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Biology Review

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why is there a wide range of phenotypes for polygenic traits?

a)

Polygenic traits are controlled by one dominant allele

b)

Polygenic traits are influenced by multiple genes and the environment

c)

Polygenic traits only occur in recessive conditions

d)

Polygenic traits skip generations

2.

What is a major benefit of gene therapy?

a)

It permanently removes chromosomes

b)

It replaces faulty genes with functional ones

c)

It increases mutation rates

d)

It stops all cell division

3.

Genetically modified bacteria are commonly used to

a)

break down waste in ecosystems

b)

produce insulin for people with diabetes

c)

perform photosynthesis

d)

replace human cells

4.

How does the environment affect gene expression?

a)

It changes the DNA sequence permanently

b)

It determines which genes are turned on or off

c)

It removes dominant alleles

d)

It stops transcription

5.

A family has a history of diabetes, but a person never develops it due to diet and exercise. This is an example of

a)

mutation

b)

codominance

c)

environmental influence on gene expression

d)

meiosis failure

6.

How can a mutation in DNA affect phenotype?

a)

It always causes death

b)

It changes the amino acid sequence of a protein

c)

It only affects gametes

d)

It stops replication

7.

A sickle cell mutation changes the shape of hemoglobin. This affects red blood cells by

a)

increasing oxygen binding

b)

making cells rigid and sickle-shaped

c)

increasing ATP production

d)

stopping protein synthesis

8.

Toxic damage to a nucleotide causes an error during replication in a somatic cell. Which apply? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

mRNA for the new somatic cell may be different

b)

A new protein may be made due to a new amino acid sequence

c)

It can affect protein function

d)

It is inherited by offspring

9.

Toxic damage to a nucleotide causes an error during replication in a somatic cell. Which apply? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

It is a somatic mutation

b)

It can lead to cancer

c)

It is inherited by offspring

10.

What are the products of aerobic respiration?

a)

glucose and oxygen

b)

ATP, carbon dioxide, and water

c)

lactic acid and ATP

d)

nitrogen and oxygen

11.

How do enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions?

a)

By increasing temperature

b)

By lowering activation energy

c)

By being consumed in the reaction

d)

By changing products

12.

What increases enzyme activity? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Optimal temperature

b)

Optimal pH

c)

High substrate concentration

d)

Extreme heat

e)

Denaturation

13.

How does enzyme shape relate to function?

a)

Enzymes work with any substrate

b)

Enzymes have specific active sites that match substrates

c)

Shape does not matter

d)

Enzymes dissolve all materials

14.

Cheek cells compared to onion cells differ because

a)

They perform the same function

b)

Onion cells have cell walls and are rectangular

c)

Cheek cells have chloroplasts

d)

Both are plant cells

15.

What causes skin cells and white blood cells to become different cell types?

a)

Different DNA

b)

Different genes being expressed

c)

Different chromosome numbers

d)

Different meiosis stages

16.

What is the function of a semi-permeable membrane?

a)

Allows all substances to pass

b)

Allows some substances to pass

c)

Blocks water

d)

Stops diffusion

17.

If starch can pass through a membrane but water cannot, what does this indicate?

a)

The membrane is impermeable

b)

Transport depends on molecule size or properties

c)

Osmosis cannot occur

d)

Active transport occurred

18.

Which biomolecule does NOT contain phosphorus?

a)

Nucleic acids

b)

Phospholipids

c)

Proteins

d)

ATP

19.

What is the role of centrioles?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

Spindle fiber formation

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Diffusion

20.

What happens if centrioles do not function properly?

a)

DNA cannot replicate

b)

Chromosomes may not separate correctly

c)

ATP production stops

d)

The nucleus disappears

21.

What happens if the Golgi apparatus stops working?

a)

Proteins cannot be modified or shipped

b)

DNA cannot replicate

c)

Ribosomes stop functioning

d)

Cell membrane dissolves

22.

What does the Golgi apparatus look like?

a)

A spherical sac

b)

A stack of flattened membranes

c)

A long tube

d)

A spiral structure

23.

How are heart, lung, and stomach cells similar?

a)

They perform the same function

b)

They contain the same genetic code

c)

They have different DNA

d)

They divide at the same rate

24.

What is osmosis?

a)

Movement of solutes

b)

Movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane

c)

Active transport

d)

Vesicle transport

25.

What is the internal environment of a cell?

a)

Cytoplasm and organelles

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Soil

26.

How do bacteria reproduce?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Binary fission

d)

Budding

27.

If meiosis cannot occur, what happens?

a)

More somatic cells are produced

b)

Gametes cannot form

c)

DNA cannot replicate

d)

Mitosis stops

28.

A mesophyll cell has 14 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after mitosis?

a)

7

b)

14

c)

28

d)

21

29.

Anti-cancer drugs target spindle fibers. How does this affect cell division?

a)

DNA cannot replicate

b)

Sister chromatids cannot separate

c)

Enzymes stop working

d)

Cytokinesis speeds up

30.

A picture shows crossing over. What is occurring?

a)

Homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material

b)

Sister chromatids separate

c)

DNA replicates

d)

Mutation occurs

31.

What is natural selection?

a)

Random change in DNA

b)

Survival and reproduction of organisms with favorable traits

c)

Artificial breeding

d)

Meiosis

32.

What causes favorable traits to become more common?

a)

Mutation only

b)

Increased survival and reproduction

c)

Random chance

d)

Gene therapy

33.

What has caused the wide variety of bird species today?

a)

Artificial selection

b)

Geographic isolation and natural selection

c)

Mitosis

d)

Codominance

34.

What is the best evidence for evolution?

a)

Fossils alone

b)

Biochemical evidence such as DNA and protein similarities

c)

Physical appearance

d)

Climate change

35.

What is the role of producers in a food chain?

a)

Consume other organisms

b)

Convert light energy into chemical energy

c)

Decompose matter

d)

Fix nitrogen

36.

What would happen if nitrogen-fixing bacteria were removed?

a)

Plants could still get nitrogen

b)

Nitrogen would be unavailable to plants

c)

Oxygen levels would increase

d)

Consumers would increase

37.

What happens to carbon if all consumers die?

a)

Carbon decreases

b)

Carbon accumulates in producers and the atmosphere

c)

Carbon disappears

d)

Carbon cycle stops

38.

How does deforestation affect the carbon cycle?

a)

Increases carbon storage

b)

Decreases carbon dioxide

c)

Increases atmospheric carbon

d)

Has no effect

39.

How does oxygen move through an ecosystem?

a)

Through respiration and photosynthesis

b)

Only through animals

c)

Only through plants

d)

Only through water

40.

What limits photosynthesis in a terrarium?

a)

Light intensity

b)

Carbon dioxide levels

c)

Water availability

d)

All of the above

41.

What is released during photosynthesis and respiration?

a)

Oxygen in respiration

b)

Carbon dioxide in photosynthesis

c)

Oxygen in photosynthesis and carbon dioxide in respiration

d)

ATP in photosynthesis

42.

What happens if Elodea is moved closer to a light source?

a)

Oxygen production decreases

b)

Oxygen bubble production increases

c)

Respiration stops

d)

Photosynthesis stops

43.

Why are thylakoids stacked in chloroplasts?

a)

To store glucose

b)

To maximize light absorption

c)

To protect DNA

d)

To transport proteins

44.

A mutation reduces the surface area of cristae in mitochondria. What happens?

a)

ATP production increases

b)

ATP production decreases

c)

Photosynthesis increases

d)

Cell division speeds up

45.

DNA fingerprinting is used to

a)

determine blood type

b)

compare genetic similarities

c)

change genes

d)

clone organisms

46.

Yeast in a bottle inflates a balloon. What gas is produced?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen

47.

A dialysis tube starts with 5 mL starch and 5 mL water. After osmosis, water enters the tube. Why?

a)

Water moves from low to high solute concentration

b)

Starch diffuses out

c)

Active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

48.

Four siblings have blood types A, B, AB, and O. What are the parents' blood types?

a)

A and A

b)

B and B

c)

A and B

d)

AB and O

49.

A section of DNA in a somatic cell has the following original strand: 5'– A T G C C A –3'. During DNA replication, a toxic chemical damages one nucleotide, causing a base substitution. The damaged strand now contains A T G T C A. Which newly synthesized DNA strand will be produced after replication?

a)

5'– T A C A G T –3'

b)

5'– T A C G G T –3'

c)

5'– A T G T C A –3'

50.

A somatic cell experiences a point mutation during DNA replication caused by exposure to a toxin. Which outcome is most likely as a result of this mutation?

a)

The mutation will be passed to offspring

b)

The mRNA transcribed from this DNA may be different

c)

Meiosis will stop occurring

d)

All proteins in the cell will change

51.

In a species of insect, wing color is determined by the following genotypes: YbYb → blue wing color; YBYb → yellow wing color. Which statement best explains the inheritance pattern of wing color in this species?

a)

Blue is dominant over yellow

b)

Yellow is dominant over blue

c)

The trait shows incomplete dominance

d)

The trait is sex-linked

52.

Predicting Offspring Phenotypes: Two insects are crossed. One parent has blue wings (YbYb) and the other has yellow wings (YBYb). What percentage of the offspring is expected to have yellow wings?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

53.

How are buffers important in maintaining homeostasis in the human body?

a)

They increase body temperature

b)

They regulate blood pH

c)

They speed up enzyme activity

d)

They remove toxins from cells

54.

Ecology & Populations: How can the introduction of an invasive species affect the population density of native species?

a)

It always increases native populations

b)

It reduces competition

c)

It can decrease native populations by competing for resources

d)

It has no effect on ecosystems

55.

Ecology & Populations: Which human action best helps protect natural resources?

a)

Using nonrenewable energy

b)

Increasing pesticide use

c)

Rotating crops to increase soil fertility

d)

Removing native plant species

56.

Genetics & Mutations: How does a mutation in a cell’s genotype affect its phenotype?

a)

It changes the chromosome number

b)

It always results in death

c)

It can change protein structure and function

d)

It has no effect on traits

57.

Why can a mutation change protein function?

a)

It removes ribosomes

b)

It causes a different amino acid sequence, changing protein shape

c)

It stops transcription

d)

It removes enzymes

58.

Genetics & Mutations: Bacteria grown at 0°C form red colonies, but the same bacteria grown at 25°C form white colonies. What explains this difference?

a)

A permanent DNA mutation occurred

b)

Different environmental conditions caused different phenotypes

c)

The bacteria became a new species

d)

Meiosis occurred

59.

A child is born with PKU but has minimal symptoms at age 18. What best explains this?

a)

The gene disappeared

b)

The mutation was repaired

c)

Lifestyle and diet reduced gene expression

d)

PKU only affects children

60.

Identical twins have different diets and lifestyles. What is the most likely result?

a)

Different genotypes

b)

Identical phenotypes

c)

Different phenotypes due to environmental influence

d)

Different chromosome numbers

61.

Cell Classification & Structure: A student observes a cell with no membrane-bound nucleus, free-floating DNA, active ribosomes, and two flagella. How should this cell be classified?

a)

Plant cell

b)

Animal cell

c)

Eukaryotic cell

d)

Prokaryotic cell

62.

DNA Analysis & Evolution: DNA fingerprints of four organisms show many overlapping bands, but the patterns do not match exactly. What can be concluded?

a)

They are the same organism

b)

They are identical twins

c)

They are different species with genetic similarities

d)

They are unrelated

63.

DNA Analysis & Evolution: How has natural selection resulted in antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

a)

Antibiotics cause mutations intentionally

b)

All bacteria adapt equally

c)

Some bacteria survive antibiotics and pass resistance to offspring

d)

Antibiotics stop evolution

64.

Cellular Respiration: Which equation best represents cellular respiration?

a)

Carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen

b)

Oxygen + glucose → ATP + carbon dioxide

c)

ATP + oxygen → glucose

d)

Nitrogen + glucose → ATP

65.

Phylogenetic Trees & Evolutionary Relationships: In a phylogenetic tree, what do nodes represent?

a)

Individual organisms

b)

Mutations

c)

Shared common ancestors

d)

Extinction events

66.

Phylogenetic Trees & Evolutionary Relationships: Two species share a more recent node on a phylogenetic tree. What does this indicate?

a)

They evolved independently

b)

They share a more recent common ancestor

c)

They are identical species

d)

They are unrelated

67.

Prokaryotes vs. Eukaryotes: Which best explains why prokaryotes reproduce faster than eukaryotes?

a)

They undergo meiosis

b)

They have fewer chromosomes

c)

They reproduce by binary fission and lack a nucleus

d)

They require fertilization

68.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
69.
Based on the phylogenic tree, which of these shows a correct ancestral lineage?
a)
E is an ancestor to F and G
b)
C is an ancestor to D and E
c)
B is an ancestor to A
d)
E is an ancestor to H and I
70.

Images show chromosomes independently assorting during meiosis, resulting in different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes in gametes.

What is the most important outcome of this process?

a)

A. Faster cell division

b)

B. Formation of diploid cells

c)

C. Increased genetic variation in a population

d)

D. Prevention of mutations

71.

A pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder. Two parents do not have the disorder, but one of their children does. What are the most likely genotypes of the parents?


a)

Both parents are heterozygous carriers

b)

Both parents are homozygous dominant

c)

Both parents are homozygous recessive

d)

One parent is homozygous recessive

72.

In a pedigree, an individual shows the recessive disorder. What is the most likely genotype of this individual?

a)

Homozygous recessive

b)

Homozygous dominant

c)

Codominant

d)

Heterozygous

73.

How does natural selection lead to antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

a)

All bacteria adapt equally

b)

Antibiotics strengthen bacteria

c)

Antibiotics cause all bacteria to mutate

d)

Resistant bacteria survive and reproduce

74.

Thylakoids are stacked into structures called grana. What is the advantage of this arrangement?

a)

It stores glucose

b)

It increases carbon dioxide diffusion

c)

It maximizes surface area for light absorption

d)

It protects DNA

75.

Blood type A and blood type B are codominant, while blood type O is recessive. A girl has AB blood. What does this indicate about her parents?

a)

One parent was type O

b)

Both parents were type AB

c)

One parent was homozygous recessive

d)

Both parents passed on dominant alleles

76.

During protein synthesis, ________ happens first in the _______

a)

transcription

nucleus

b)

translation

ribosome

77.
The "central dogma" states that genetic information flows from 
a)
Protein-->mRNA-->DNA
b)
Protein-->DNA-->mRNA
c)
mRNA-->DNA-->Protein
d)
DNA-->mRNA-->Protein
78.

How does the shape of DNA help it with its function and bases?

a)

It converts DNA into RNA automatically

b)

It forces DNA to replicate only once per cell cycle

c)

Its double helix structure protects bases and allows complementary base pairing for accurate replication

d)

It allows the bases to float freely in the nucleus