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Untitled Quiz

Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 3570secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes a vector in gene cloning?

a)

DNA molecules that transfer genes into a host

b)

Protein complexes that edit genomes directly

c)

RNA molecules that silence genes in hosts

d)

Lipids that encapsulate genes for delivery

2.

Which natural sources originally provided commonly used cloning vectors?

a)

Viruses such as bacteriophages

b)

Plasmids from bacteria

c)

Mitochondria from animals

d)

Chromosomes from plants

3.

What is the primary reason self-replication is essential for a cloning vector?

a)

Facilitates protein folding of expressed products

b)

Prevents transcription of inserted genes

c)

Allows replication independent of host genome

d)

Ensures integration into host chromosomes

4.

What is the primary reason self-replication is essential for a cloning vector?

a)

Facilitates protein folding of expressed products

b)

Prevents transcription of inserted genes

c)

Allows replication independent of host genome

d)

Ensures integration into host chromosomes

5.

Restriction sites on a cloning vector serve which function?

a)

Enable cleavage by restriction enzymes

b)

Initiate translation of marker genes

c)

Bind RNA polymerase for expression

d)

Transport vectors across host membranes

6.

Why are marker genes included in cloning vectors?

a)

To reduce vector size for easier handling

b)

To increase vector replication speed

c)

To verify successful insertion of foreign DNA

d)

To distinguish transformed cells from non-transformed

7.

Which feature of cloning vectors supports efficient laboratory handling?

a)

Large size improves stability during isolation

b)

Suitable small size facilitates isolation and handling

c)

Multiple origins increase replication burden

d)

Absence of markers simplifies screening workflows

8.

Select the set that lists essential features of an effective cloning vector.

a)

Self-replication, restriction sites, marker genes, suitable size

b)

Exons, introns, splice sites, poly-A tails

c)

Host genome integration, telomeric repeats, centromeres

d)

Photosynthetic genes, ribosomal RNA genes, operons

9.

Which feature allows a plasmid to replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome?

a)

Antibiotic resistance cassette

b)

Multiple cloning site region

c)

Origin of replication sequence

d)

Promoter for transcription

10.

Plasmids are best described as which type of genetic element in bacteria?

a)

Extrachromosomal circular DNA

b)

Mitochondrial circular DNA

c)

Chromosomal RNA plasmids

d)

Chromosomal linear DNA

11.

Which statement about plasmids is accurate regarding their necessity for bacterial survival?

a)

Always essential for viability

b)

Essential only during stationary phase

c)

Not essential but can be advantageous

d)

Essential in eukaryotic cells

12.

The origin of replication in a plasmid determines which property most directly?

a)

Restriction enzyme recognition

b)

Copy number in the host

c)

Antibiotic resistance spectrum

d)

Transcriptional strength

13.

What typical size range can plasmids exhibit?

a)

Less than 1 kb to >500 kb

b)

10 kb to 50 kb

c)

100 bp to 1 kb

d)

1 Mb to 5 Mb

14.

Which list correctly names commonly used cloning vectors?

a)

Shuttle vectors

b)

Plasmids

c)

Bacteriophages

d)

Yeast artificial chromosomes

e)

Cosmid vectors

15.

A multiple cloning site (MCS) is primarily designed to provide what?

a)

Transfer sequences to host

b)

Antibiotic resistance genes

c)

Clustered restriction sites

d)

Many replication origins

16.

Blue/white selection in plasmid cloning typically reports which event?

a)

Successful plasmid replication

b)

Insertion disrupting lacZ

c)

Antibiotic degradation rate

d)

Host strain identity change

17.

Naturally occurring plasmids often carry genes that confer resistance under specific conditions. Which example fits this role?

a)

Photosynthesis operons

b)

Telomerase subunits

c)

Antibiotic resistance determinants

d)

Ribosomal protein variants

18.

Which host types can naturally harbor plasmids?

a)

Bacterial strains

b)

Eukaryotic yeast

c)

Plant chloroplasts

d)

Mammalian mitochondria

19.

Low-copy-number plasmids typically have how many copies per cell?

a)

Hundreds to thousands

b)

One to four copies

c)

Ten to one hundred

d)

Exactly one copy

20.

High-copy-number plasmids commonly show which approximate range?

a)

1000–2000 copies

b)

200–400 copies

c)

1–4 copies

d)

10–100 copies

21.

Which feature determines whether a plasmid can replicate in a particular host species?

a)

Multiple cloning site segment

b)

Antibiotic resistance marker

c)

Blue/white reporter gene

d)

Origin of replication sequence

22.

Why are plasmids widely used as cloning vectors?

a)

They accept foreign inserts via MCS

b)

They are small and circular

c)

They naturally integrate into chromosomes

d)

They replicate independently

23.

What is the primary purpose of antibiotic resistance genes on a cloning plasmid during laboratory selection?

a)

Induce high copy number

b)

Enable selective growth

c)

Provide transcriptional control

d)

Prevent recombination

24.

Which feature best describes a multiple cloning site (MCS, polylinker) in modern plasmids?

a)

A promoter driving lacZ across the plasmid

b)

A short DNA with clustered restriction sites

c)

An origin duplicated across the vector

d)

A long repeat region spanning the plasmid

25.

Why are individual restriction sites within the polylinker designed to occur only once in the plasmid?

a)

To enable continuous expression of lacZ

b)

To prevent replication from multiple origins

c)

To ensure inserts cut only the intended region

d)

To increase antibiotic resistance gene copy

26.

Select all accurate statements about blue/white lacZ screening in plasmid cloning.

a)

It replaces antibiotic selection for transformants

b)

The system visually differentiates bacterial clones

c)

Blue colonies signal successful recombinant inserts

d)

White colonies indicate lacZ disruption by an insert

27.

Which statement about plasmid insert capacity is correct?

a)

Plasmids can hold unlimited insert lengths

b)

Plasmids routinely hold inserts over 100 kb

c)

Plasmids never carry inserts beyond 1 kb

d)

Plasmids typically carry inserts under 10 kb

28.

What advantage does an MCS provide during cloning strategy design?

a)

Provides high-level antibiotic resistance

b)

Ensures insert integrates randomly

c)

Allows many restriction enzymes choices

d)

Eliminates need for ligase enzymes

29.

Which feature of a plasmid ensures that the vector is duplicated within a bacterial cell during division, allowing inherited maintenance of the plasmid?

a)

Multiple cloning site providing unique cutters

b)

Ampicillin resistance gene enabling drug survival

c)

lacZ gene enabling blue–white screening

d)

Origin of replication initiating DNA synthesis

30.

In blue–white screening using a pUC-style plasmid, insertion of a DNA fragment into the MCS typically disrupts which function?

a)

Replication initiation at the ORI locus

b)

Beta-galactosidase activity encoded by lacZ

c)

Ampicillin degradation mediated by bla

d)

Restriction enzyme recognition across sites

31.

Which components together enable selection of bacteria carrying the plasmid after transformation?

a)

Ampicillin resistance gene conferring antibiotic survival

b)

Origin of replication enabling plasmid duplication

c)

Multiple cloning site providing insertion locations

d)

lacZ gene producing a blue chromogenic signal

32.

Which statement best describes a lytic life cycle in lambda phage infection?

a)

Phage DNA integrates as a prophage, remaining dormant

b)

Phage DNA replicates, virions assemble, cell lyses

c)

Phage proteins suppress bacterial lysis indefinitely

d)

Host chromosome replicates without phage assembly

33.

During the lysogenic cycle of lambda phage, what occurs inside the bacterial cell?

a)

New phage particles exit by lysing the membrane

b)

Cos sites are ligated to circularize the genome

c)

Phage head and tail proteins assemble rapidly

d)

Phage DNA integrates as a prophage into chromosome

34.

Which outcome signals a transition from lysogeny to the lytic cycle in lambda phage?

a)

External signal triggers prophage excision

b)

Random host mutation stabilizes prophage state

c)

Cos ends prevent genome packaging

d)

Tail fibers lose ability to bind receptors

35.

What feature makes bacteriophage lambda suitable for cloning long DNA fragments?

a)

Circular RNA genome with multiple origins

b)

Replaceable central region allowing inserts

c)

Ability to infect eukaryotic cell nuclei

d)

Tail assembly that edits foreign sequences

36.

Up to what approximate insert size can lambda phage vectors clone using the described adaptations?

a)

Up to 10 kb of foreign DNA

b)

Up to 20 kb of foreign DNA

c)

Up to 5 kb of foreign DNA

d)

Up to 50 kb of foreign DNA

37.

Which structural component of the lambda phage genome is nonessential for the lytic cycle?

a)

Central region required for lysogeny

b)

Left arm coding head and tail proteins

c)

Cos ends enabling circularization

d)

Right arm carrying replication and lysis genes

38.

What is the primary role of the left arm of the lambda genome?

a)

Formation of cohesive cos ends

b)

Production of heads and tails

c)

Integration into host chromosome

d)

DNA replication and cell lysis

39.

Cos (cohesive) ends in lambda phage are best described as:

a)

Palindromic repeats required for lysogenic integration

b)

Protein caps aiding in head packaging specificity

c)

Single-stranded complementary ends that circularize DNA

d)

Double-stranded blunt termini facilitating ligation

40.

Which step defines in vitro packaging in lambda phage cloning?

a)

Ligating cos sites to form circular genomes

b)

Selecting lysogens by antibiotic resistance

c)

Mixing empty heads, recombinant DNA, and tails

d)

Transforming bacteria with naked recombinant DNA

41.

What laboratory observation indicates successful lytic infection by recombinant lambda phage on an agar plate?

a)

Colonies with uniform turbidity

b)

Clear plaques of lysed bacterial cells

c)

Filamentous phage forming biofilms

d)

Green fluorescent foci from prophage

42.

Which statement about bacteriophages as vectors is accurate?

a)

They cannot be adapted to carry foreign DNA

b)

They replicate only through lysogeny

c)

They are viruses specialized to infect bacteria

d)

They infect bacteria and eukaryotes equally

43.

After lambda phage infects a host, which two alternative pathways can follow?

a)

Lytic cycle and sporulation

b)

Lytic cycle and lysogenic cycle

c)

Transformation and transduction

d)

Lysogenic cycle and conjugation

44.

Why is only the lytic cycle expected after replacing the central region with a foreign insert in lambda vectors?

a)

Central region encodes replication enzymes

b)

Central region produces tail fibers for entry

c)

Central region is essential for lysogeny only

d)

Central region forms cos ends for packaging

45.

Which genome property is found inside the lambda phage head?

a)

Supercoiled plasmid DNA of 100 kb

b)

Linear, double-stranded DNA of 48.5 kb

c)

Segmented double-stranded RNA of 20 kb

d)

Circular, single-stranded RNA of 9 kb

46.

What happens to cos ends once lambda DNA enters the host cell?

a)

They form triple helices blocking packaging

b)

They integrate into the host tRNA genes

c)

They ligate to circularize the genome

d)

They degrade to enable lytic replication

47.

Which components are combined to produce infective lambda particles during in vitro packaging?

a)

Recombinant phage DNA

b)

Host chromosomal fragments

c)

Purified empty heads

d)

Tail assemblies

48.

Which feature directly enables packaging of lambda DNA during assembly?

a)

Presence of cohesive cos sites

b)

Integration into host chromosome

c)

Deletion of right arm genes

d)

Mutation in tail fiber proteins

49.

During plaque formation, what sequential events occur?

a)

Phage multiplies via lytic cycles

b)

Prophage integrates stably

c)

Cells lyse creating clear zones

d)

Surrounding cells become infected

50.

In lambda-based cloning, which genomic region is replaced to allow packaging of foreign DNA and ensure a lytic cycle only, as depicted in the diagram?

a)

Tail fiber coding region

b)

Terminal cos sites region

c)

Central genome stuffer region

d)

Head assembly gene cluster

51.

Which step combination must occur to generate plaques containing recombinant λ DNA in E. coli, according to the workflow shown?

a)

Perform in vitro packaging before infecting E. coli

b)

Exclude λ arms during ligation and package source DNA only

c)

Select inserts larger than 40 kb for packaging

d)

Ligate 15–20 kb inserts between L and R arms

e)

Digest λ arms and source DNA with BamHI

52.

What is the primary readout that indicates successful cloning with bacteriophage λ in the plate image?

a)

Colonies formed by E. coli growth

b)

Clear plaques from E. coli lysis

c)

Turbid zones of partial lysis

d)

Confluent lawn without breaks

53.

Why are source DNA fragments fractionated to retain only 15–20 kb pieces before ligation into λ arms?

a)

Smaller fragments improve lysogeny efficiency

b)

This size fits packaging constraints

c)

Any size is acceptable for λ heads

d)

Larger fragments increase recombination frequency

54.

Which statement best describes cosmids in genetic cloning?

a)

Plasmid-only vectors without phage-derived sequences

b)

Pure bacteriophage vectors lacking plasmid features

c)

Eukaryotic artificial chromosomes used in yeast

d)

Hybrid vectors combining lambda-phage and plasmid DNA

55.

What feature enables cosmids to package large DNA fragments for delivery into E. coli?

a)

Multiple origins of replication per vector

b)

High-copy number selection marker genes

c)

Direct production of lambda-phage proteins

d)

Presence of cos sites flanking insertable DNA

56.

Select all characteristics typical of cosmids used in cloning.

a)

Replication inside cells as plasmids

b)

In vitro packaging mimicking lambda phage

c)

Formation of infectious viral particles in hosts

d)

Larger cloning capacity up to about 45 kb

57.

During cosmid-mediated infection of E. coli, what occurs to the injected DNA?

a)

It forms complete lambda-phage particles

b)

It remains linear and degrades rapidly

c)

It integrates randomly into the host chromosome

d)

It circularizes and replicates as a plasmid

58.

Why are antibiotic resistance markers useful when working with cosmids?

a)

They encode lambda-phage structural proteins

b)

They prevent circularization within host cells

c)

They directly increase packaging efficiency in vitro

d)

They allow selection of cells containing cosmid molecules

59.

In the diagram, which feature of the cosmid enables lambda phage headful packaging during in vitro packaging?

a)

ori replication origin sequence

b)

Tet^r antibiotic resistance gene

c)

cos cohesive end sequences

d)

BamHI restriction enzyme site

60.

According to the workflow shown, why are source DNA fragments enriched around ~45–50 kb before ligation into the cosmid vector?

a)

To match the headful size of lambda packaging

b)

To fit the E. coli plasmid replication limit

c)

To avoid restriction digestion by BamHI

d)

To ensure removal of cos sites before ligation

61.

Which step directly creates recombinant cosmid molecules capable of packaging and infection as shown?

a)

ScaI linearization of the vector backbone

b)

T4 DNA ligase joining vector and inserts

c)

BamHI protection of cos sites on inserts

d)

E. coli transformation by heat shock

62.

Which components must be present on a cosmid for successful cloning and recovery in E. coli, based on the diagram?

a)

Tet^r selectable marker

b)

ori for plasmid replication

c)

cos sites for phage packaging

d)

Tail fiber sequence for adsorption

63.

Which feature makes Yeast Artificial Chromosomes suitable for cloning very large eukaryotic DNA fragments?

a)

Single origin of replication for bacteria

b)

Presence of multiple restriction sites only

c)

Ability to ligate yeast chromosomal components

d)

High copy number in bacterial hosts

e)

Inherent antibiotic resistance genes

64.

A researcher needs to clone a human gene containing several introns. Which vector choice is most appropriate?

a)

Ti plasmid from Agrobacterium

b)

Cosmid vector

c)

Bacteriophage lambda vector

d)

Yeast Artificial Chromosome

e)

Standard E. coli plasmid vector

65.

Shuttle vectors are best described as plasmids that can multiply in two different species. Which design element enables this capability?

a)

Integration into host chromosomes

b)

Dual origins of replication for each host

c)

Presence of oriT for conjugation

d)

High-GC content sequences

e)

One universal origin of replication

66.

Which pair correctly matches host and essential shuttle vector components required for selection/replication?

a)

Bacterial centromere with leucine biosynthesis gene

b)

Yeast ori with antibiotic resistance gene only

c)

Bacterial ori with yeast intron processing genes

d)

Bacterial origin of replication with antibiotic resistance gene

e)

Yeast origin of replication with centromere sequence

67.

YACs are constructed by ligating components of natural yeast chromosomes. Which components are essential for stable maintenance of large inserts in yeast?

a)

Human promoter and poly-A signal

b)

Yeast centromere and telomere sequences

c)

Antibiotic resistance cassette alone

d)

Bacterial ori and lacZ alpha fragment

e)

Yeast origin of replication and centromere

68.

Which statement accurately contrasts YACs and shuttle vectors?

a)

YACs carry dual origins for two species, shuttle vectors carry one

b)

YACs exclude introns, shuttle vectors require cDNA

c)

YACs replicate in bacteria only, shuttle vectors in yeast only

d)

YACs clone very large eukaryotic DNA, shuttle vectors shuttle between hosts

e)

YACs are high-copy plasmids, shuttle vectors are chromosomal

69.

Which factor directly influences choosing between E. coli and yeast as host cells for a cloning vector?

a)

Desired gene expression complexity in host

b)

Availability of antibiotic selection markers

c)

Presence of multiple cloning sites on plasmid

d)

Ease of DNA extraction from cultures

70.

A researcher wants many copies of a gene without producing its protein. Which vector type is most appropriate?

a)

Shuttle vector for dual hosts

b)

Expression vector enabling translation

c)

YAC designed for very large inserts

d)

Cloning vector focused on replication

71.

Which statement best distinguishes expression vectors from cloning vectors?

a)

Include features to drive transcription and translation

b)

Use origins of replication for plasmid maintenance

c)

Carry selectable markers for antibiotic resistance

d)

Prefer bacteriophage hosts for high copy number

72.

You need to insert a 30 kb DNA fragment for propagation in E. coli. Which vector is most suitable?

a)

Plasmid with 10 kb capacity

b)

Cosmid with 45 kb capacity

c)

Bacteriophage lambda with 20 kb capacity

d)

YAC with 2000 kb capacity

73.

Which pair correctly matches vector and typical host organism?

a)

Cosmid — Yeast host

b)

Plasmid — E. coli host

c)

YAC — E. coli host

d)

Lambda phage — Yeast host

74.

Select all features commonly present in expression vectors to obtain a protein product.

a)

Selectable markers for host survival

b)

Ribosome binding or translation signals

c)

Large insert capacity exceeding 1000 kb

d)

Promoter sequences for transcription

75.

For cloning objectives in E. coli, which vectors are typical options?

a)

YACs optimized for mammalian cells

b)

Cosmids combining plasmid and phage features

c)

Bacteriophage lambda vectors

d)

Plasmids used in bacteria

76.

A 1.5 Mb genomic region must be cloned intact. Which vector choice is realistic?

a)

Plasmid supporting around 10 kb inserts

b)

Cosmid supporting around 45 kb inserts

c)

YAC supporting around 2000 kb inserts

d)

Lambda phage supporting around 20 kb inserts

77.

In gene cloning, which step directly follows insertion of the gene into a suitable vector? Use the visual to guide your answer.

a)

Selection or screening of recombinant cells

b)

Introduction of the vector into a host cell

c)

Making the desired gene product

d)

Purification of the inserted gene fragment

78.

Which statement best defines transformation in prokaryotic cells?

a)

Cells exchange plasmids during conjugation between cells

b)

Cells synthesize new DNA from nucleotides

c)

Cells integrate viral DNA through transduction by bacteriophages

d)

Cells take up extracellular DNA from the environment

79.

What term describes a cell capable of taking up DNA?

a)

Proficient

b)

Competent

c)

Activated

d)

Receptive

80.

Why is inducing competency important for transformation efficiency?

a)

It inhibits restriction endonucleases in cytoplasm

b)

It creates membrane pores facilitating DNA entry

c)

It increases transcription of selectable markers

d)

It stabilizes plasmid replication and segregation

81.

Which methods are commonly used to induce host cell competency for transformation?

a)

Long-term selection with antibiotics

b)

Electroporation using pulsed electric field

c)

CRISPR-Cas9 mediated genome editing

d)

Chemical treatment with CaCl2 on ice

82.

During chemical competency, E. coli cells are typically treated with which reagent and condition?

a)

MgSO4 at room temperature

b)

CaCl2 on ice at low temperature

c)

KCl at 4°C overnight incubation

d)

NaCl at 42°C heat bath

83.

What is the immediate purpose of the 42°C heat shock step in chemical transformation?

a)

Activate ampicillin resistance gene expression

b)

Create a brief thermal gradient driving DNA uptake

c)

Denature chromosomal DNA for recombination

d)

Induce replication of the recombinant plasmid

84.

Which sequence of steps best matches the chemical transformation workflow shown?

a)

Electroporate, recover, screen by PCR immediately

b)

Grow cells, add plasmid, plate directly on antibiotic

c)

Warm to 42°C, centrifuge, store at −80°C

d)

Chill in CaCl2, mix with plasmid, apply heat shock

85.

Electroporation increases DNA uptake primarily by which mechanism?

a)

Chelation of divalent cations around DNA

b)

Permanent removal of peptidoglycan layer

c)

Transient pore formation via pulsed electric field

d)

Enzymatic digestion of outer membrane proteins

86.

Which statement about electroporation is accurate?

a)

It is restricted to prokaryotes only

b)

It requires a device called an electroporator

c)

It prevents RNA molecules entering cells

d)

It substitutes antibiotic selection entirely

87.

Identify the pair correctly matching method to key requirement.

a)

Chemical transformation — electroporator device

b)

Chemical transformation — viral transduction machinery

c)

Electroporation — 42°C heat shock step

d)

Electroporation — pulsed electrical field application

88.

Which outcome indicates successful transformation after plating on LB + ampicillin?

a)

No colonies due to antibiotic stress

b)

Colonies resistant to ampicillin grow

c)

Only lawn growth without selection

d)

Cells lyse due to osmotic shock

89.

Choose all molecules that can be introduced into cells through electroporation.

a)

Lipids forming micelles

b)

Proteins like GFP

c)

RNA such as mRNA

d)

DNA such as plasmids

90.

Which statement best describes transduction in prokaryotes?

a)

Transfer of recombinant DNA by a bacteriophage

b)

Direct uptake of naked plasmid DNA by bacteria

c)

Editing host genome using CRISPR-Cas systems

d)

Fusion of donor and recipient bacterial cells

91.

Why is transduction often preferred for introducing recombinant λ phage or cosmid DNA into E. coli?

a)

It prevents formation of plaques on agar plates

b)

It yields high efficiency compared to transformation

c)

It avoids using bacteriophage particles entirely

d)

It only works with eukaryotic host cells

92.

During transduction, what role does phage packaging play in vitro?

a)

It integrates plasmids into the host chromosome

b)

It degrades non-viral DNA prior to infection

c)

It blocks infection of E. coli by bacteriophages

d)

It packages recombinant DNA into phage particles

93.

Which outcome indicates successful transduction of E. coli by recombinant phage particles?

a)

No change in colony morphology on agar

b)

Formation of plaques after plating infected cells

c)

Increased antibiotic resistance without infection

d)

Complete lysis of uninfected control cells

94.

Select all statements that are accurate about the efficiency of transduction relative to bacterial transformation with plasmids.

a)

It can be 10–100-fold higher

b)

It is typically much lower

c)

Efficiency depends on phage packaging into particles

d)

It requires cell-to-cell conjugation

95.

Which step directly follows insertion of the gene of interest during gene cloning, as depicted in the diagram?

a)

Selection or screening of recombinant cells

b)

Introduction of the vector into a host

c)

Making the desired gene product

d)

Isolation of the host genome

96.

In the diagram, which outcome occurs when a host cell receives no plasmid vector during transformation?

a)

Recombinant cell carrying target gene

b)

Recombinant cell carrying wrong insert

c)

Non-recombinant cell with empty vector

d)

Non-transformed cell lacking any vector

97.

Which scenarios represent recombinant cells in the diagram? Select all that apply.

a)

Vector recircularizes without insert

b)

Vector ligates another chromosomal fragment

c)

Vector ligates the gene of interest

d)

Host cell receives no vector

98.

After ligation, the plasmid shown as a closed circle with no foreign DNA corresponds to which cellular outcome after introduction into a host?

a)

Non-recombinant cell transformed by empty vector

b)

Non-transformed cell without any vector

c)

Recombinant cell with incorrect gene fragment

d)

Recombinant cell with correct gene of interest

99.

According to the diagram sequence, which step distinguishes a correctly recombinant cell from an incorrectly recombinant cell?

a)

Whether ligation occurs between blunt ends

b)

Whether the host cell uptakes any vector

c)

Whether the vector circularizes successfully

d)

Whether the insert is the gene of interest

100.

What is the primary aim of selection/screening in gene cloning?

a)

To increase antibiotic concentration in media

b)

To eliminate all plasmids from host cells

c)

To amplify host genome without inserts

d)

To isolate recombinant clones correctly oriented

101.

In cloning vectors, why are two marker genes commonly included?

a)

One enhances transcription, one stabilizes mRNA

b)

Both suppress non-homologous recombination events

c)

Both increase plasmid copy number in hosts

d)

One selects transformed cells, one identifies recombinants

102.

Which statement best distinguishes transformed cells from recombinant cells?

a)

Transformed express antibiotic; recombinant lose resistance

b)

Transformed integrate into genome; recombinant remain episomal

c)

Transformed are resistant; recombinant are antibiotic sensitive

d)

Transformed received vector; recombinant carry inserts

103.

During antibiotic selection, what must the vector contain to allow growth on selective plates?

a)

A toxin-antitoxin stabilization module

b)

A ribosomal RNA operon for fast growth

c)

An antibiotic resistance gene such as ampR

d)

A promoter that drives lacZ expression

104.

On agar containing ampicillin, what happens to non-transformed bacteria?

a)

They grow slowly until mutations arise

b)

They form colonies but lose plasmids

c)

They fail to grow due to lacking ampR plasmids

d)

They survive by secreting β-lactamase extracellularly

105.

Which pair correctly matches selection step with the purpose?

a)

Colorimetric assay: increase plasmid yield

b)

Ampicillin plating: identify gene orientation

c)

Marker suppression: enhance transformation efficiency

d)

Antibiotic resistance: select vector uptake

106.

Choose the TRUE statements about selecting recombinant clones using antibiotics.

a)

Potential transformants are plated on antibiotic agar

b)

Vectors carry resistance genes enabling growth

c)

Non-transformed cells grow if they secrete enzymes

d)

Resistance indicates the host received a cloning vector

107.

Which outcome best indicates successful screening for recombinant clones?

a)

Vectors oriented randomly without gene inserts

b)

Bacteria that are sensitive to all antibiotics

c)

Cells that lose plasmids under nonselective growth

d)

Colonies that are transformed and carry inserts

108.

Which statement best describes insertional inactivation in cloning vectors?

a)

Insert duplicates reporter gene sequences

b)

Insert enhances reporter gene expression

c)

Insert disrupts reporter gene function

d)

Insert relocates reporter gene to plasmid

109.

A cloning site located within an antibiotic resistance gene is used so that successful DNA integration will cause what outcome?

a)

Acquisition of new resistance

b)

Increased an109MULTIPLE CHOICE • 30 sec • 1 PtEditA cloning site located within an antibiotic resistance gene is used so that successful DNA integration will cause what outcome?Acquisition of new resistanceIncreased antibiotic resistanceLoss of resistance phenotypeUnchanged resistance phenotypetibiotic resistance

c)

Loss of resistance phenotype

d)

Unchanged resistance phenotype

110.

Which pair correctly matches the role and readout of a reporter gene used for insertional inactivation?

a)

Gene function stabilized, constant product

b)

Gene function shifted, altered product

c)

Gene function boosted, bright product

d)

Gene function disrupted, no product

111.

During screening by insertional inactivation of an antibiotic resistance gene, how are recombinant colonies identified on the selective plate?

a)

Colonies that fail to grow

b)

Colonies that grow faster

c)

Colonies that change color

d)

Colonies that grow larger

112.

Which steps are involved when printing colony patterns from a master plate onto a plate containing the selective antibiotic? Select all that apply.

a)

Picking colonies that grew strongly

b)

Comparing positions to master plate

c)

Marking colonies that did not grow

d)

Replicate plating onto antibiotic plate

113.

Why is the cloning site often placed within a reporter gene or resistance gene for screening purposes?

a)

Insertion disrupts function as a signal

b)

Insertion increases plasmid copy number

c)

Insertion prevents DNA ligation events

d)

Insertion reduces host metabolism rate

114.

Which observation indicates a non-recombinant vector when using antibiotic resistance gene inactivation?

a)

Colony changes pigmentation

b)

Colony fails to grow

c)

Colony grows on antibiotic

d)

Colony shows no gene product

115.

Blue-white screening is an example of insertional inactivation targeting which gene?

a)

recA recombination gene

b)

lacZ reporter gene

c)

tetR resistance gene

d)

ampR resistance gene

116.

In the diagram, E. coli are first plated on medium containing ampicillin. Which colonies survive this step and why?

a)

Cells with genomic mutation conferring Tet resistance

b)

Cells without plasmid due to intrinsic Amp resistance

c)

Cells with intact plasmid expressing Amp resistance

d)

Cells with cloned plasmid losing Amp resistance

117.

Replica plating onto tetracycline medium distinguishes recombinant colonies. Which phenotype indicates a plasmid disrupted within the tetracycline resistance gene by an insert?

a)

Amp resistant, Tet sensitive colonies

b)

Amp sensitive, Tet sensitive colonies

c)

Amp sensitive, Tet resistant colonies

d)

Amp resistant, Tet resistant colonies

118.

Which step correctly identifies cells carrying inserts cloned into the Tet^r gene on the plasmid shown?

a)

Pool Amp sensitive colonies and grow in broth

b)

Replica plate onto tetracycline and choose Tet sensitive

c)

Transform E. coli and select on ampicillin plates

d)

Ligate the DNA into the Tet^r region at MCS

119.

Why are colonies that are AmprAmp^r TetsTet^s preferred as recombinant candidates in this selection scheme?

a)

Insert disrupted Amp gene decreasing resistance

b)

Insert interrupted Tet gene indicating cloning site

c)

Insert integrated into chromosome causing resistance

d)

Insert restored Tet gene function after ligation