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Super Mega EOC Review - All 4 Strands

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why would a runner consume carbohydrates before a race?

a)

Carbohydrates provide insulation for heat.

b)

Carbohydrates provide structure for tissues.

c)

Carbohydrates provide genetic material for muscle cells.

d)

Carbohydrates provide energy for the body.

2.

Why are nucleic acids necessary for survival?

a)

Nucleic acids store and transmit genetic information.

b)

Nucleic acids provide structures for cells.

c)

Nucleic acids make enzymes to break down food.

d)

Nucleic acids store fat for long-term energy.

3.

Which macromolecule provides structural support and helps send signals within a cell?

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic acids

4.

How do enzymes speed up chemical reactions in organisms?

a)

Enzymes increase the energy required for a reaction to begin.

b)

Enzymes decrease the energy required for a reaction to begin.

c)

Enzymes have no effect on the energy required for a reaction to begin.

d)

Enzymes maintain the energy needed for a reaction to begin.

5.

Which role does an enzyme play when the body processes sucrose (table sugar) into glucose and fructose?

a)

An enzyme decreases the body’s need for sucrose.

b)

An enzyme increases the amount of sucrose available.

c)

An enzyme increases the rate at which sucrose breaks down.

d)

An enzyme decreases the amount of fructose and glucose product available.

6.

As cells grow and increase in size, enzymes become more important to the survival of the cell. Which statement best explains why enzymes are necessary?

a)

Enzymes supply the oxygen necessary for the reactions.

b)

Enzymes change reactants from solid to liquid during the reactions.

c)

The reactions take up too much space in the cell if enzymes are missing.

d)

The reactions are too slow to meet the needs of the cell if enzymes are missing.

7.

Lactase is an enzyme that breaks down the sugar, lactose, into glucose and galactose. Students carry out an experiment to determine how temperature affects this process. Based on the data, how does temperature affect the activity of the enzyme lactase?

a)

Lactase is most active when the temperature is 5°C.

b)

Lactase is most active when the temperature is 37°C.

c)

Lactase is most active when the temperature is 60°C.

d)

The activity of lactase is not affected by temperature

8.

Lactase is an enzyme that breaks down the sugar, lactose, into glucose and galactose. Students carry out an experiment to determine how temperature affects this process. Why did the activity of the enzyme lactase decrease at 60°C?

a)

The shape of the lactase active site remains the same.

b)

The shape of the lactase active site changes.

c)

The concentration of lactase increases.

d)

The concentration of lactase decreases.

9.

In the plant cell diagram with two parts labeled X and Y, which role is performed by parts X and Y working together?

a)

Moving genetic material

b)

Converting light to chemical energy

c)

Providing structural support to the cell

d)

Synthesizing proteins for cellular functions

10.

Two student drawings represent a mitochondrion. Which model best represents a mitochondrion and why?

a)

Structure 1 has more surface area, which produces more proteins.

b)

Structure 1 has more surface area, which produces more energy.

c)

Structure 2 has more surface area, which produces more proteins.

d)

Structure 2 has more surface area, which produces more energy.

11.

If the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed, what effect would this most likely have on the cell?

a)

The cell would be unable to synthesize proteins.

b)

Development of abnormal hereditary features would occur in the cell.

c)

Increased protein absorption would occur through the cell membrane.

d)

It would stimulate mitotic cell division.

12.

The graph provides information about the number of mitochondria in various types of cells. Which type of cells most likely require the greatest input of oxygen?

a)

white blood cells

b)

fat cells

c)

skin cells

d)

liver cells

13.

What can be used to distinguish between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

a)

Only eukaryotic cells come from preexisting cells.

b)

Only prokaryotic cells are the smallest unit of living organisms.

c)

Only prokaryotic cells contain ribosomes.

d)

Only eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.

14.

 A student was given four specimens and was asked to describe each. The student made the table below. According to the information, which specimen is prokaryotic? 

a)

Specimen 1 is prokaryotic because it contains a nucleus.

b)

Specimen 2 is prokaryotic because it lacks a nucleus.

c)

Specimen 3 is prokaryotic because it contains chloroplasts.

d)

Specimen 4 is prokaryotic because it lacks chloroplasts.

15.

If a strand of DNA is CTG-CAT, what is the sequence of nucleotides in the complementary DNA strand?

a)

GAC-GTA

b)

CTG-CAT

c)

AGT-ACG

d)

GAC-GUA

16.

Using the codon chart of amino acids coded from mRNA, which amino acid sequence can be coded from the DNA sequence CAG TAG CGA?

a)

Valine - Isoleucine - Glycine

b)

Valine - Aspartic Acid - Alanine

c)

Valine - Isoleucine - Alanine

d)

Valine - Phenylalanine - Alanine

17.

How does DNA code for proteins in a cell?

a)

By creating a new double helix structure

b)

By using its phosphate and sugar molecules

c)

By adding more hydrogen bonds to its structure

d)

By arranging certain nitrogen bases of the cell in a particular order

18.

Which statement best describes the relationship that exists among proteins, DNA, and cells?

a)

Proteins combine to produce cells, which produce DNA.

b)

Proteins are made up of DNA, which determines the cells that are produced.

c)

DNA is made up of proteins, which tell a cell how to function.

d)

Cells contain DNA, which controls the production of proteins.

19.

Fully-grown adults are much larger in size than young children. What happens to the cells of the body during the growth of a child?

a)

Cells divide to make more cells, and those cells are each half the size as the cells were before they divided. The cells do not grow before they divide again.

b)

Cells divide to make more cells, and those cells grow to become the same size as the cells were just before they divided.

c)

Cells of the body grow, but the number of cells stays the same.

d)

The size and number of cells in the body stay the same.

20.

The model represents the cell cycle. Cell cycle checkpoints are proteins that monitor and regulate the progress of the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells. What would most likely happen if a cell goes through mitosis without completing interphase?

a)

The new cells would have all of the organelles except the nucleus.

b)

The new cells would have all of the organelles except the mitochondria.

c)

The number of chromosomes in the daughter cells would be the same as the number of chromosomes in the parent cell.

d)

The number of chromosomes in the daughter cells would be different from the number of chromosomes in the parent cell.

21.

Use the models to answer: A young dog had a broken leg. Which explanation best describes how the dog’s leg healed?

a)

The dog’s cells went through repeated cycles of the model shown in Figure 1 to repair the broken bone.

b)

The dog’s cells went through repeated cycles of the model shown in Figure 2 to repair the broken bone.

c)

The dog’s cells went through one cycle of the model shown in Figure 1 to repair the broken bone.

d)

The dog’s cells went through one cycle of the model shown in Figure 2 to repair the broken bone.

22.

Nerve cells and bone cells are specialized cells that descend from the same single cell (fertilized egg). Which statement best explains how each type of cell results in a different structure with a specialized function?

a)

Nerve cells and bone cells begin with the same structure; however, bone cells harden over time.

b)

Nerve cells and bone cells receive different DNA that determines the structure and function that each will perform.

c)

Nerve cells and bone cells receive the same DNA; however, only specific parts of the DNA are activated in each cell.

d)

Nerve cells and bone cells receive the same DNA; however, bone cells receive more to make the protective outer covering of the body.

23.

The human heart and lungs contain cells that

a)

Produce a hormone involved in respiration

b)

Have the same genetic information but perform different specialized functions

c)

Use one part of the genetic code to synthesize all enzymes needed by the cell

d)

Contain different number of DNA molecules

24.

A liver cell can make enzymes that a heart cell cannot make because liver cells

a)

Digest large, complex molecules

b)

Contain more DNA than heart cells

c)

Use different genes than the heart cells use

d)

Remove carbon dioxide from blood

25.

How do different cell types arise from genetically identical embryonic cells?

a)

Different cells in the embryo contain completely different genes.

b)

Fertilization results in new gene combinations, which result in the different cell types.

c)

Mutations in embryonic cells result in new genes, resulting in the different cell types.

d)

Different cells have the same genes, but the same genes aren’t expressed in all cells.

26.

A substance essential to the functioning of all cells is most likely coded for by which gene?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

27.

The diagram shows the same type of molecule on Side A and Side B separated by a membrane. Over time, what is the likely result?

a)

More molecules will be on Side B than Side A.

b)

More molecules will be on Side A than Side B.

c)

Equal number of molecules will be on Side A and Side B.

d)

All of the molecules will move towards the membrane.

28.

Which sample would contain red blood cells that would appear wrinkled and reduced in volume?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

29.

The change in red blood cell volume is due to the movement of

a)

serum

b)

oxygen

c)

water

d)

salt

30.

Which is the best example of an organism’s use of released energy for maintaining homeostasis?

a)

A dog’s heart beats using cardiac muscle.

b)

A dog’s breathing rate increases while chasing a car.

c)

A cat’s digestive system uses enzymes to break down food.

d)

A cat’s ears contain cartilage for flexibility.

31.

The diagram shows molecule X represented outside and inside of a cell. How would these molecules move out of the cell?

a)

The cell would expend energy in the form of glucose.

b)

The cell would expend energy in the form of ATP.

c)

The molecules would diffuse across the plasma membrane.

d)

The molecules would leave the cell by the process of osmosis.

32.

How does the process of photosynthesis in plants provide energy for animals?

a)

The water and carbon dioxide used in photosynthesis are converted into glucose and ATP for animals.

b)

The glucose and ATP used in photosynthesis are converted into water and carbon dioxide for animals.

c)

The glucose and carbon dioxide used in photosynthesis are converted into proteins for animals.

d)

The oxygen and glucose produced through photosynthesis are converted into lipids for animals.

33.

Which phrase, if placed in box X, would correctly complete the flowchart:

a)

Increased use of starch in root cells

b)

Increased concentration of glucose in leaf cells

c)

Decreased ATP in root cells

d)

Decreased concentration of oxygen in leaf cells

34.

The diagram is a model that shows the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration. Which statement best explains why plants and animals are connected by the flow of energy and the cycling of matter?

a)

Animals use oxygen and glucose that is produced during cellular respiration and stored during photosynthesis.

b)

Plants use carbon dioxide and water that is released by cellular respiration to carry out photosynthesis.

c)

Plants carry out photosynthesis to release energy in food for animals.

d)

Animals use glucose for food that is broken down during photosynthesis.

35.

How does the amount of energy resulting from fermentation compare with that of aerobic respiration?

a)

Aerobic respiration results in less energy.

b)

Aerobic respiration results in more energy.

c)

Each process results in equal amounts of energy.

d)

Each process results in variable amounts of energy.

36.

Which statement best compares aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

a)

Less ATP is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.

b)

More water is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.

c)

More oxygen is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.

d)

Less lactic acid is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.

37.

What do the amounts of oxygen used during yoga and walking at 3 miles per hour tell the scientist how much glucose is burned during these activities?

a)

There is more glucose burned when walking at 3 miles per hour than when doing yoga.

b)

There is more glucose burned when doing yoga than when walking at 3 miles per hour.

c)

There are similar amounts of glucose burned when walking at 3 miles per hour and while doing yoga.

d)

The amount of oxygen used does not tell the scientists anything about the amounts of glucose burned during the activities.

38.

Which equation represents the process illustrated in the mitochondrion diagram?

a)

Carbon Dioxide + Glucose → Oxygen + Water + ATP

b)

Carbon Dioxide + Water → Glucose + Oxygen + ATP

c)

Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Water + ATP

d)

Oxygen + Water → Carbon Dioxide + Glucose + ATP

39.

According to the diagram, what process is occurring in the mitochondrion?

a)

Anaerobic respiration

b)

Aerobic respiration

c)

Alcoholic fermentation

d)

Photosynthesis

40.

According to the diagram, what type of cells are produced from the process illustrated in Figure 2?

a)

Four haploid cells with different genetic information

b)

Two haploid cells with identical genetic information

c)

Two haploid cells with different genetic information

d)

Four haploid cells with identical genetic information

41.

According to Figure 2, how is DNA passed from parents to offspring?

a)

By the process of asexual reproduction

b)

By the process of crossing over

c)

By the process of binary fission

d)

By the process of sexual reproduction

42.

Why is this process important?

a)

An egg fertilized by one of these cells will develop into a female with the same characteristics as the mother.

b)

Each of these cells contains only half the genetic information necessary for the formation of an offspring.

c)

If one of these cells fertilizes an egg, the offspring will be identical to the father.

d)

The cells are produced by mitosis and contain all the genetic information of the father.

43.

The diagram below shows a process that affects chromosomes during meiosis. What function is illustrated by the process shown above?

a)

How the process of crossing over leads to fertilization

b)

How the process of crossing over leads to varied offspring

c)

How the process of crossing over leads to identical offspring

d)

How the process of crossing over leads to differentiation

44.

Ultraviolet radiation can enter the body and cause DNA mutations. Which statement best describes how this mutation can be passed to offspring?

a)

A segment of DNA is altered in a skin cell, resulting in a wart.

b)

A segment of DNA is altered in a liver cell, resulting in a mutation.

c)

A segment of DNA is altered in a sperm cell, resulting in a different gene sequence.

d)

A segment of DNA is altered in a brain cell, resulting in a malignant tumor.

45.

In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b).

What is the probability of a heterozygous black rabbit and a white rabbit producing offspring with white fur?

a)

75%

b)

0%

c)

50%

d)

25%

46.

In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b).

What is the probability of two heterozygous black rabbits producing offspring with black fur?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

47.

Two parents with AB blood type are expecting a child.

Use a Punnett Square to determine the probability of having a child with Type AB blood.

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

48.

A parent with heterozygous type A blood and a parent with heterozygous type B blood are expecting a child.

Use a Punnett Square to determine the probability of having a child with Type O blood.

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

49.

A red flower (R) is crossed with a white flower (W) resulting in pink flowers, a blending of the two colors.

What is the probability of two pink flowers having red flower offspring?

a)

50%

b)

0%

c)

25%

d)

100%

50.

A red flower (R) is crossed with a white flower (W) resulting in red and white flowers, showing both colors.

What is the probability of a red flower and a red and white flower having red-flowered offspring?

a)

50%

b)

0%

c)

25%

d)

100%

51.

The pedigree below shows a family with four children and the known blood types of individuals in the family. What is the blood type of Person I-2?

a)

Type B

b)

Type O

c)

Type AB

d)

Type A

52.

The pedigree below shows the inheritance of hemophilia in a family. Hemophilia is a clotting disorder of the blood that is caused by a sex-linked trait. Individuals with hemophilia are represented by a shaded shape.

What is the genotype of individual #1?

a)

XhY

b)

XHY

c)

XHXh

d)

XhXh

53.

Refer to the pedigree showing hemophilia as an X-linked trait. Individual #10 is an unshaded square.

What is the phenotype of individual #10?

a)

Female without hemophilia

b)

Female with hemophilia

c)

Male without hemophilia

d)

Male with hemophilia

54.

The pedigree below shows the inheritance of hemophilia in a family. Hemophilia is a clotting disorder of the blood that is caused by a sex-liked trait. Individuals with hemophilia are represented by a shaded shape. 
How many individuals in the pedigree have a genotype of XhXhX^hX^h ?

a)

5 individuals

b)

2 individuals

c)

16 individuals

d)

3 individuals

55.

The pedigree shows the inheritance of hemophilia in a family. Hemophilia is a clotting disorder of the blood that is caused by a sex-liked trait. Individuals with hemophilia are represented by a shaded shape. 

What is the genotype of the female who marries individual #8?

a)

XHXH, because she has a son with hemophilia.

b)

XHXh, because she has a daughter with hemophilia.

c)

XhXh, because she has a daughter who does not have hemophilia.

d)

XHXH, because she has a son who does not have hemophilia.

56.

Which statement best describes why affected males are more common than affected females for sex-linked recessive disorders like color-blindness and hemophilia?

a)

Males have one X chromosome so one recessive allele is enough to be affected

b)

Females are less likely to inherit any recessive alleles

c)

Males inherit the Y chromosome carrying the recessive allele

d)

Males have two X chromosomes masking recessive alleles

57.

Which of the following statements best explain the data in the table? 

a)
  1. The kernel color of wheat is controlled by one gene, resulting in a wide range of phenotypes.

b)
  1. The kernel color of wheat  is controlled by multiple genes, resulting in a wide range of phenotypes.

c)
  1. The kernel color of wheat is controlled by multiple genes, resulting in two distinct phenotypes.

d)
  1. The kernel color of wheat is controlled by one gene, resulting in two distinct phenotypes.

58.

The graph represents skin color in a human population. According to the graph, how is skin color controlled?

a)

Controlled by one dominant allele over one recessive allele

b)

Controlled by multiple genes resulting in many phenotypes

c)

Controlled by a sex-linked trait with limited variation

d)

Controlled by a single gene showing codominance

59.

Genetically identical plants will produce either pink flowers or blue flowers, depending on the type of soil in which they are planted. What is most likely the explanation for the differences in flower color? 

a)
  1. The flower-color gene is codominant. 

b)
  1. Mutations alter the flower-color gene. 

c)
  1. The flower-color gene is sex-linked. 

d)
  1. Environmental factors affect flower color.

60.

When exposed to ultraviolet (UV) light, human skin cells produce the protein melanin, resulting in “tanning”. This protein helps protect skin cells from damage caused by UV light. This is an example of 

a)
  1. a gene that cannot be passed on to offspring 

b)
  1. natural selection producing a new species 

c)
  1. sexual reproduction that will produce variation 

d)
  1. environmental factors affecting gene expression

61.

Himalayan rabbits carry the C gene, which is required for the development of fur color. Specifically, the C gene is active from 15°C to 25°C (Figure 1) and is not active above 35°C (Figure 2). 

Why do these Himalayan rabbits exhibit different colors of fur?

a)

Dominant alleles always express regardless of temperature

b)

Mutations permanently change genotype

c)

Sex-linked inheritance controls fur color

d)

Environmental factors affect gene expression

62.

The band labeled X on the image of the gel below represents a segment of DNA associated with the production of a unique protein. In addition to the plant represented in the first lane, how many other plants most likely produce this unique protein?

a)
  1. Four plants, (3, 4, 6, & 7) have matching bands (DNA fragments) of approximately the same size. 

b)
  1. Four plants, (2, 5, 7 & 9) have matching bands (DNA fragments) of approximately the same size and location of the band labeled X. 

c)
  1. One plant (5) has more matching bands (DNA fragments) with the plant in Lane 1. 

d)
  1. Two plants (2 & 9) have matching bands (DNA fragments) of approximately the same size. 

63.

The diagram below shows a DNA fingerprint for a child and four adults. Which adult is most likely a parent of the child?

a)

Adult 1

b)

Adult 2

c)

Adult 3

d)

Adult 4

64.

Diabetes is a condition where a person’s body does not produce the insulin it needs to regulate blood sugar. High demand for insulin has led to an increase in the cost of insulin. Which of the following is a benefit of biotechnology applications in medicine?

a)
  1. Bacterial transformation increases the availability of insulin, which increases the cost of insulin.

b)
  1. Bacterial transformation decreases the availability of insulin, which decreases the cost of insulin.

c)
  1. Bacterial transformation increases the availability of insulin, which decreases the cost of insulin.    

d)
  1. Bacterial transformation decreases the availability of insulin, which increases the cost of insulin.

65.

Within 40 years after the introduction of pesticides, very few pests were killed by the usual pesticide treatment. Which of the following provides the best explanation for why the usual dose of pesticide is no longer effective?

a)

Ingesting the pesticide caused the pests to become resistant to it.

b)

The pesticide polluted the water where the pests lived.

c)

The pesticide killed organisms that consumed the pests.

d)

Existing genetic variation in the pest populations had resistance to the pesticide.

66.

Which best explains why the antibiotic is no longer as effective as it was on Day 3?

a)

Bacteria resistant to the antibiotic have killed off non-resistant bacteria.

b)

Viruses have changed the structure of the bacteria that causes the infection.

c)

Resistant bacteria have survived and reproduced at a higher rate.

d)

The human body has developed an immunity to the antibiotic.

67.

What is required for two populations of the same species to become two different species through natural selection?

a)

The only thing required is that the two populations have to be separated so that they cannot reproduce with each other.

b)

The only thing required is that the two populations have to experience different environmental conditions.

c)

The populations must be separated so that they cannot reproduce with each other, and they have to experience different environmental conditions.

d)

Two populations of the same species cannot become two different species.

68.

Annusom are a group of sexually-reproducing fungi that live on and eat trees in North America, Europe, and Asia. Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence that the Annusom living in Europe and Asia are different species?

a)

Annusom collected in Europe have genetic differences compared to Annusom collected in Asia.

b)

Annusom collected in Europe are all white in color and Annusom collected in Asia are all brown in color.

c)

Annusom collected in Europe and Annusom collected in Asia do not mate because they live on different continents.

d)

Annusom collected in Europe and Annusom collected in Asia cannot mate to produce viable offspring even when they are brought together.

69.

Species A and B share similarities in DNA sequences. What would this suggest about their evolutionary relationship?

a)

Species A developed before species B.

b)

Species A and B share a recent common ancestor.

c)

Species A and B are unrelated.

d)

Species B developed before Species A.

70.

Which of the following statements best explains this similarity in structure?

a)

The whale and the alligator evolved at the same time.

b)

The whale and the alligator share a common ancestor.

c)

The whale and the alligator spend all of their time in the water.

d)

The whale and the alligator have the same method of movement.

71.

The amino acid sequences of four species shown below were determined in an investigation of evolutionary relationships. Based on these data, which two species are most closely related?

a)

Species A and C

b)

Species B and C

c)

Species A and B

d)

Species C and D

72.

A population is a group of individuals of the same species. Can the proportion of individuals with certain traits in a population change because the environment changes?

a)

Yes, when the environment changes, individuals in a population can change their inherited traits to better fit the environment, and this changes the proportion of individuals with certain traits in that population.

b)

Yes, when the environment changes, individuals with certain inherited traits survive and reproduce and other individuals with different inherited traits die, and this changes the proportion of individuals with certain traits in a population.

c)

No, the proportion of individuals with certain inherited traits in a population changes randomly from one generation to the next, never as a result of changes to the environment.

d)

No, the proportion of individuals with certain inherited traits in a population cannot change because a population is all one species and so will always have the same inherited traits.

73.

What would most likely happen to a species of lizards when a new predator is introduced into the environment where the lizards live?

a)

The lizards that already have the physical traits needed to avoid the new predator would be more likely to survive and reproduce, and the ones that do not would be less likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

All of the lizards would try to develop new physical traits to avoid the new predator.

c)

Some of the lizards would try to develop new physical traits to avoid the new predator, and the other lizards would die.

d)

Because all lizards of the same species have the same physical traits, one lizard would not have an advantage over another lizard. They would either all survive or all die.

74.

Which graph best illustrates natural selection in an environment with limited resources?

a)

Graph A

b)

Graph B

c)

Graph C

d)

Graph D

75.

Desert camels have: large feet; nostrils that can be closed; fat stored in their humps; a body temperature between 33.9°C and 41.7°C; thick lips; brown coat color; hair-lined ears. Which statement best describes these camel characteristics?

a)

Natural selection favored other characteristics over the ones listed.

b)

The listed characteristics are the result of manipulating genes in female camels.

c)

These characteristics have adaptive value for the camel.

d)

Camels have these characteristics because they need them.

76.

The endangered Everglade snail kite is a predatory bird which usually feeds on small snails. Conservationists feared the snail kite would face a greater decline when the Everglades was invaded by a species of larger snail that the birds had historically struggled to eat. However, the snail kite population increased over several years and the snail kites now have larger beaks and bodies. How can the change in the snail kite best be explained?

a)

selective breeding with larger kites

b)

natural selection after an environmental change

c)

genetic engineering to modify specific genes

d)

ecological succession due to random mutation

77.

A few years went by with little rainfall, and the only tree species that survived had large seeds. After many generations, almost all the birds had larger beaks. How is this change best explained?

a)

The birds with larger beaks were better at eating large seeds than those with smaller beaks, so only the birds with larger beaks got enough food to survive, reproduce, and pass the trait of large beaks to the next generation.

b)

The birds with smaller beaks had to work harder than those with larger beaks to crack open the large seeds. The more they used their beaks, the larger their beaks became, so they were able to get enough food to survive, reproduce, and pass the traits of large beaks to the next generation.

c)

The birds with smaller beaks grew their beaks so that they would be better able to eat the large seeds and get enough food to survive, reproduce, and pass the trait of larger beaks to the next generation.

d)

It was a chance occurrence that all the individual birds’ beaks in the next generation were larger. They were therefore able to eat the large seeds and get enough food to survive, reproduce, and pass the trait of large beaks to the next generation.

78.

Scientists examined the amount of food available to finches before and during the drought. They counted the number of large hard seeds and the number of small soft seeds. Could the decrease in the number of small soft seeds lead to a change in the number of finches that survive?

a)

Yes, finches that cannot eat the large hard seeds would not be able to survive.

b)

Yes, finches that cannot eat the large hard seeds would be able to survive.

c)

No, finches that cannot eat the large hard seeds would not be able to survive.

d)

No, finches that cannot eat the large hard seeds would be able to survive.

79.

The diagram represents evolutionary relationships between different species. Which species would least likely have a protein similar to species H?

a)

A

b)

E

c)

B

d)

D

80.

Which two animals are the least closely related?

a)

the hagfish and the chimp

b)

the lizard and the perch

c)

the mouse and the chimp

d)

the mouse and the salamander

81.

Which two animals are the most related?

a)

the hagfish and the chimp

b)

the lizard and the perch

c)

the mouse and the chimp

d)

the mouse and the salamander

82.

Which two organisms share a common ancestor?

a)

Canis familiaris and Homo sapiens

b)

Canis lupus and Homo sapiens

c)

Canis familiaris and Canis lupus

d)

Homo sapiens and Culex pipiens

83.

Which species is most closely related to flies?

a)

Beetles

b)

Wasps

c)

Butterflies

d)

Ants

84.

Which two species are the most distantly related?

a)

beetles and wasps

b)

beetles and flies

c)

bees and ants

d)

butterflies and ant

85.

What is the order of the caddis fly depicted?

a)

Acarina

b)

Diptera

c)

Siphonaptera

d)

Trichoptera

86.

The amino acid sequence of four species, Bc, X, Y, and Z, were compared to determine their evolutionary relationship. Based on the amino acid sequences, which evolutionary tree best represents the relationship between the species?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

87.

In the terrarium shown, what must happen for the carbon cycle to continue?

a)

All organisms must continue to exchange gases.

b)

The snails must double their production of carbon dioxide.

c)

The plant must produce carbon dioxide at a faster rate.

d)

The decomposers must begin to produce oxygen.

88.

If the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere were to decrease, which organism in the prairie ecosystem diagram would be one of the first affected by this change?

a)

hawks

b)

wheat

c)

locusts

d)

mold

89.

What would most likely happen if grasses and shrubs were removed from a rural eastern North Carolina ecosystem?

a)

There would be an increase in consumers in the ecosystem.

b)

There would be an increase in photosynthesis in the ecosystem.

c)

There would be a decrease of carbon dioxide available to the ecosystem.

d)

There would be a decrease in food energy produced by the ecosystem.

90.

Which statement most accurately predicts what would happen in the aquarium shown if it were tightly covered and maintained in natural light for one month?

a)

The water temperature would rapidly decrease.

b)

The process of respiration in the snail would decrease.

c)

The rate of reproduction of the fish would be affected.

d)

The organisms would probably survive because materials would cycle.

91.

What is the approximate carrying capacity of the deer population on WallaWalla Island according to the graph?

a)

15

b)

60

c)

80

d)

95

92.

Does the Rainbow Trout population in the Tuckasegee River continue to increase over time?

a)

The Rainbow Trout population continues to increase over time because unlimited resources are available in the Tuckasegee River.

b)

The Rainbow Trout population does not continue to increase over time because biotic and abiotic factors determine the carrying capacity for species.

c)

The Rainbow Trout population continues to increase over time because their food source is limited.

d)

The Rainbow Trout population does not continue to increase over time because its predator has been eliminated from the Tuckasegee River.

93.

The graph represents the white-tailed deer during two different years (A and B). One reason the population of deer is greater during Year B than during Year A could be that there were...

a)

more resources available

b)

less white-tail deer predators present

c)

less decomposers adding nutrients to the soil

d)

less white-tail deer born

94.

What is the primary reason the large-scale spread of zebra mussels concerns scientists?

a)

Zebra mussels are a freshwater species.

b)

Zebra mussels are a desired food for humans.

c)

Zebra mussels are eaten by some fish and birds.

d)

Zebra mussels outcompete native mussel species.

95.

A sea turtle has washed up on a remote section of a beach. This is known as stranding, which occurs when a dead, sick, or injured sea turtle washes up on the shoreline. Which statement best explains why stranding should be reported immediately to local authorities?

a)

The information can be very useful to biologists and managers who are trying to protect the species.

b)

The information can be very useful to protect sea turtles from predators.

c)

The information can be very useful to local fishermen who try to catch fish that sea turtles eat.

d)

The information can be very useful to tourists who may want to keep sea turtles as pets.

96.

Based on the data provided, which type of pesticide has the highest impact on the honey bee population in terms of mortality rate?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type C

d)

No pesticide

97.

Based on the data in the table, which pesticide is most effective in reducing the impact of human activities on honey bee biodiversity? 

a)

The use of Type B pesticide increases bee mortality and human impact on bee biodiversity.

b)

The use of Type B pesticide reduces bee mortality and minimizes human impact on bee biodiversity.

c)

The use of Type C pesticide increases bee mortality and human impact on bee biodiversity.

d)

The use of Type C pesticide reduces bee mortality and minimizes human impact on bee biodiversity.

98.

Which row of the chart most accurately states possible effects of building this manufacturing plant?

a)

Row 1

b)

Row 2

c)

Row 3

d)

Row 4

99.

What would most likely happen if airborne pollution blocked the sun’s rays so significantly that only 5% of plants survived?

a)

The atmosphere would fill with oxygen, and animals would begin to die.

b)

All animals would evolve to begin using carbon dioxide as a food source.

c)

The atmosphere would fill with carbon dioxide, and animals would begin to die.

d)

All animals would evolve to use a mixture of oxygen and carbon dioxide during respiration.

100.

Analyze the energy pyramid below. Which organisms are found at level Y?

a)

producers

b)

primary consumers

c)

tertiary consumers

d)

secondary consumers

101.

The graph below shows the number of hare and the number of lynx in a specific ecosystem over time. Which hypothesis is best supported by the data?

a)

A rise in the lynx population caused a rise in the hare population.

b)

The hare population was limited by the number of lynx in the ecosystem.

c)

The lynx population was limited by the number of hares in the ecosystem.

d)

The hare population drastically decreased in the 1920s because of a decrease in the lynx population.

102.

The deer tick survives by feeding on the blood of deer and other forest mammals. The animals are left with itchy bites and sometimes get Lyme disease as a result. How would a scientist most likely classify the deer tick?

a)

carnivore

b)

insectivore

c)

parasite

d)

predator

103.

Ants patrol the area where aphids feed, stinging and biting any other insects on the plants. In return, the aphids produce honeydew, a sugary substance on which the ants feed. Which best describes the relationship that exists between the ants and the aphids?

a)

commensalism

b)

predation

c)

parasitism

d)

mutualism

104.

The graph below shows the changes in the populations of two bird species that both feed on pine seeds in a pine forest. Which is the best reason for the changes in population of the two types of birds?

a)

Bird population B increased because deforestation reduced the amount of food.

b)

Bird population B became more successful at competing for food with bird population A.

c)

Bird population B produced more offspring than bird population A.

d)

Bird population B killed off members of bird population A.

105.

What will most likely occur if the population of the world continues to increase at predicted rates?

a)

There will be an increase in biodiversity as a result of improvements in technology.

b)

There will be more rapid depletion of natural resources.

c)

The human race will rapidly become extinct.

d)

All human diseases will be eliminated.

106.

Which is a reason why invasive species thrive in new habitats?

a)

Their new habitats have reached carrying capacity.

b)

Their new habitats lack the natural resources needed for population growth.

c)

Their new habitats have many predators that limit their population growth.

d)

Their new habitats may not have the same predators found in their previous environment that can limit their population growth.

107.

Capuchin monkeys live in the Amazon rainforest in the canopy of the trees, eating mostly leaves. Many acres of the Amazon forest are being destroyed for farmers to plant soybeans for crops. What will most likely happen to the capuchin monkeys?

a)

They will become endangered.

b)

They will start eating soybeans.

c)

They will begin hunting humans.

d)

They will evolve to live on the forest floor.

108.

Which best explains how the greenhouse effect has caused a rise in global warming?

a)

Increased production of carbon dioxide holds in heat and prevents it from escaping Earth’s atmosphere.

b)

CFCs used in aerosol sprays have decreased the levels of radiation that enter Earth’s atmosphere.

c)

The thickening of the ozone layer has decreased the levels of UV radiation that reach Earth’s atmosphere.

d)

The use of heating and cooling have produced increased levels of moisture in the air, which holds in heat.

109.

What will most likely be the result of destroying the rain forest for timber and farmland?

a)

an increase in the populations of underpopulated areas of Earth, which should ease overcrowding in more populated areas of the planet

b)

a permanent improvement of local economies created by the sale of the vast forest resources and the expansion of productive farmland

c)

a marked decrease in the number of species on Earth caused by loss of habitat and increased global warming

d)

an improvement of local water supplies as the soil is stabilized and decaying vegetation from the trees disappears

110.

Which human activity most likely causes acid rain?

a)

using chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

b)

generating nuclear energy

c)

burning fossil fuels

d)

using pesticides