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Disinfection/ Sterilization & Handle/Dispose contaminated waste

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines disinfection in healthcare settings?

a)

Process killing only viruses on environmental surfaces

b)

Process removing visible dirt without killing microorganisms

c)

Process destroying pathogens except spores or inactivating them

d)

Process destroying all microorganisms including spores

2.

Which statement best defines sterilization?

a)

Process intended to destroy all types of microorganisms

b)

Process intended to reduce microbial load to safe levels

c)

Process intended to inactivate only vegetative bacteria

d)

Process intended to remove organic debris from surfaces

3.

Which key difference separates sterilization from disinfection?

a)

Sterilization targets spores; disinfection generally does not

b)

Sterilization uses chemicals; disinfection uses heat

c)

Sterilization is only for surfaces; disinfection for instruments

d)

Sterilization is faster; disinfection takes longer

4.

Concurrent disinfection is best described as:

a)

Cleaning done after patient discharge or death

b)

Immediate disinfection of an item or area possibly contaminated

c)

Routine weekly deep cleaning of isolation rooms

d)

Sterilization of surgical instruments before procedures

5.

Terminal disinfection refers to:

a)

Chemical disinfection of hands during patient care

b)

Sterilization using steam under pressure

c)

Normal cleaning procedures after transfer, discharge, or death

d)

Immediate decontamination following a spill event

6.

A blood spill occurs on a bedside table in an isolation room. Which action aligns with concurrent disinfection?

a)

Schedule deep cleaning for end of shift

b)

Immediately disinfect the contaminated surface

c)

Autoclave the entire bedside table

d)

Apply dry heat to the table for one hour

7.

Which method specifically indicates steam sterilization?

a)

Chemical vapours exposure in sealed cabinet

b)

Autoclaving using saturated steam under pressure

c)

Dry heat at moderate temperature for extended time

d)

Thermal disinfection with hot water circulation

8.

Which practice aims to achieve sterilization rather than disinfection?

a)

Rinsing equipment in hot water at 60 degrees

b)

Running instruments through an autoclave cycle

c)

Spraying surfaces with chemical vapours only

d)

Wiping surfaces with chemical disinfectant wipes

9.

Which option lists two methods that accomplish disinfection but not necessarily sterilization?

a)

Dry heat and autoclaving

b)

Sterilization and terminal disinfection

c)

Autoclaving and chemical vapours

d)

Thermal disinfection and chemical disinfection

10.

Which approach is most appropriate after a patient on isolation is transferred?

a)

Perform terminal disinfection of the room

b)

Perform concurrent disinfection during transport

c)

Autoclave the bed frame on site

d)

Skip cleaning because isolation has ended

11.

Which statement about chemical vapours is accurate in infection control?

a)

They are a method listed for disinfection and sterilization

b)

They only achieve sterilization of spores reliably

c)

They are synonymous with thermal disinfection methods

d)

They replace the need for autoclaving entirely

12.

An instrument must be rendered free of all microorganisms including spores. Which method is most suitable?

a)

Autoclaving with steam under pressure

b)

Chemical disinfection using surface wipes

c)

Terminal disinfection after patient discharge

d)

Thermal disinfection in hot water cycles

13.

Which statement best distinguishes disinfection from sterilization in healthcare settings?

a)

Sterilization only reduces viruses, not spores

b)

Disinfection removes all microbes including spores

c)

Sterilization removes most microbes excluding spores

d)

Disinfection destroys most microbes excluding bacterial spores

14.

A device contaminated with bacterial spores requires which process to ensure complete microbial destruction?

a)

High-level disinfection excluding spores

b)

Low-level disinfection with short contact time

c)

Sterilization including viruses and spores

d)

Cleaning only without chemical agents

15.

Which factor most directly explains why blood residue can reduce a disinfectant’s performance?

a)

Temperature lowers microbial contamination

b)

Physical configuration eliminates crevices

c)

Organic load interferes with disinfectant action

d)

Exposure time increases evaporation rate

16.

An endoscope has long narrow lumens. Which factor makes disinfection more challenging for this device?

a)

Temperature and pH of the process

b)

Extent of cleaning performed earlier

c)

Physical configuration with crevices and lumens

d)

Type and level of contamination present

17.

Which combination best improves disinfection effectiveness on a moderately soiled instrument?

a)

Higher concentration and adequate contact time

b)

Lower concentration with reduced exposure time

c)

Short contact time with low pH solution

d)

Room temperature with minimal pre-cleaning

18.

A clinic increases the contact time of a disinfectant from 3 to 10 minutes while keeping concentration constant. What outcome is most likely?

a)

Complete sterilization including spores

b)

Improved effectiveness against microorganisms

c)

Unchanged effectiveness regardless of time

d)

Reduced effectiveness due to longer exposure

19.

Which scenario most appropriately requires sterilization rather than disinfection?

a)

Blood pressure cuff with organic residue

b)

Environmental surface in a waiting room

c)

Reusable surgical instrument contacting sterile tissue

d)

Noncritical surface with light bioburden

20.

During process validation, which pair of variables should be controlled together to optimize disinfectant performance?

a)

Auditory alarms and room lighting

b)

Label color and storage shelf

c)

Temperature and pH of the process

d)

Brand name and container size

21.

Which agent is most appropriate for preoperative skin antisepsis on intact skin?

a)

Sodium hypochlorite tablets for spills

b)

Phenolic detergent for floors and walls

c)

Glutaraldehyde immersion for instruments

d)

Chlorhexidine solution for skin cleansing

22.

A flexible endoscope requires high-level disinfection. Which chemical is commonly used for this purpose?

a)

Phenolic surface cleaner

b)

Glutaraldehyde immersion solution

c)

Sodium hypochlorite spray

d)

Chlorhexidine hand wash

23.

Which option best matches a skin antiseptic concentration for routine use?

a)

Glutaraldehyde at one hundred percent

b)

Sodium hypochlorite at full strength

c)

Phenolic compounds at undiluted form

d)

Alcohol at seventy percent strength

24.

Which agent is recommended for environmental surfaces such as benches and noncritical areas?

a)

Phenolic compounds for general use

b)

Chlorhexidine surgical scrub

c)

Iodine tincture for skin

d)

Glutaraldehyde cold sterilant

25.

Sodium dichloroisocyanurate (NaDCC) is used to prepare which disinfectant?

a)

Chlorhexidine gluconate cleanser

b)

Glutaraldehyde OPA bath

c)

Phenolic detergent blend

d)

Sodium hypochlorite chlorine solution

26.

Which statement best describes the action of sodium hypochlorite on microbes?

a)

Selective action limited to lipid viruses

b)

Rapid kill with broad spectrum including spores

c)

Effective only on vegetative bacteria and TB

d)

Primarily cleans organic soil without killing

27.

Phenolic disinfectants have which limitation that affects outbreak control?

a)

High corrosion of stainless steel tools

b)

Inactivated by hard water minerals

c)

Limited or no efficacy against spores

d)

Unsafe for any environmental surfaces

28.

Which product name is associated with glutaraldehyde formulations for instruments?

a)

Cidex OPA used for high-level disinfection

b)

Hibiscrub used for hand cleansing

c)

Iodine tincture used for skin painting

d)

NaDCC tablets used for chlorine prep

29.

Which pairing correctly aligns agent with typical target?

a)

Hypochlorite for hand antisepsis

b)

Chlorhexidine for skin antisepsis

c)

Glutaraldehyde for floor disinfection

d)

Phenolics for critical surgical tools

30.

During a spill of blood on a countertop, which disinfectant is most suitable?

a)

Sodium hypochlorite prepared from NaDCC

b)

Chlorhexidine surgical scrub solution

c)

Iodine tincture painting solution

d)

Glutaraldehyde instrument bath

31.

Which step best describes initial handling of reusable equipment after contamination in a clinical area?

a)

Rinse briefly in cold tap water only

b)

Immerse in warm water with detergent or enzyme cleaner

c)

Spray with alcohol and air-dry immediately

d)

Seal in a bag and store for later cleaning

32.

When cleaning contaminated materials, which combination of PPE is most appropriate?

a)

Gloves only without eye protection

b)

Apron and mask without gloves

c)

Protective gloves, apron, and goggles

d)

Boot covers and hair net only

33.

A nurse finds fresh blood on the floor. What is the correct priority action before starting the cleanup?

a)

Dilute the spill with warm water and detergent

b)

Put on protective gloves, apron, and goggles

c)

Call maintenance to mop the area

d)

Open nearby windows for ventilation

34.

Which hospital item requires routine disinfection as an instrument rather than as a room surface?

a)

Bedside cabinet laminate top

b)

Stethoscope used for patient exams

c)

Door handle to isolation room

d)

Floor tiles near nursing station

35.

Which technology is appropriate for whole-room decontamination after a high-risk pathogen case?

a)

Ultraviolet light systems for room irradiation

b)

Hand sanitizer spray on all surfaces

c)

Boiling water in open buckets for steam

d)

Detergent wipes applied to door handles

36.

Which disinfectant approach is commonly used for room decontamination with mist or vapors in hospitals?

a)

Chlorine gas cylinders in hallways

b)

Isopropyl alcohol heated to fog

c)

Hydrogen peroxide systems releasing mist

d)

Ozone produced by portable fans

37.

Which statement best defines a sterile field in clinical practice?

a)

Outer wrapper used as protective cover

b)

Inner surface of wrapper used as work area

c)

Top of any nearby clean table used

d)

Whole room kept free from all microbes

38.

What is the primary purpose of establishing a sterile field before a procedure?

a)

To organize supplies efficiently

b)

To protect staff from sharp instruments

c)

To provide a contamination-free work surface

d)

To speed up instrument turnover

39.

Which action should be taken when the shelf life of a sterile item has expired?

a)

Do not use the item at all

b)

Reprocess only after opening

c)

Store in a warmer location

d)

Use immediately with extra caution

40.

Select the most accurate description of shelf life for sterile items.

a)

Time between patient procedures in clinic

b)

Time required to sterilize a wrapped pack

c)

Time span sterile items are kept for use

d)

Time instruments can remain wet safely

41.

A nurse accidentally touches the non-sterile outer wrapper while setting up. What is the best immediate response to prevent contamination of the field?

a)

Continue setup without changes

b)

Replace the field and affected items

c)

Add more sterile drapes over area

d)

Spray area with disinfectant solution

42.

Which handling practice most directly reduces patient infection risk when using dressing sets?

a)

Store sets on open countertops

b)

Keep sterile items dry and untouched

c)

Open packs near sinks to save time

d)

Double the number of gauze pads

43.

When storing sterile items, which condition most likely leads to contamination and must be avoided?

a)

Labeling with expiration dates

b)

Low ambient noise levels

c)

Water contact or prolonged exposure

d)

Brief exposure to room air

44.

You are preparing a sterile field with a wrapped dressing set. Which surface should become your work area?

a)

Outer surface of the wrapper

b)

Inner surface of the wrapper

c)

Nearby disinfected tray top

d)

Any clean paper towel

45.

A blue-wrapped set on the shelf shows an expired date but intact packaging. What is the safest next step?

a)

Remove from use and reprocess

b)

Return to storage for later use

c)

Quarantine until supervisor checks

d)

Use if packaging seems clean

46.

Which action most directly compromises sterility when managing a sterile field?

a)

Wearing clean nonsterile gloves

b)

Holding items below waist height

c)

Using brightly colored drapes

d)

Labeling packages after storage

47.

A wrapped instrument set appears dry but was left near a sink overnight. What is the primary contamination risk?

a)

Loss of temperature control

b)

Moisture wicking through packaging

c)

Label ink seeping into contents

d)

Light exposure fading wrap color

48.

Why should sterile items remain within the clinician’s range of vision?

a)

Unseen contact may break sterility

b)

Glare can cause eye strain

c)

It improves ergonomic posture

d)

It speeds up instrument turnover

49.

Which practice best prevents dust-related contamination in storage areas?

a)

Bright lighting with open shelving

b)

Rotating staff assignments weekly

c)

Daily temperature checks only

d)

Closed cabinets with routine cleaning

50.

A hospital skips FIFO and uses newly delivered sterile packs first. What risk increases most?

a)

Older packs exceed shelf life

b)

New packs lose tracking labels

c)

Staff forget hand hygiene

d)

Trays become heavier to lift

51.

During setup, a sterile drape touches the table edge. What is the correct interpretation?

a)

Edge becomes sterile with heat

b)

Edge remains sterile when dry

c)

Edge is more sterile than center

d)

Edge is considered unsterile

52.

Which scenario reflects excessive handling that can lead to contamination?

a)

Scanning barcodes during intake

b)

Repeatedly repositioning packaged sets

c)

Documenting lot numbers once

d)

Storing trays on labeled shelves

53.

Which action best follows legal and hospital requirements when disposing infectious waste?

a)

Store infectious waste on the ward until end of week

b)

Incinerate all waste regardless of classification

c)

Separate infectious waste and use designated bags

d)

Place all waste in general trash without sorting

54.

A nurse finishes an injection. What is the correct immediate step regarding the used needle?

a)

Recap the needle using both hands for safety

b)

Purposely bend the needle before disposal

c)

Place the needle directly into a sharps container

d)

Carry the needle to the sluice room in a tray

55.

Which container is appropriate for disposable needles and scalpel blades?

a)

Thin plastic bags with biohazard labels

b)

Puncture-resistant sharps containers

c)

Paper-lined clinical waste bins

d)

Autoclave trays for later sterilization

56.

Which practice reduces aerosolization when handling soiled linen?

a)

Roll or fold linen gently and bag it

b)

Flick or shake linen briskly before folding

c)

Hang linen to air-dry before bagging

d)

Press linen repeatedly to remove fluids

57.

When preparing waste for disposal on a ward, what should be done first?

a)

Mix infectious and non-infectious waste to save bags

b)

Separate waste streams according to guidelines

c)

Seal all bags before identifying contents

d)

Place all items into biodegradable double-bags

58.

Why is needle recapping prohibited in standard precautions?

a)

It dulls needles making reuse difficult

b)

It violates sterilization cycle timing

c)

It increases risk of needlestick injury

d)

It prevents proper labeling of sharps

59.

Which statement aligns with proper handling of soiled linen?

a)

Keep unbagged until the end of the shift

b)

Shake vigorously to dislodge solid debris

c)

Transfer between beds to check contamination

d)

Handle as little as possible and bag promptly

60.

A ward introduces new waste bags. Which criterion ensures compliance with ministry guidelines?

a)

Design is puncture-resistant for sharps only

b)

Bags correspond to approved waste categories

c)

Handles are large enough for double-knotting

d)

Color matches staff uniforms for visibility

61.

Which sequence best describes safe linen management from bed to disposal?

a)

Carry linen uncovered to laundry, sort and bag there

b)

Shake linen to loosen debris, carry openly, bag later

c)

Roll or fold linen, minimize handling, bag immediately

d)

Fold linen, place on floor temporarily, bag after rounds

62.

In a scenario where a scalpel blade is removed after a procedure, what is the safest disposal method?

a)

Store in a labeled tray for end-of-day collection

b)

Wrap in gauze, then throw in general waste bin

c)

Place immediately into a puncture-resistant sharps container

d)

Recap with a protective cap before trash

63.

In the diagram showing bag color coding, which bag should be used for general waste such as paper towels and food scraps?

a)

Yellow biohazard bag for infectious fluids

b)

Red radioactive bag for nuclear materials

c)

Clear recycling bag for clean plastics

d)

Black general bag for non-infectious waste

64.

Which color is assigned to biohazard waste that includes blood and body fluids in the visual guide?

a)

Yellow for biohazard materials

b)

Blue for sharps disposal

c)

Black for general refuse

d)

Red for radiological materials

65.

A lab disposes of materials used in thyroid treatment involving radioisotopes. According to the diagram, which bag color is appropriate?

a)

Red bag for radioactive waste

b)

Yellow bag for infectious fluids

c)

Green bag for compostable items

d)

Black bag for common refuse

66.

You find a soiled diaper without visible blood. Which disposal bag color aligns with the diagram’s guidance?

a)

White because it is clinical linen

b)

Red because diapers may contain radioisotopes

c)

Black because it is general non-infectious waste

d)

Yellow because all patient items are infectious

67.

A spill tray contains blood-contaminated gauze pads from a dressing change. Which bag color should be chosen according to the visual guide?

a)

Transparent for quick inspection

b)

Red for nuclear medicine disposables

c)

Yellow for biohazard blood waste

d)

Black for routine ward trash

68.

During a diagnostic imaging procedure using radioactive tracers, disposable gloves must be discarded. Which bag color is indicated in the diagram?

a)

Red for radioactive tracer contamination

b)

Purple for cytotoxic chemotherapy waste

c)

Yellow for general infectious waste

d)

Black for cafeteria waste

69.

Which color bag is designated for cytotoxic waste related to cancer treatment drugs?

a)

Red color bag for cytotoxic waste

b)

Blue color bag for cytotoxic waste

c)

Purple color bag for cytotoxic waste

d)

Yellow color bag for cytotoxic waste

70.

What is the primary purpose of disposing contaminated materials and infectious waste in healthcare settings?

a)

To increase space inside the patient’s room

b)

To prevent exposure of personnel to infectious material

c)

To comply with local recycling incentives

d)

To reduce supply costs for the ward

71.

Improper disposal of cytotoxic waste most likely causes which adverse effect to staff?

a)

Improved drug stability for storage

b)

Reduced need for personal protective equipment

c)

Increased vaccine effectiveness

d)

Skin or eye irritations to staff

72.

Which step best ensures safe handling of radioactive waste before final disposal?

a)

Mix with regular clinical refuse

b)

Transfer to Radiation Protection Service

c)

Neutralize with household chemicals

d)

Place in unshielded open bins

73.

A bag containing equipment and empty vials from cytotoxic drugs should be discarded how?

a)

In green bags for uranium waste

b)

In purple bags labeled cytotoxic

c)

In blue bags for recyclable items

d)

In clear bags for general trash

74.

What overarching goal does proper waste disposal achieve outside a patient’s room?

a)

Prevention of environmental contamination

b)

Contamination of surrounding environment

c)

Increase of air exchange frequency

d)

Enhancement of odor control only

75.

Which category of radioactive waste requires shielded bins prior to central storage?

a)

Solid waste with beta and gamma emitters

b)

Recyclable plastics without radiation

c)

Household aqueous cleaning solutions

d)

Organic bulk solvents with alpha emitters

76.

Which health outcome is least likely from improper cytotoxic waste disposal?

a)

Dermatitis among personnel

b)

Eye irritation during handling

c)

Liver damage over time

d)

Improved liver function in workers