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Worksheets

Scientific Method & Basic Chemistry Concepts

Total questions: 139

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes an independent variable in an experiment?

a)

Factor the investigator changes intentionally

b)

Outcome variable affected by the test

c)

Data counted or measured after testing

d)

Condition kept constant across all trials

2.

Which is the dependent variable in an experiment measuring plant flower count under different light durations?

a)

Plant species used in trials

b)

Number of flowers per plant

c)

Hours of sunlight each day

d)

Length of the experiment period

3.

In a controlled experiment, what happens to variables other than the independent variable?

a)

They are ignored completely

b)

They are changed gradually

c)

They are measured only

d)

They are kept constant

4.

Which is the correct SI base unit for mass?

a)

Gram (g)

b)

Newton (N)

c)

Liter (L)

d)

Kilogram (kg)

5.

Which metric conversion is correct: 0.14 hectograms equals how many grams?

a)

140 grams

b)

0.014 grams

c)

1.4 grams

d)

14 grams

6.

Convert 0.003 kilograms to grams.

a)

30 grams

b)

3 grams

c)

0.3 grams

d)

3000 grams

7.

How many grams are in 150 centigrams?

a)

15 grams

b)

1.5 grams

c)

0.15 grams

d)

0.015 grams

8.

Convert 4526 milligrams to grams.

a)

0.4526 grams

b)

4.526 grams

c)

0.04526 grams

d)

45.26 grams

9.

Which scenario shows a direct relationship between two variables?

a)

As distance increases, time remains constant

b)

As force increases, mass stays the same

c)

As temperature increases, gas volume increases

d)

As pressure increases, volume decreases

10.

Which description fits an inverse relationship?

a)

Variables move in the same direction

b)

Variables change randomly over time

c)

Variables move in opposite directions

d)

Variables do not change together

11.

Which is an example of a physical change?

a)

Iron rusting in moist air

b)

Water freezing into ice

c)

Silver tarnishing on exposure

d)

Sugar reacting with acid

12.

Which is an example of a chemical change?

a)

Copper burning to form oxide

b)

Water boiling into vapor

c)

Salt dissolving in water

d)

Ice melting into water

13.

Which is a physical property useful for identifying substances?

a)

Density at room temperature

b)

Reactivity with acids

c)

Ability to rust outdoors

d)

Tendency to burn readily

14.

Which set lists three physical properties used to identify an unknown substance?

a)

Color, odor, reactivity with acid

b)

Solubility, taste, magnetism

c)

Density, melting point, boiling point

d)

Flammability, combustibility, toxicity

15.

Which is a chemical property?

a)

Ability to tarnish over time

b)

Density of 1 g/mL

c)

Melting point at 0°C

d)

Boiling point near 100°C

16.

How can you tell a chemical change has occurred?

a)

A new substance with new properties forms

b)

The shape changes without new matter

c)

The temperature is measured precisely

d)

The mass is conserved perfectly

17.

What is an element?

a)

Matter made of one kind of atom

b)

Blend of substances not bonded

c)

Atoms of two elements chemically joined

d)

Liquid part of a solution

18.

What is a compound?

a)

Mixture with uniform composition

b)

Material with variable composition

c)

Substance with atoms chemically bonded

d)

Substance of identical atoms only

19.

What is a mixture?

a)

Atoms chemically bonded together

b)

Material of a single pure element

c)

Combination of substances not bonded

d)

Solution with one solute only

20.

Which statement distinguishes homogeneous from heterogeneous mixtures?

a)

Heterogeneous is uniform; homogeneous is not

b)

Both are uniform throughout always

c)

Homogeneous is uniform; heterogeneous is not

d)

Neither can be separated physically

21.

Which statement describes a solution?

a)

Large particles visible and separable

b)

Uniform mixture at the molecular level

c)

Evenly dispersed tiny particles

d)

Particles settle quickly over time

22.

Which statement describes a colloid?

a)

Pure substance of one element

b)

Particles settle forming layers

c)

Particles scatter light noticeably

d)

Uniform molecular-level mixture

23.

Which statement describes a suspension?

a)

Particles are atoms chemically bonded

b)

Large particles eventually settle

c)

Uniform solution at molecular scale

d)

Particles remain evenly dispersed

24.

In a solution, what is the solvent?

a)

Substance that dissolves the solute

b)

Solid formed during mixing

c)

Gas produced by reaction

d)

Substance present in smaller amount

25.

Which statement best defines solubility for a solute in a solvent?

a)

The speed at which particles mix at any temperature

b)

The maximum amount that dissolves at given conditions

c)

The volume of solvent required to dissolve any solid

d)

The mass of solution formed regardless of pressure

26.

Which mixture has higher concentration?

a)

5 g salt in 200 g water

b)

10 g salt in 50 g water

c)

10 g salt in 200 g water

d)

5 g salt in 50 g water

27.

Which change increases the rate at which a solute dissolves in a solvent?

a)

Use larger solute chunks

b)

Cool and leave the mixture still

c)

Increase temperature of the solvent

d)

Decrease surface area of solute

28.

On a typical solubility curve, what does each point represent?

a)

Number of particles colliding in the solution

b)

Rate of dissolution over time and mixing

c)

Total mass of solvent across all temperatures

d)

Maximum grams dissolved at a specific temperature

29.

What is matter?

a)

Anything invisible without any particles

b)

Anything that flows and cannot be measured

c)

Anything that produces energy and light only

d)

Anything that has mass and takes up space

30.

Which description fits a solid?

a)

No definite shape and no definite volume

b)

Definite shape and no definite volume

c)

No definite shape and definite volume

d)

Definite shape and definite volume

31.

Which description fits a liquid?

a)

Definite shape, no definite volume

b)

Definite shape and definite volume

c)

Definite volume, no definite shape

d)

No definite shape or volume

32.

Which description fits a gas?

a)

Definite shape, no definite volume

b)

No definite shape, definite volume

c)

Definite shape and definite volume

d)

No definite shape or volume

33.

When thermal energy is added to matter, which two changes can occur to its particles?

a)

Lose energy or stop vibrating

b)

Move faster or spread farther apart

c)

Slow down or contract tightly

d)

Change mass or become heavier

34.

What is the scientific definition of temperature?

a)

Measure of average kinetic energy of particles

b)

Amount of heat a sample can absorb in total

c)

Speed of phase change in a material over time

d)

Number of collisions in a closed container

35.

As the temperature of matter increases, what happens to its particles?

a)

They gain mass and become denser

b)

They stop moving and become rigid

c)

They move faster with more kinetic energy

d)

They move slower with less energy

36.

During melting, which energy change occurs and how is it classified?

a)

No energy change; neutral process

b)

Energy absorbed; exothermic process

c)

Energy released; exothermic process

d)

Energy absorbed; endothermic process

37.

Which pairing correctly matches the phase change with energy and classification?

a)

Condensation: energy released; exothermic

b)

Vaporization: energy released; exothermic

c)

Sublimation: energy released; exothermic

d)

Freezing: energy absorbed; endothermic

38.

Which statement about temperature during a phase change is correct?

a)

Temperature decreases only in endothermic changes

b)

Temperature increases steadily without plateau

c)

Temperature remains constant while phase changes

d)

Temperature spikes briefly then falls sharply

39.

Which relationship describes Boyle’s Law for a gas at constant temperature?

a)

Volume is independent of pressure changes

b)

Pressure is constant regardless of volume

c)

Pressure is directly proportional to volume

d)

Pressure is inversely proportional to volume

40.

If the volume of a gas decreases at constant temperature, what happens to the pressure according to Boyle’s Law?

a)

Pressure becomes zero suddenly

b)

Pressure increases proportionally

c)

Pressure remains unchanged

d)

Pressure decreases linearly

41.

Which relationship describes Charles’ Law for a gas at constant pressure?

a)

Temperature is independent of volume changes

b)

Volume is inversely proportional to temperature

c)

Volume is directly proportional to temperature

d)

Pressure is directly proportional to mass of gas

42.

Which subatomic particle defines the atomic number of an element?

a)

Electron count in shells

b)

Neutron count in nucleus

c)

Proton count in nucleus

d)

Total particles in atom

43.

What is an isotope best described as?

a)

Atom with split nucleus

b)

Atom with different neutrons

c)

Atom with extra protons

d)

Atom lacking electrons

44.

Where is a proton located and what is its charge?

a)

Shells, negative

b)

Nucleus, positive

c)

Nucleus, neutral

d)

Shells, neutral

45.

What is the charge and typical location of an electron?

a)

Positive, in shells

b)

Positive, in nucleus

c)

Neutral, in nucleus

d)

Negative, in shells

46.

What is the mass number of an atom equal to?

a)

Electrons plus neutrons

b)

Electrons plus protons

c)

Protons plus neutrons

d)

Neutrons minus protons

47.

What does it mean for a nucleus to be radioactive?

a)

Unstable and decays

b)

Stable and energy-free

c)

Large and inert

d)

Charged and magnetized

48.

Over time, when radioactive elements emit particles and radiation, what happens to their stability?

a)

Mass number increases

b)

Charge becomes positive

c)

Stability decreases

d)

Stability increases

49.

An element has 10 electrons, 13 protons, and 14 neutrons. What is its atomic number?

a)

14

b)

13

c)

10

d)

27

50.

An element has 10 electrons, 13 protons, and 14 neutrons. What is its mass number?

a)

10

b)

13

c)

27

d)

24

51.

An element has 10 electrons, 13 protons, and 14 neutrons. What is its net charge as an ion?

a)

0

b)

+1

c)

−3

d)

+3

52.

An element has 8 electrons, 8 protons, and 10 neutrons. What is its atomic number?

a)

16

b)

18

c)

10

d)

8

53.

An element has 8 electrons, 8 protons, and 10 neutrons. What is its mass number?

a)

18

b)

16

c)

8

d)

10

54.

Carbon-14: Which statement is correct?

a)

Mass number equals 6

b)

Atomic number equals 14

c)

Electrons equal 8

d)

Atomic number equals 6

55.

How are elements arranged on the modern periodic table?

a)

Alphabetical by name

b)

Decreasing reactivity

c)

Increasing atomic number

d)

Increasing mass number

56.

Where are nonmetals generally located and what properties do they share?

a)

Bottom, radioactive

b)

Left side, malleable

c)

Right side, poor conductors

d)

Middle, magnetic

57.

What do vertical columns (groups) on the periodic table indicate?

a)

Same number of shells

b)

Same valence electrons

c)

Same atomic mass

d)

Same isotopes present

58.

Which metals are most reactive and what ion charge do they commonly form?

a)

Transition metals, 2−

b)

Alkali metals, 1+

c)

Halogens, 1−

d)

Noble metals, 0

59.

What specific part of the atom is involved in bonding?

a)

Core neutrons

b)

Inner electrons

c)

Valence electrons

d)

All protons

60.

Why do atoms form bonds with other atoms?

a)

To change into isotopes

b)

To decrease atomic number

c)

To complete outer shell

d)

To lose their nuclei

61.

Metals tend to ______ their valence electrons and form __________ ions.

a)

gain electrons, negative

b)

gain electrons, positive

c)

lose electrons, positive

d)

lose electrons, negative

62.

Nonmetals tend to ______ their valence electrons and form __________ ions.

a)

gain electrons, negative

b)

lose electrons, positive

c)

lose electrons, negative

d)

gain electrons, positive

63.

Practice naming the ionic compound MgS.

a)

magnesium monosulfide

b)

magnesium sulfur

c)

magnesium sulfate

d)

magnesium sulfide

64.

Practice writing the formula for aluminum oxide.

a)

AlO

b)

Al2O3

c)

AlO2

d)

Al3O2

65.

Practice writing the formula for lithium oxide.

a)

LiO

b)

Li2O

c)

LiO2

d)

Li2O2

66.

Practice naming the covalent compound N2O4.

a)

dinitrogen tetroxide

b)

nitrogen tetroxide

c)

nitrogen dioxide

d)

dinitrogen dioxide

67.

Practice naming the covalent compound SO3.

a)

sulfur monoxide

b)

sulfur(III) oxide

c)

sulfur trioxide

d)

sulfur dioxide

68.

Practice writing the formula for iodine heptafluoride.

a)

IF6

b)

IF7

c)

I2F7

d)

IF5

69.

What happens during a chemical reaction?

a)

atoms are created and destroyed

b)

elements change into energy directly

c)

atoms rearrange to form new substances

d)

mass disappears after products form

70.

What is the Law of Conservation of Mass?

a)

Mass is created during reactions

b)

Matter changes forms; mass conserved

c)

Mass increases when energy is released

d)

Atoms vanish in endothermic processes

71.

What is a subscript in a chemical formula?

a)

charge on an ion in the formula

b)

small number indicating atom count

c)

mass of the compound in grams

d)

number of molecules present

72.

What is a coefficient in a chemical equation?

a)

small number showing atom count

b)

large number showing molecule count

c)

number showing ion charge

d)

symbol indicating state of matter

73.

In 4AlCl₃, how many chlorine atoms are present?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

7

d)

12

74.

In 4AlCl₃, how many aluminum atoms are present?

a)

12

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

75.

Is AlCl₃ an ionic or covalent compound?

a)

network

b)

metallic

c)

covalent

d)

ionic

76.

In 5CH4, how many carbon atoms are present?

a)

5

b)

1

c)

20

d)

4

77.

In 5CH₄, how many hydrogen atoms are present?

a)

5

b)

4

c)

1

d)

20

78.

Is CH₄ an ionic or covalent compound?

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

c)

metallic

d)

acidic

79.

Balance: N2 + Cl2 → NCl3. Choose the correct coefficients.

a)

1,1,1

b)

1,3,1

c)

1,3,2

d)

1,3,2 for N2

80.

In the reaction Zn + HCl → ZnCl2 + H2, what is the balanced coefficient for HCl?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

81.

Describe a synthesis reaction.

a)

ions in two compounds swap partners

b)

one element replaces another element

c)

two reactants combine to one product

d)

one reactant forms two products

82.

Describe a decomposition reaction.

a)

ions in compounds exchange partners

b)

one compound breaks into parts

c)

one element replaces another element

d)

two reactants combine into one

83.

What is a catalyst?

a)

substance consumed in reaction

b)

substance lowering activation energy

c)

substance raising activation energy

d)

substance stopping reaction completely

84.

What is an inhibitor?

a)

substance lowering product energy

b)

substance raising reactant energy

c)

substance slowing reaction rate

d)

substance speeding up reaction

85.

How can you increase the rate of a chemical reaction?

a)

remove catalyst and reduce collisions

b)

lower temperature and surface area

c)

raise activation energy and dilute

d)

increase temperature or concentration

86.

Which statement describes an exothermic reaction?

a)

products have more energy than reactants

b)

reactants have more energy than products

c)

energy is absorbed from surroundings

d)

activation energy equals zero always

87.

Which statement describes an endothermic reaction?

a)

activation energy is lower with catalyst

b)

energy released to surroundings

c)

reactants have more energy than products

d)

reactants have less energy than products

88.

In a controlled experiment, what must be true about all variables except the independent variable?

a)

They are eliminated from the setup entirely

b)

They are measured but never recorded

c)

They are kept constant across all trials

d)

They are changed randomly during trials

89.

What is the base SI unit for mass?

a)

Kilogram (kilogram)

b)

Ounce (ounce)

c)

Pound (pound)

d)

Gram (gram)

90.

What is the base SI unit for length?

a)

Foot (foot)

b)

Meter (meter)

c)

Yard (yard)

d)

Kilometer (kilometer)

91.

What is the base SI unit for temperature?

a)

Celsius (celsius)

b)

Kelvin (kelvin)

c)

Fahrenheit (fahrenheit)

d)

Degree (degree)

92.

Use metric conversions to determine the amount of grams in 0.14 hectograms.

a)

1.4 grams

b)

14 grams

c)

140 grams

d)

0.014 grams

93.

Use metric conversions to determine the amount of grams in 0.003 kilograms.

a)

300 grams

b)

30 grams

c)

3 grams

d)

0.3 grams

94.

Use metric conversions to determine the amount of grams in 4526 milligrams.

a)

4.526 grams

b)

45.26 grams

c)

0.4526 grams

d)

452.6 grams

95.

Which example best illustrates a direct relationship?

a)

As temperature falls, pressure rises

b)

As temperature changes, pressure stays constant

c)

As temperature rises, pressure decreases

d)

As temperature rises, pressure rises

96.

What is an inverse relationship between two variables?

a)

One variable increases while the other decreases

b)

Variables move in the same direction

c)

Both variables remain unchanged

d)

Both variables decrease together

97.

Which set lists three examples of physical changes?

a)

Rusting, burning, rotting

b)

Cutting, heating, dissolving

c)

Tarnishing, fermenting, cooking

d)

Neutralizing, oxidizing, reacting

98.

Which pair lists two examples of chemical changes?

a)

Melting and freezing

b)

Cutting and condensing

c)

Dissolving and reshaping

d)

Burning and rusting

99.

Which group lists three physical properties used to identify an unknown substance?

a)

Flammability, reactivity, combustibility

b)

pH, conductivity, radioactivity

c)

Density, melting point, boiling point

d)

Hardness, malleability, ductility

100.

Which pair lists two examples of chemical properties?

a)

Density and color

b)

Flammability and reactivity

c)

Boiling point and melting point

d)

Mass and volume

101.

What is a compound?

a)

A physical blend of metals only

b)

Matter made of a single atom type

c)

Two or more substances not chemically combined

d)

Two or more elements chemically combined

102.

Which statement correctly compares homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures?

a)

Heterogeneous have small particles; homogeneous large

b)

Homogeneous always scatter light; heterogeneous never

c)

Heterogeneous cannot be separated; homogeneous can

d)

Homogeneous have uniform composition; heterogeneous do not

103.

Which mixture type has small solute particles, cannot be filtered, and does not scatter light?

a)

Emulsion

b)

Solution

c)

Suspension

d)

Colloid

104.

Which mixture type has large solute particles, can be filtered, and scatters light?

a)

Solution

b)

Alloy

c)

Suspension

d)

Colloid

105.

Which mixture type has medium solute particles, cannot be filtered, and scatters light?

a)

Solution

b)

Suspension

c)

Colloid

d)

Solvent

106.

Which statement best defines a solvent in a solution?

a)

The gas produced during dissolution

b)

The solid formed after a solution cools

c)

The substance that is dissolved by another substance

d)

The substance that dissolves the other substance

107.

Which example correctly identifies the solute in salt water?

a)

Salt and water are both solutes

b)

Neither salt nor water is a solute

c)

Salt is the solute dissolved in water

d)

Water is the solute dissolved in salt

108.

What does solubility describe?

a)

The speed a solute dissolves in a solvent

b)

The amount of solute that can dissolve at given conditions

c)

The temperature required to melt a solid

d)

The mass of solvent used in a mixture

109.

Which action lowers the concentration of a very sweet sugar solution?

a)

Add more sugar to the solution

b)

Add more water to the solution

c)

Heat the solution to a higher temperature

d)

Stir the solution more quickly

110.

Which change most often increases the rate at which a solute dissolves in a solvent?

a)

Decreasing temperature and stirring less

b)

Crushing the solute and stirring more

c)

Using a larger beaker without stirring

d)

Adding ice and leaving the mixture still

111.

Which statement correctly defines matter?

a)

Anything that forms a solution

b)

Anything that can conduct electricity

c)

Anything visible to the human eye

d)

Anything that occupies space and has mass

112.

Which description matches the particles in a solid?

a)

Particles spread apart with no definite volume

b)

Particles vibrate in fixed positions, definite shape

c)

Particles compress easily under low pressure

d)

Particles move freely and fill any container

113.

What two changes occur to particles when thermal energy is added?

a)

Lose mass, change identity

b)

Increase kinetic energy, speed up

c)

Decrease kinetic energy, slow down

d)

Gain protons, become ions

114.

What is the scientific definition of temperature?

a)

The average kinetic energy of particles

b)

The force exerted per unit area

c)

The total heat a substance contains

d)

The amount of solute in a solvent

115.

During a phase change such as melting or boiling, what happens to temperature?

a)

It increases steadily with time

b)

It decreases quickly to zero

c)

It does not change while the phase changes

d)

It fluctuates randomly

116.

Which process is endothermic and absorbs energy from surroundings?

a)

Condensation releases energy to surroundings

b)

Deposition absorbs energy from surroundings

c)

Freezing releases energy to surroundings

d)

Vaporization absorbs energy from surroundings

117.

Which statement best describes Boyle’s Law?

a)

Pressure is directly proportional to volume at constant temperature

b)

Volume is directly proportional to moles at constant pressure

c)

Pressure is inversely proportional to volume at constant temperature

d)

Volume is inversely proportional to temperature at constant pressure

118.

Which statement best describes Charles’ Law?

a)

Pressure is directly proportional to temperature at constant volume

b)

Volume is inversely proportional to temperature at constant pressure

c)

Pressure is inversely proportional to volume at constant temperature

d)

Volume is directly proportional to temperature at constant pressure

119.

Which definition correctly describes pressure in a gas?

a)

Heat per unit time transferred

b)

Energy stored per mole of gas

c)

Mass per unit volume of the gas

d)

Force per unit area from particle collisions

120.

Which change would increase the dissolution rate of table salt in water the most?

a)

Grinding salt and using warmer water

b)

Reducing surface area by making larger crystals

c)

Lowering temperature and leaving it unstirred

d)

Adding more water but keeping it cold

121.

Which statement compares high and low solubility of a solute correctly?

a)

High solubility means less dissolves at given conditions

b)

Low solubility means more dissolves at given conditions

c)

High solubility means more dissolves at given conditions

d)

Solubility is unrelated to amount dissolved

122.

An atom has 10 electrons, 13 protons, and 14 neutrons. What is its net charge?

a)

0 overall charge

b)

−3 overall charge

c)

+3 overall charge

d)

+1 overall charge

123.

An atom has 10 electrons, 13 protons, and 14 neutrons. What is its mass number?

a)

23

b)

29

c)

24

d)

27

124.

An atom has 8 electrons, 8 protons, and 10 neutrons. What is its atomic number?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

10

125.

An atom has 8 electrons, 8 protons, and 10 neutrons. What is its mass number?

a)

16

b)

20

c)

17

d)

18

126.

Uranium‑239 has atomic number 92. How many neutrons does it contain?

a)

92

b)

331

c)

147

d)

239

127.

How are elements arranged on the modern periodic table?

a)

By increasing reactivity

b)

By increasing atomic number

c)

By increasing number of neutrons

d)

By increasing atomic mass

128.

Where are metals mostly located on the periodic table, and what is a shared property?

a)

Center, colorless gases

b)

Left side, good conductors

c)

Top rows, poor conductors

d)

Right side, brittle solids

129.

Where are metalloids found, and what is a shared property?

a)

Along the staircase, semiconductors

b)

Far right column, gas at room temp

c)

Top rows, dense metals

d)

Bottom two rows, radioactive

130.

What are the horizontal rows on the periodic table called, and what do they indicate?

a)

Blocks, metallic character

b)

Periods, energy shells count

c)

Groups, valence electron count

d)

Families, neutron number

131.

Which nonmetals are most reactive and what charge do their ions typically have?

a)

Halogens, −1 charge

b)

Chalcogens, +2 charge

c)

Metalloids, +1 charge

d)

Noble gases, 0 charge

132.

Which part of the atom is directly involved in chemical bonding?

a)

Valence electrons

b)

Protons in the nucleus

c)

Entire electron cloud

d)

Neutrons in the nucleus

133.

How many electrons can occupy the first energy shell of an atom?

a)

8 electrons

b)

18 electrons

c)

1 electron

d)

2 electrons

134.

Which type of bond forms between a metal and a nonmetal?

a)

Hydrogen bond

b)

Metallic bond

c)

Covalent bond

d)

Ionic bond

135.

Balance the equation: N2 + Cl2 → NCl3. What are the lowest whole-number coefficients?

a)

1 N2 + 1 Cl2 → 2 NCl3

b)

1 N2 + 2 Cl2 → 2 NCl3

c)

1 N2 + 3 Cl2 → 2 NCl3

d)

2 N2 + 3 Cl2 → 4 NCl3

136.

Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid: Zn + HCl → ZnCl2 + H2. Which balanced coefficients satisfy the law of conservation of mass?

a)

1 Zn + 2 HCl → 2 ZnCl2 + 1 H2

b)

1 Zn + 2 HCl → 1 ZnCl2 + 1 H2

c)

1 Zn + 1 HCl → 1 ZnCl2 + 1 H2

d)

2 Zn + 2 HCl → 2 ZnCl2 + 2 H2

137.

Which description best matches a synthesis reaction?

a)

One reactant breaks into several products

b)

Ions from two compounds exchange partners

c)

A more reactive element replaces a less reactive one

d)

Two or more substances combine to form one product

138.

Which change would most likely increase the rate of a reaction between a solid and a solution?

a)

Use an inhibitor substance

b)

Lower the temperature of the system

c)

Dilute the reactants to lower concentration

d)

Grind the solid to increase surface area

139.

What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?

a)

Stops reaction by consuming reactants

b)

Changes products by altering stoichiometry

c)

Speeds reaction by lowering activation energy

d)

Slows reaction by raising activation energy