, causing one plate to descend into the mantle beneath the other plate?

a)

divergent boundary

b)

transitional boundary

c)

transform fault boundary

d)

convergent boundary

57.

Volcanic island arcs are associated with what type of plate boundary?

a)

divergent boundary

b)

convergent continental-continental boundary

c)

convergent oceanic-continental boundary

d)

convergent oceanic-oceanic boundary

58.

An earthquake’s epicenter is

a)

the place on the surface directly above the focus.

b)

a spot halfway between the focus and the surface.

c)

the spot below the focus.

d)

any spot along the nearest fault.

59.

When an earthquake occurs, energy radiates in all directions from its source, which is called the

a)

epicenter

b)

focus

c)

fault

d)

seismic center

60.

During an earthquake, the ground surface

a)

moves only in a horizontal direction.

b)

moves only in a vertical direction.

c)

can move in any direction.

d)

does not move.

61.

The adjustments of materials that follow a major earthquake often generate smaller earthquakes called

a)

foreshocks.

b)

surface waves.

c)

aftershocks.

d)

body waves.

62.

Major earthquakes are sometimes preceded by smaller earthquakes called

a)

aftershocks.

b)

focus shocks.

c)

surface waves.

d)

foreshocks.

63.

Which seismic waves travel most rapidly?

a)

P waves

b)

S waves

c)

surface waves

d)

tsunamis

64.

Which seismic waves compress and expand rocks in the direction the waves travel?

a)

P waves

b)

S waves

c)

surface waves

d)

transverse waves

65.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of S waves?

a)

They travel more slowly than P waves.

b)

They temporarily change the volume of material by compression and expansion.

c)

They shake particles at right angles to the direction the waves travel.

d)

They cannot be transmitted through water or air.

66.

Overall, which seismic waves are the most destructive?

a)

P waves

b)

S waves

c)

compression waves

d)

surface waves

67.

What is the minimum number of seismic stations that is needed to determine the location of an earthquake’s epicenter?

a)

two

b)

one

c)

four

d)

three

68.

An Earthquake wave travel-time graph can be used to find the

a)

focus of an earthquake.

b)

strength of an earthquake.

c)

damage caused by an earthquake.

d)

distance to the epicenter of an earthquake.

69.

The Richter scale is based on measurements of the ___ of a seismic wave.

a)

speed

b)

frequency

c)

intensity

d)

amplitude

70.

The distance between a seismic station and the earthquake epicenter is determined from the

a)

calculation of the earthquake magnitude.

b)

intensity of the earthquake.

c)

arrival times of P and S waves.

d)

measurement of the amplitude of the surface wave.

71.

An earthquake’s magnitude is a measure of the

a)

size of seismic waves it produces.

b)

amount of shaking it produces.

c)

number of surface waves it produces.

d)

damage it causes.

72.

What instrument records seismic waves?

a)

seismogram

b)

seismograph

c)

Richter scale

d)

barometer

73.

Which of the following affects the amount of destruction caused by earthquake vibrations?

a)

the design of structures

b)

the intensity and duration of the vibrations

c)

the nature of the material on which structures are built

d)

all of the above

74.

Tsunamis are

a)

often generated by movements of the ocean floor.

b)

waves that are produced by tidal forces.

c)

waves that cannot cause damage on land.

d)

also known as tidal waves.

75.

Earthquake waves are called _____.

a)

seismic waves

b)

convergent waves

c)

divergent waves

d)

wave amplitudes

76.

Strike-slip faults are caused by ____ forces.

a)

compression

b)

shear

c)

right angle

d)

tension

77.

A magma’s viscosity is directly related to its

a)

depth

b)

age

c)

color

d)

silica content

78.

A lava flow with a surface of rough, jagged blocks and sharp, angular projections is called a(n)

a)

pyroclastic flow

b)

aa flow

c)

pahoehoe flow

d)

ash flow

79.

Highly explosive volcanoes tend to have what type of magma?

a)

magma with high silica, high viscosity, and higher gas content

b)

magma with low silica, low viscosity, and lower gas content

c)

magma with low silica, high viscosity, and lower gas content

d)

magma with no silica, high viscosity, and no gas content

80.

The particles produced in volcanic eruptions are called

a)

laccoliths

b)

calderas

c)

pyroclastic material

d)

volcanic stocks

81.

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a pyroclastic material?

a)

ash

b)

lapilli

c)

cinders

d)

pahoehoe

82.

What is the most abundant gas associated with volcanic activity?

a)

chlorine

b)

water vapor

c)

sulfur oxide

d)

carbon dioxide

83.

What type of volcano is built almost entirely from ejected lava fragments?

a)

cinder cone

b)

composite cone

c)

shield volcano

d)

pahoehoe volcano

84.

The broad, slightly dome-shaped volcanoes of Hawaii are

a)

composite cone volcanoes

b)

shield volcanoes

c)

pyroclastic volcanoes

d)

cinder cone volcanoes

85.

Which of the following plays a major part in determining the form of a volcano?

a)

elevation above sea level

b)

local soil type

c)

magma composition

d)

nearness of other volcanoes

86.

The most explosive volcanic eruptions are associated with what type of volcano?

a)

cinder cones

b)

shield volcanoes

c)

composite cones

d)

fissure eruptions

87.

A caldera is a

a)

type of volcanic eruption

b)

type of volcano

c)

large depression in a volcano

d)

very large volcanic bomb

88.

The volcanic landform that is formed when the more resistant volcanic pipe remains after most of the cone has been eroded is called a

a)

lahar

b)

caldera

c)

volcanic vent

d)

volcanic neck

89.

Crater Lake in Oregon was produced when

a)

a lava dam blocked a river.

b)

a large explosion blew out the side of a large volcano.

c)

the summit of a volcano collapsed.

d)

a lava flow erupted from a volcano.

90.

How are intrusive igneous bodies classified?

a)

by their size

b)

by their shape

c)

by their relationship to the surrounding rock layers above

d)

all of the above

91.

Magma forms when solid rock in the crust and upper mantle

a)

melts

b)

vaporizes

c)

crystallizes

d)

cools

92.

Which of the following factors affects the melting point of rock?

a)

composition of the material

b)

water content

c)

pressure of the surrounding rock

d)

all of the above

93.

Most shield volcanoes have grown from the ocean floor to form

a)

islands

b)

dikes

c)

tectonic plates

d)

canyons

94.

The volcanic landforms at divergent ocean plate boundaries are

a)

oceanic ridges

b)

volcanic island arcs

c)

continental volcanic arcs

d)

ocean trenches

95.

Most of the active volcanoes on Earth are located in a belt known as the

a)

circum-Atlantic belt

b)

Ring of Fire

c)

Ring of Lava

d)

East African Rift Valley

96.

Most intraplate volcanic activity occurs where

a)

oceanic plates diverge.

b)

hot magma descends into the mantle under a plate.

c)

hot mantle plumes rise toward the surface within a plate.

d)

oceanic and continental plates converge.

97.

The area where magma collects inside a volcano before an eruption is called

a)

a crater.

b)

a caldera.

c)

a vent.

d)

a magma chamber.

98.

What causes the magma inside a volcano to rise toward the surface?

a)

It is a thick liquid, denser than the surrounding rock.

b)

It does not contain dissolved gases.

c)

It is less dense than the surrounding rock.

d)

It is cooler than the surrounding rock.

99.

What determines whether a volcano erupts quietly or explosively?

a)

the size of the volcano

b)

the age of the volcano

c)

the characteristics of the magma

d)

the magnitude of nearby earthquakes

100.

Volcanoes that erupt quietly have what type of magma?

a)

very hot, low-silica magma

b)

high-silica magma

c)

hot, high-silica magma

d)

low temperature magma

101.

Composite volcanoes are produced by

a)

quiet eruptions of lava.

b)

explosive eruptions of lava and ash.

c)

explosive eruptions of ash and cinders.

d)

quiet eruptions that alternate with explosive eruptions.

102.

Which of the following is NOT one of the eight most common elements in Earth's continental crust?

a)

carbon

b)

silicon

c)

oxygen

d)

aluminum

103.

The most abundant element in Earth's continental crust (by weight) is

a)

oxygen

b)

silicon

c)

calcium

d)

iron

104.

What are the building blocks of minerals?

a)

rocks

b)

elements

c)

isotopes

d)

electrons

105.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of minerals?

a)

crystalline structure

b)

formed by inorganic processes

c)

definite chemical composition

d)

either liquid or solid

106.

What is a naturally occurring, inorganic solid with an orderly crystalline structure and a definite chemical composition?

a)

a mineral

b)

an element

c)

an isotope

d)

a compound

107.

Why is ice in a glacier considered to be a mineral, but water from a glacier is not?

a)

Water is not naturally occurring.

b)

Water does not have a chemical composition.

c)

Ice is not naturally occurring.

d)

Ice is a solid, but water is not.

108.

The process of mineral formation from magma is called

a)

evaporation

b)

precipitation

c)

crystallization

d)

melting

109.

Mineral formation caused by high pressures and high temperatures would most likely occur in which of the following environments?

a)

a lava flow

b)

the ocean

c)

a cave

d)

deep within Earth

110.

Minerals are classified by

a)

color

b)

composition

c)

size

d)

density

111.

A mineral that contains carbon, oxygen, and the metallic element magnesium would be classified as a(n)

a)

silicate

b)

oxide

c)

carbonate

d)

sulfate

112.

The building block of the silicate minerals is called the

a)

silicon-oxygen tetrahedron.

b)

aluminum-oxygen tetrahedron.

c)

silicon-oxygen triangle.

d)

silicon-aluminum triangle.

113.

Minerals with the silicon-oxygen structure, shown in Figure 2-1, are classified into what group?

a)

sulfates

b)

oxides

c)

carbonates

d)

silicates

114.

All minerals in the sulfate and sulfide groups contain what element?

a)

silicon

b)

sulfur

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon

115.

The most common mineral group in Earth's crust is the

a)

oxides

b)

carbonates

c)

sulfides

d)

silicates

116.

To which mineral group does orthoclase feldspar ( KAlSi3O8KAlSi_3O_8 ) belong?

a)

the oxides

b)

the carbonates

c)

the silicates

d)

the halides

117.

Which of the following properties is generally the least useful in identifying minerals?

a)

hardness

b)

streak

c)

cleavage

d)

color

118.

The appearance or quality of light reflected from the surface of a mineral is called

a)

streak

b)

color

c)

cleavage

d)

luster

119.

The resistance of a mineral to being scratched is called

a)

streak

b)

fracture

c)

hardness

d)

cleavage

120.

The color of the powdered form of a mineral is called

a)

cleavage

b)

streak

c)

luster

d)

fracture

121.

Mohs scale is used to determine what property of minerals?

a)

cleavage

b)

density

c)

hardness

d)

luster

122.

The tendency of minerals to break along smooth flat surfaces is called

a)

fracture

b)

cleavage

c)

streak

d)

crystal form

123.

What is the uneven breakage of a mineral called?

a)

fracture

b)

cleavage

c)

crystal form

d)

hardness

124.

What is the density of a mineral?

a)

the ratio of a mineral's mass to its volume

b)

the ratio of a mineral's height to its weight

c)

a mineral's mass

d)

a mineral's volume

125.

How could you determine if a sample of gold is pure?

a)

Compare the sample's density with that of pure gold.

b)

Compare the sample's color with that of pure gold.

c)

Determine whether the sample is magnetic.

d)

Determine whether the sample will fizz in contact with hydrochloric acid.

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