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M255 Exam 1 Review Quiz

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE) in a laboratory setting?

a)

To enhance the appearance of laboratory personnel.

b)

To protect laboratory personnel from potential hazards.

c)

To ensure faster completion of experiments.

d)

To reduce the need for laboratory training.

2.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended practice for personal protection in the lab?

a)

Wearing gloves when handling hazardous materials.

b)

Eating and drinking in the laboratory.

c)

Wearing safety goggles during experiments.

d)

Using lab coats to protect clothing.

3.

What should be done with gloves after handling hazardous materials in the lab?

a)

Reuse them for the next experiment.

b)

Dispose of them in designated waste bins.

c)

Wash them and store them for future use.

d)

Leave them on the lab bench.

4.

Why is it important to avoid eating or drinking in the laboratory?

a)

It distracts from the experiment.

b)

It can lead to contamination and exposure to hazardous substances.

c)

It is against laboratory etiquette.

d)

It takes up too much time.

5.

What is the recommended action if a chemical spill occurs in the lab?

a)

Ignore it and continue working.

b)

Inform the supervisor and follow the spill cleanup procedure.

c)

Use paper towels to clean it up immediately.

d)

Leave the area and let someone else handle it.

6.

What is the correct way to dispose of biohazard materials in a laboratory?

a)

Place them in regular trash bins.

b)

Dispose of them in biohazard bags located in the rear of the laboratory.

c)

Flush them down the sink.

d)

Leave them on the lab bench for cleaning staff.

7.

Which formula is used to calculate the total magnification of a compound microscope?

a)

Ocular + Objective = Total Magnification.

b)

Ocular x Objective = Total Magnification.

c)

Ocular - Objective = Total Magnification.

d)

Ocular ÷ Objective = Total Magnification.

8.

Which of the following cells is the largest in size based on the diagram provided?

a)

Bacteria.

b)

Viruses.

c)

Yeast.

d)

Eukaryotic cells.

9.

What is the role of the ocular lens in a compound microscope?

a)

To provide illumination to the specimen.

b)

To magnify the image formed by the objective lens.

c)

To adjust the focus of the microscope.

d)

To hold the specimen in place.

10.

What does the term "resolution" refer to in microscopy?

a)

The ability to magnify an object.

b)

The capacity to distinguish or separate two adjacent objects.

c)

The ability to focus light on a specimen.

d)

The process of refraction in lenses.

11.

How does wavelength affect resolution in microscopy?

a)

Longer wavelengths improve resolution.

b)

Shorter wavelengths improve resolution.

c)

Wavelength has no effect on resolution.

d)

Resolution is only affected by the objective lens, not wavelength.

12.

What is the working distance in microscopy?

a)

The distance between the objective lens and the specimen.

b)

The area visible through the microscope.

c)

The magnification power of the objective lens.

d)

The wavelength of light used in the microscope.

13.

Which magnification level typically has the smallest field of view?

a)

4x

b)

10x

c)

40x

d)

All magnifications have the same field of view.

14.

What is the purpose of using an oil immersion lens in microscopy?

a)

To increase the magnification of the microscope.

b)

To reduce light refraction and improve resolution.

c)

To allow the microscope to focus on smaller objects.

d)

To prevent the lens from getting damaged.

15.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of eukaryotic cells?

a)

Presence of a nucleus.

b)

Presence of membrane-bound organelles.

c)

Smaller and simpler than prokaryotic cells.

d)

Ribosomes with an 80S sedimentation rate.

16.

Which of the following organisms is an example of a unicellular eukaryote?

a)

Bacteria.

b)

Paramecium.

c)

Virus.

d)

Cyanobacteria.

17.

What is the sedimentation rate of ribosomes in eukaryotic cells?

a)

70S.

b)

80S.

c)

60S.

d)

90S.

18.

What does the term "ubiquity of bacteria" refer to?

a)

The ability of bacteria to cause diseases

b)

The presence of bacteria in specific environments only

c)

The presence of bacteria everywhere in the environment and body

d)

The inability of bacteria to survive in extreme conditions

19.

Why is it important to incubate/inoculate plates upside down?

a)

To prevent contamination from the environment

b)

To allow bacteria to grow faster

c)

To prevent condensation from dripping onto the agar surface

d)

To ensure even distribution of bacteria

20.

Which of the following is a key difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus, while eukaryotic cells do not

b)

Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles, while prokaryotic cells do not

c)

Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells

d)

Eukaryotic cells lack ribosomes, while prokaryotic cells have them

21.

What is the purpose of using oil immersion in microscopy?

a)

To clean the microscope lens

b)

To increase the magnification of the specimen

c)

To reduce light refraction and improve resolution

d)

To stain the specimen for better visibility

22.

Which of the following is NOT a part of aseptic technique?

a)

Using a Bunsen burner to sterilize equipment

b)

Wiping down the work area with disinfectant

c)

Keeping media sterile and lids closed

d)

Leaving the work area uncleaned after use

23.

What are the three main shapes/morphologies of bacteria?

a)

Bacilli, cocci, and spiral

b)

Squares, triangles, and circles

c)

Ovals, cubes, and hexagons

d)

Cylinders, cones, and pyramids

24.

What information should be included when labeling plates in a lab setting?

a)

Your initials, date, media type, and what you inoculated on the plate

b)

Only the date and lab exercise

c)

The type of bacteria and the lab instructor's name

d)

The lab exercise and the type of medium used

25.

Where should labels be written on a plate in a lab setting?

a)

On the top of the plate

b)

On the bottom perimeter of the plate

c)

On the side of the plate

d)

On the glass portion of the plate

26.

What is a key characteristic of prokaryotic cells compared to eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells contain mitochondria

b)

Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus

c)

Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells

d)

Prokaryotic cells have a cell wall made of cellulose

27.

What is the function of flagella in prokaryotic cells?

a)

To synthesize proteins

b)

To rotate and provide motility

c)

To store genetic material

d)

To carry out photosynthesis

28.

What is the primary component of the cell wall in most prokaryotic cells?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Peptidoglycan

c)

Chitin

d)

Lipids

29.

What is a colony in microbiology?

a)

A single bacterial cell.

b)

A visible mass of microorganisms all originating from a single mother cell.

c)

A group of unrelated microorganisms growing together.

d)

A sterile environment for bacterial growth.

30.

Which part of the petri dish is labeled with the date, initials, medium, organism, etc.?

a)

Transparent lid

b)

Culture medium

c)

Base of transparent container

d)

No labeling is necessary.

31.

At what temperature should the petri dishes be incubated during the plate exposure method?

a)

25°C.

b)

37°C.

c)

50°C.

d)

10°C.

32.

What observation indicates turbidity in broth growth results?

a)

The tube is clear with no threads or clumps.

b)

The tube is cloudy with visible threads or clumps.

c)

The tube is empty.

d)

The tube is clear with over 100 colonies.

33.

Which type of hemolysis is characterized by complete clearing of the red blood cells around the colonies?

a)

Alpha hemolysis

b)

Beta hemolysis

c)

Gamma hemolysis

d)

Delta hemolysis

34.

What is the primary purpose of aseptic techniques in the lab?

a)

To enhance the growth of bacteria

b)

To prevent contamination and promote sterile conditions

c)

To increase the temperature of the lab environment

d)

To reduce the need for hand washing

35.

Why is agar not digestible for most organisms?

a)

It lacks nutrients

b)

It is a polysaccharide

c)

It is resistant to enzymatic breakdown

d)

It contains too much moisture

36.

Which method of sterilization involves using steam under pressure at 121°C for 15–40 minutes?

a)

Incineration

b)

Disinfection

c)

Autoclaving

d)

Pasteurization

37.

What is the hottest part of the flame in a Bunsen burner?

a)

The outer blue cone

b)

The tip of the inner blue cone

c)

The orange area

d)

The base of the flame

38.

What is the first step in the transfer method for handling bacteria in the lab?

a)

Flame the inoculating loop

b)

Clean the work area with table cleaner and wash your hands thoroughly

c)

Label your tubes and plates

d)

Remove the cap from the tube containing culture

39.

What should you do immediately after removing the cap from the tube containing culture during bacterial transfer?

a)

Flame the inoculating loop

b)

Flame the top of the tube

c)

Replace the cap on the tube

d)

Transfer the bacteria to the plate

40.

What is the purpose of using streak plate and pour plate methods in microbiology?

a)

To identify the shape of microorganisms

b)

To isolate colonies to obtain pure cultures

c)

To evaluate the purity of isolated colonies

d)

To stain microorganisms for observation

41.

What is the purpose of the streak plate method in microbiology?

a)

To isolate single colonies of bacteria

b)

To measure bacterial growth rate

c)

To identify bacterial species

d)

To sterilize bacterial cultures

42.

In the streak plate method, what is the expected result in Area 4 of the plate?

a)

Heavy confluent growth

b)

Less dense growth

c)

Weak growth

d)

Isolated single colonies

43.

Which of the following is a correct step in the streak plate method?

a)

Sterilize the loop before streaking each section

b)

Use the same loop without sterilizing for all sections

c)

Add a new bacterial culture to each section

d)

Incubate the plate immediately after streaking without sterilization

44.

What is the primary purpose of the pour plate method in microbiology?

a)

To isolate and count microorganisms in a sample.

b)

To sterilize laboratory equipment.

c)

To measure the pH of a solution.

d)

To identify the chemical composition of a sample.

45.

Which step is essential in the pour plate method to ensure even distribution of microorganisms in the medium?

a)

Heating the sample to 100°C.

b)

Mixing the sample gently with molten agar.

c)

Adding antibiotics to the medium.

d)

Incubating the sample at room temperature.

46.

What is a key observation in the results of the pour plate method?

a)

Colonies grow only on the surface of the agar.

b)

Colonies grow at different depths within the agar.

c)

No colonies are observed in the medium.

d)

Colonies grow only at the edges of the petri dish.

47.

What is the purpose of using different conditions in bacterial culture experiments?

a)

To observe the effects of light on bacterial growth

b)

To study the growth of bacteria under specific environmental conditions

c)

To determine the nutritional requirements of plants

d)

To measure the pH of bacterial colonies

48.

Which bacterial species is known for producing a green pigment?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Bacillus subtilis

49.

What is the purpose of aseptic technique in E. coli culture transfer?

a)

To prevent contamination during the transfer process.

b)

To increase the growth rate of E. coli.

c)

To change the morphology of E. coli.

d)

To reduce the nutrient requirements of E. coli.

50.

What is a common method to examine the purity of a culture?

a)

Observing turbidity in broth.

b)

Examining growth on agar plates.

c)

Measuring the pH of the culture medium.

d)

Counting the number of cells under a microscope.

51.

Which organism produces a yellow pigment on slant culture?

a)

E. coli.

b)

S. marcescens.

c)

M. luteus.

d)

Bacillus subtilis.

52.

What is the macroscopic appearance of S. marcescens on agar plates?

a)

Yellow pigment.

b)

Red pigment.

c)

Green pigment.

d)

No pigment.

53.

What is the purpose of streaking on an agar plate in microbiology?

a)

To isolate individual colonies for identification

b)

To mix different bacterial species together

c)

To increase bacterial growth across the entire plate

d)

To sterilize the agar plate

54.

What temperature is usually recommended for incubating plates in microbiology experiments?

a)

Room temperature/25°C

b)

Body temperature/37°C

c)

Boiling/100°C

d)

Refrigerator temperature/4°C

55.

What is the primary objective of differentiating between motile and nonmotile bacteria?

a)

To identify the presence of flagella

b)

To understand the difference between true motility and Brownian motion

c)

To classify bacteria based on their shape

d)

To study bacterial reproduction

56.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic flagella?

a)

Composed of microtubules

b)

Used for bacterial motility

c)

Contains a basal body

d)

Powered by proton motive force

57.

How can one describe this culture?

a)

Mixed culture

b)

Pure culture

c)

Selective culture

d)

Enriched culture

58.
If a bacterium has a thick cell wall and stains purple it is
a)
gram positive
b)
gram negative
59.
These bacteria are
a)
gram positive and negative
b)
gram positive
c)
gram negative
d)
viral
60.
What power do you start with when using a microscope?
a)

High dry/40X

b)

Low power/10X

c)

Scanning/4X

d)

Oil immersion/100X

61.
What will be the total magnification if ocular lens is 10X and objective lens is 4X?
a)
4X
b)
40X
c)
10X
d)
100X
62.
This bring the specimen into sharp focus
a)
Coarse Adjustment Knob
b)
Fine Adjustment Knob
c)
Eyepiece
d)
Diaphragm
63.

Which of the following is true about the catalase test?

a)

Generates water and oxygen from hydrogen peroxide

b)

Performed by aerotolerant anaerobes

c)

Performed by obligate anaerobes

d)

The enzyme used is peroxidase

64.

An unknown bacterium only grows on Brewer's plates in the GasPak. What is its likely oxygen requirement?

a)

Obligate aerobe

b)

Obligate anaerobe

c)

Facultative anaerobe

d)

Microaerophile

65.

What is the likely oxygen requirement of the catalase positive bacteria growing in this tube?

a)

Obligate anaerobe

b)

Microaerophile

c)

Aerotolerant anaerobe

d)

Facultative anaerobe

66.

Byproducts of cellular respiration can damage all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Extracellular matrix

b)

Protein

c)

DNA

d)

Lipids

67.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that differentiates fungi from plants?

a)

Fungi have cell walls made of chitin.

b)

Fungi are eukaryotic.

c)

Fungi obtain nutrients through absorption.

d)

Fungi are decomposers.

68.

How do fungi differ from bacteria?

a)

Fungi are prokaryotic.

b)

Fungi have cell walls made of peptidoglycan.

c)

Fungi are eukaryotic.

d)

Fungi perform photosynthesis.

69.

The fungi phylum that produces sexual spores in microscopic sac-like structure is called

a)

Ascomycota

b)

Zygomycota

c)

Basidiomycota

d)

Deuteromycota

70.

Rhizopus fungi (bread mold) belongs to

a)

Ascomycota

b)

Zygomycota

c)

Basidiomycota

d)

Deuteromycota

71.

What phylum are mushrooms in?

a)

Basidiomycota

b)

Zygomycota

c)

Ascomycota

d)

Chytridiomycota

72.
Fungi are made up of filaments known as _________, which allow the fungus to digest substances and absorb nutrients.
a)
Hyphae
b)
Spores
c)
Roots
d)
Fruiting Bodies
73.
What is the tangled, underground network of hyphae that makes up the largest portion of a fungus?
a)
Mycelium
b)
Basidia
c)
Gills
d)
Fruiting Body
74.

These "broom-"like structures represent _______spores of _______.

a)

Asexual, aspergillus

b)

Asexual, penicillium

c)

Sexual, aspergillus

d)

Sexual, penicillium

75.

Which type of asexual spore is shown here?

a)

Basidiospore

b)

Sporangiospore

c)

Conidia

d)

Ascospore

76.

What type of sexual spore is shown here?

a)

Ascospore

b)

Basidiospore

c)

Zygospore

d)

Conidia

77.

Fungi use spores for asexual/sexual reproduction while bacteria use ________ to survive adverse environmental conditions.

a)

endospores

b)

flagella

c)

cilia

d)

proton pumps

78.

Select all the ways yeast are different than molds:

a)

Smooth, white colonies

b)

Unicellular

c)

Multicellular

d)

Hairy, velvety texture

79.

True motility is:

a)

passive shaking

b)

jiggling motion

c)

sweeping motion across slide

d)

directional towards/away from stimuli

80.

Which tubes display motility?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

B and C

81.

Which SIM tube is positive for hydrogen sulfide production?

a)

A

b)

B

82.

Which type of flagella is shown on this bacillus? Ex. Escherichia coli, Proteus vulgaris, Serratia marcescens, etc.

a)

Lophotrichous

b)

Monotrichous

c)

Peritrichous

d)

Amphitrichous

83.

Which streak shows isolated colonies?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

84.

Cocci usually have flagella.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

What is the arrangement of these bacteria?

a)

Palisades

b)

Streptobacilli

c)

Streptococci

d)

Staphylococci

86.

Which factor most commonly contributes to Gram variability?

a)

Endospores

b)

Thick peptidoglycan cell wall

c)

Lipid content in outer membrane

d)

Age of the bacterial culture

87.

Which feature allows acid-fast bacteria such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis to retain the primary stain despite treatment with acid-alcohol?

a)

Thick peptidoglycan cell wall

b)

Capsule

c)

Teichoic acids

d)

Mycolic acids in cell wall

88.

The mordant in the endospore staining process is

a)

Gram's iodine

b)

acid alcohol

c)

heat

d)

malachite green

89.

At the end of the endospore stain, endospores will appear

a)

green

b)

pink

c)

purple

d)

colorless

90.

What is the counterstain in the Gram staining method?

a)

Crystal violet

b)

Safranin

c)

Malachite green

d)

Methylene blue