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2205 Exam 2 pt.2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client at 39 weeks is supine for epidural placement and becomes pale and diaphoretic; FHR shows recurrent late decelerations. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Turn the client to a lateral position

b)

Apply oxygen 12 L NRB

c)

Stop IV fluids

d)

Begin pushing coaching

2.

Which finding best reflects a normal fetal adaptation to labor?

a)

Persistent absent variability between contractions

b)

Decreased fetal breathing movements during contractions

c)

Sustained sinusoidal pattern

d)

Recurrent late decelerations with minimal variability

3.

The nurse is confirming baseline FHR. Which method is correct?

a)

Average the rate over 2 minutes including decelerations

b)

Use the lowest rate over 10 minutes

c)

Determine the mean FHR over a 10-minute segment excluding periodic changes

d)

Use maternal pulse if tracing is poor

4.

Which tracing is Category III?

a)

Moderate variability with recurrent variables

b)

Minimal variability with occasional lates

c)

Marked variability with early decels

d)

Absent variability with recurrent late decelerations

5.

A client has recurrent variable decelerations after ROM and oligohydramnios. Which provider order best targets the cause?

a)

Amnioinfusion

b)

Dinoprostone

c)

Methylergonovine

d)

Magnesium sulfate

6.

Which statement about CST is most accurate?

a)

It diagnoses ROM

b)

It evaluates fetal tolerance of uterine contractions (stress)

c)

It replaces continuous EFM in labor

d)

It is performed only after delivery

7.

A fetal scalp electrode is being considered. Which is the best indication?

a)

Need to quantify contraction intensity

b)

Poor external FHR tracing in a high-risk labor requiring continuous FHR accuracy

c)

Need to confirm PPROM

d)

Client refuses IV access

8.

A client on oxytocin has tachysystole and recurrent late decelerations. Which action is priority?

a)

Increase oxytocin to shorten labor

b)

Perform amniotomy

c)

Apply oxygen first and keep oxytocin running

d)

Stop oxytocin and reposition laterally

9.

Which “5 Powers” component is being assessed when evaluating pelvic dimensions and soft tissue resistance?

a)

Passageway

b)

Passenger

c)

Powers

d)

Psyche

10.

A nurse palpates the uterus and notes the fetus is breech. Which breech type has the highest cord prolapse risk?

a)

Frank

b)

Complete

c)

Footling

d)

Kneeling

11.

A client has PPROM at 31 weeks. Which assessment approach best reduces infection risk while confirming ROM?

a)

Frequent digital cervical exams for trend

b)

Sterile speculum exam for pooling/visualization and limited digital exams

c)

Bimanual exam with lubricant first

d)

Routine cervical checks every 2 hours

12.

A client with PPROM has a positive nitrazine test. Which factor can cause a false-positive?

a)

Low vaginal pH

b)

Amniotic fluid

c)

Blood or semen contamination

d)

Dried slide artifact

13.

The nurse suspects chorioamnionitis. Which cluster most supports it?

a)

Maternal fever, uterine tenderness, fetal tachycardia, foul/purulent fluid

b)

Painless bright red bleeding, soft uterus

c)

Reactive NST and maternal bradycardia

d)

Marked variability with accelerations only

14.

A client with suspected intraamniotic infection asks why repeated vaginal exams are avoided. Best response:

a)

“They stop contractions.”

b)

“They increase risk of ascending infection.”

c)

“They prevent fetal descent.”

15.

A client attempting VBAC reports sudden severe abdominal pain; the nurse notes loss of fetal station and fetal bradycardia. Priority action?

a)

Begin CST

b)

Continue oxytocin to expedite delivery

c)

Prepare for emergent cesarean and activate rapid response

d)

Encourage ambulation to rotate fetus

16.

Which finding is most consistent with uterine rupture (not dehiscence)?

a)

Thinning of scar without fetal compromise

b)

Mild pain relieved by rest

c)

Gradual spotting only

d)

Sudden pain + abnormal FHR + loss of station/uterine contour change

17.

A client has abruptio placentae suspicion. Which assessment is most concerning for concealed abruption?

a)

Rigid, tender uterus with fetal distress and minimal external bleeding

b)

Green amniotic fluid after ROM

c)

Painless bleeding with soft uterus

d)

Ferning on microscopy

18.

A client has placenta separation suspicion and is hypotensive. Which order should the nurse anticipate first to support resuscitation planning?

a)

Encourage oral fluids

b)

Type and crossmatch blood

c)

Discontinue continuous EFM

d)

Delay IV access until OR

19.

Which fetal heart rate pattern is most strongly associated with uteroplacental insufficiency?

a)

Late decelerations

b)

Early decelerations

c)

Accelerations

d)

Sinus arrhythmia

20.

A nurse sees recurrent late decelerations. After repositioning and stopping oxytocin, which action is most appropriate next?

a)

Begin pushing at 6 cm

b)

Perform amniotomy

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

IV fluid bolus per protocol and notify provider

21.

A newborn is delivered through meconium-stained fluid and is vigorous (crying, good tone). What care is expected?

a)

Routine newborn care (no automatic intubation solely for meconium)

b)

Immediate deep suctioning and intubation regardless

c)

Delay drying to reduce aspiration risk

d)

NPO and gastric lavage for all cases

22.

What does VEAL-CHOP match for “Variable”?

a)

Head compression

b)

Cord compression

c)

Placental insufficiency

d)

Overstimulation from epidural

23.

A tracing shows abrupt drops with quick return and “shoulders.” Most likely cause?

a)

Placental insufficiency

b)

Head compression

c)

Cord compression

d)

Maternal fever only

24.

Which description fits a prolonged deceleration?

a)

Drop lasting 15 seconds

b)

Drop lasting 30–60 seconds

c)

Drop lasting ≥2 minutes but <10 minutes

d)

Drop lasting ≥10 minutes (baseline change)

25.

A client has minimal variability and no accelerations; she received IV opioids 20 minutes ago. Most likely explanation?

a)

Medication/sedation effect

b)

Fetal anemia

c)

Cord prolapse

d)

Placental abruption

26.

A nurse suspects shoulder dystocia when the head delivers then retracts (“turtle sign”). What is the first nursing action?

a)

Apply fundal pressure

b)

Call for help and begin McRoberts/suprapubic pressure sequence

c)

Prepare for OR transport immediately as only option

d)

Pull downward on the fetal head

27.

Which maneuver is appropriate in shoulder dystocia?

a)

Fundal pressure

b)

McRoberts (hyperflex maternal hips)

c)

Immediate vacuum at −2 station

d)

Trendelenburg with legs extended

28.

Which newborn complication is most associated with shoulder dystocia?

a)

Brachial plexus injury/clavicle fracture

b)

NEC

29.

A client with PPROM asks what “fern test” means. Which statement is accurate?

a)

Microscopic crystallization pattern supports amniotic fluid presence

b)

It measures fetal oxygenation

c)

It determines GBS status

d)

It is unaffected by contamination

30.

Which test is most helpful for 36-week screening affecting intrapartum antibiotics?

a)

Rubella titer

b)

GBS culture

c)

Quad screen

d)

1-hr glucose tolerance

31.

After epidural placement, the client becomes hypotensive and FHR shows bradycardia. Priority nursing intervention?

a)

Lateral position + IV fluid bolus per protocol

b)

Administer naloxone

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Encourage breath-holding pushes

32.

Which medication is an appropriate anticipated treatment for persistent epidural-associated hypotension after fluids/positioning (per common L&D protocol)?

a)

Methylergonovine

b)

Magnesium sulfate

c)

Ephedrine/vasopressor per policy

d)

Terbutaline to increase BP

33.

A client receives IV fentanyl. What is the most important maternal assessment priority?

a)

Respiratory rate and level of consciousness

b)

Urine ketones

c)

Deep tendon reflexes

d)

Fundal height

34.

A client becomes somnolent with RR 8 after opioid analgesia. What is the priority medication?

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Naloxone

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Dinoprostone

35.

Which is a contraindication to neuraxial anesthesia (epidural/spinal)?

a)

Coagulopathy/low platelets

b)

Mild heartburn

c)

Intact membranes

d)

Nulliparity

36.

A client has a high spinal block and reports difficulty breathing; BP drops. Priority action?

a)

Assist airway/ventilation and call anesthesia/provider immediately

b)

Encourage ambulation to redistribute block

c)

Give oral fluids

d)

Stop fetal monitoring to reduce stress

37.

Which stage of labor is 10 cm to delivery?

a)

Third stage

b)

Second stage

c)

Fourth stage

d)

First stage

38.

Which finding best indicates active phase rather than latent?

a)

Placental delivery

b)

Contractions irregular and mild, cervix 1–3 cm

c)

Cervix typically 4–7 cm with progressive dilation and stronger contractions

d)

Cervix 8–10 cm with urge to push

39.

A client is 9 cm with strong urge to push. Priority nursing action?

a)

Begin postpartum teaching

b)

Encourage pushing immediately for relief

c)

Discontinue monitoring

d)

Support pant-blow breathing and prevent early pushing if not fully dilated/ordered

40.

Which characteristic best differentiates true labor?

a)

Pain relieved by walking

b)

Contractions decrease with hydration/rest

c)

Regular contractions with progressive cervical change

d)

No cervical change over time

41.

Leopold maneuvers primarily help the nurse determine:

a)

Fetal acid–base status

b)

Fetal lie, presentation, and position (approximation)

c)

Placental location definitively

d)

GBS colonization

42.

A nurse places an IUPC. What does it measure best?

a)

Maternal BP continuously

b)

Fetal oxygen saturation

c)

Contraction intensity and resting tone numerically

d)

Fetal heart rhythm variability

43.

Even with an IUPC, the nurse must still:

a)

Remove external monitors immediately

b)

Palpate contractions and assess maternal response per policy

c)

Stop documenting contractions

d)

Discontinue fetal assessments

44.

Which condition must be present before placing internal monitors (FSE/IUPC)?

a)

No fetal movement

b)

Intact membranes

c)

Ruptured membranes and sufficient dilation for placement

d)

Closed cervix

45.

A nonreactive NST after 40 minutes most commonly leads to which next test?

a)

Amniotomy

b)

VBAC criteria review

c)

Immediate hysterectomy

d)

Biophysical profile (BPP) or further evaluation per provider

46.

NST minimum monitoring time before extending (typical)?

a)

5 minutes

b)

60 minutes

c)

20 minutes

d)

2 minutes

47.

Which is the best definition of tachysystole?

a)

Contractions every 6 minutes

b)

5 contractions in 30 minutes

c)

Resting tone 0

d)

>5 contractions in 10 minutes averaged over 30 minutes

48.

A client on oxytocin develops tachysystole with Category II tracing. Priority?

a)

Encourage pushing to shorten labor

b)

Reduce/stop oxytocin and begin intrauterine resuscitation

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Increase oxytocin to overcome slowed labor

49.

“Oxygen in labor” teaching per many updated protocols is best summarized as:

a)

Oxygen is contraindicated in labor

b)

Oxygen replaces stopping oxytocin

c)

Use oxygen after correcting reversible causes; not first-line for all nonreassuring tracings

d)

Oxygen is always first and best

50.

First-line intrauterine resuscitation for many nonreassuring patterns is:

a)

Give naloxone

b)

Apply oxygen

c)

Do amniotomy

d)

Reposition laterally

51.

A client has recurrent variables that persist despite repositioning. Which intervention is next most targeted (if ordered)?

a)

Dinoprostone insert

b)

Increase oxytocin

c)

Fundal pressure

d)

Amnioinfusion

52.

A client with suspected cord prolapse has sudden fetal bradycardia after ROM. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Perform a vaginal exam to assess for cord and relieve compression if present

b)

Apply a fetal scalp electrode first

c)

Start CST

d)

Administer antibiotics

53.

Overt cord prolapse is confirmed. What must the nurse do continuously until delivery?

a)

Encourage pushing

b)

Replace cord into uterus

c)

Manually elevate presenting part off the cord (do not remove hand)

d)

Clamp cord immediately

54.

Which is contraindicated in cord prolapse management?

a)

Knee-chest/Trendelenburg positioning

b)

Manual elevation of presenting part

c)

Calling for emergent delivery

d)

Pinching/manipulating the cord

55.

A vacuum-assisted birth occurred. Newborn has a scalp swelling that crosses suture lines. Most likely finding?

a)

Hydrocephalus

b)

Cephalohematoma

c)

Caput succedaneum

d)

Meningocele

56.

Cephalohematoma is most associated with which risk later?

a)

Immediate respiratory distress

b)

Hyperbilirubinemia/jaundice due to blood breakdown

c)

Congenital infection

d)

Tetralogy of Fallot

57.

A client has meconium-stained fluid. Which fetal complication is the nurse most concerned about if aspiration occurs?

a)

Clubfoot

b)

PDA from oxytocin

c)

Respiratory distress/hypoxemia

d)

Hypernatremia

58.

Which fetus is at highest risk for meconium passage?

a)

Twin A at 34 weeks

b)

Post-term fetus

c)

Preterm 28 weeks

d)

Elective induction at 37 weeks

59.

A client with PPROM asks why “pooling” matters. Best answer:

a)

It confirms chorioamnionitis

b)

Visible pooling in posterior fornix supports ROM diagnosis

c)

It identifies fetal position

d)

It confirms abruption

60.

Which PPROM test uses an immunoassay detecting proteins associated with amniotic fluid (high sensitivity, possible false positives)?

a)

Ultrasound only

b)

Fern test

c)

Immunoassay ROM test

d)

Nitrazine

61.

A client with suspected infection has fever and uterine tenderness. Which fetal finding most supports chorioamnionitis?

a)

Frequent accelerations

b)

Recurrent early decelerations only

c)

Sinus bradycardia at baseline 110

d)

Fetal tachycardia baseline >160 for ≥10 minutes

62.

Which organism category can contribute to intraamniotic infection?

a)

Only parasites

b)

Ascending polymicrobial flora including bacterial pathogens (e.g., GBS/E. coli)

c)

Only viruses

d)

Only fungi

63.

A client has suspected chorioamnionitis. Which nursing plan best reduces further risk?

a)

Place supine for accurate tracing

b)

Encourage repeated digital exams to trend dilation

c)

Minimize vaginal exams, monitor temp/FHR closely, anticipate antibiotics

d)

Stop maternal vitals to reduce stress

64.

A client with chorioamnionitis is anxious and says, "My baby will be taken away." Best nursing focus?

a)

Avoid discussing NICU

b)

Prepare for possible NICU evaluation and support bonding plans/psychosocial needs

c)

Discharge teaching only

d)

Tell her "that won’t happen"

65.

A client in 4th stage has boggy fundus and heavy lochia. First nursing action?

a)

Stop oxytocin infusion

b)

Place client prone

c)

Fundal massage and assess bladder distention/void

d)

Delay interventions until provider arrives

66.

Fundus is firm but bleeding remains heavy. Priority concern?

a)

Genital tract laceration/retained tissue—notify provider

b)

Bladder distention only

c)

Normal lochia rubra

d)

Dehydration

67.

Newborn first hour: persistent grunting and nasal flaring. Priority?

a)

Delay assessment for bonding

b)

Support airway/oxygenation per NRP and notify neonatal team

c)

Feed immediately to stop grunting

d)

Bath immediately

68.

Best action to prevent newborn heat loss in first 2 hours?

a)

Bathe immediately

b)

Keep uncovered for observation

c)

Place under a fan

d)

Dry thoroughly and skin-to-skin with warm blankets

69.

Which is a key risk with operative vaginal delivery (forceps/vacuum) that impacts newborn bilirubin?

a)

Patent ductus arteriosus

b)

Bruising/hematoma increasing jaundice risk

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Neural tube defect

70.

Which finding is most consistent with early decelerations?

a)

Drop starting after peak (uteroplacental insufficiency)

b)

Abrupt drop with shoulders

c)

Gradual decrease that mirrors contraction peak (head compression)

d)

Prolonged decel >10 minutes

71.

A Category II tracing with minimal variability persists; fetal scalp stimulation produces accelerations. Best interpretation?

a)

Suggests fetal acidemia less likely at that moment

b)

Confirms fetal anemia

c)

Confirms uterine rupture

d)

Requires immediate cesarean always

72.

A provider discusses fetal scalp blood sampling for acid–base. What does it primarily evaluate?

a)

Maternal infection status

b)

Fetal pH/acid–base status to clarify fetal oxygenation compromise

c)

Placental previa

d)

Cervical readiness

73.

A client is receiving dinoprostone. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

Mild cramping

b)

Increased mucous

c)

Tachysystole with fetal distress

d)

Sleepiness

74.

What is the main purpose of dinoprostone in L&D?

a)

Reverse opioids

b)

Treat chorioamnionitis

c)

Treat uterine atony postpartum

d)

Cervical ripening for induction

75.

Which medication is used to relax the uterus in tachysystole with fetal compromise (provider order)?

a)

Misoprostol

b)

Terbutaline

76.

Which is a common adverse effect/concern with terbutaline that requires monitoring?

a)

Maternal tachycardia/palpitations

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Jaundice

d)

Severe hypertension and proteinuria

77.

A client in preterm labor is ordered nifedipine. Priority assessment before administration?

a)

Fundal height trend only

b)

Maternal bowel sounds

c)

Maternal blood pressure

d)

Fetal hair pattern

78.

Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is used primarily to:

a)

Help assess risk of preterm birth in symptomatic clients (with clinical correlation)

b)

Confirm ROM definitively

c)

Determine fetal presentation

d)

Diagnose chorioamnionitis

79.

Which is a classic risk factor for shoulder dystocia?

a)

Small for gestational age

b)

Oligohydramnios

c)

Preterm fetus 28 weeks

d)

Macrosomia (often larger fetuses), prolonged second stage/operative delivery history

80.

Which action is contraindicated in shoulder dystocia?

a)

Call for help/neonatal team

b)

McRoberts

c)

Suprapubic pressure

d)

Fundal pressure

81.

A client with PPROM at 30 weeks: priority ongoing nursing surveillance focuses on:

a)

Fundal height only

b)

Infection signs and cord compression/fetal status

c)

Daily Pap smear

d)

Blood glucose checks only

82.

Which PPROM complication is most likely to increase neonatal respiratory problems?

a)

Prematurity and possible infection leading to respiratory distress

b)

Maternal seasonal allergies

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Excess vernix

83.

Which lab is most essential on admission for hemorrhage preparedness?

a)

RICE

b)

APGAR

c)

Color, odor, amount, time (COAT)

d)

LATCH

84.

A client with ROM had clear fluid, then later thick green fluid appears. Best interpretation?

a)

It proves breech presentation

b)

Meconium can appear later and may signal fetal stress

c)

It proves infection every time

d)

Green fluid is always normal after epidural

85.

Which finding best suggests fetal compromise risk from prolonged hypoxia?

a)

Early decels only in second stage

b)

Moderate variability with accelerations

c)

Baseline 120 with no decels

d)

Absent variability with recurrent late decelerations

86.

A tracing shows baseline 170 for >10 minutes. First nursing action?

a)

Assess maternal temp/hydration and intervene (reposition/fluids as indicated)

b)

Apply oxygen first for 30 minutes regardless

c)

Remove monitors

d)

Start pushing

87.

A client receives epidural and cannot void. Best nursing action?

a)

Ignore until postpartum

b)

Anticipate urinary retention—bladder assessment/catheter per policy

c)

Encourage unassisted ambulation to bathroom

d)

Restrict all IV fluids immediately

88.

The newborn has poor tone and weak respirations after delivery. Priority?

a)

Immediate feeding

b)

Delay stimulation

c)

Begin neonatal resuscitation steps per NRP and notify team

d)

Routine care only

89.

Which statement best describes the relationship between fetal head compression and decelerations?

a)

Head compression causes prolonged decelerations always

b)

Head compression typically causes early decelerations (usually benign)

c)

Head compression causes late decelerations

d)

Head compression causes sinusoidal pattern

90.

Which indicates placental insufficiency most strongly?

a)

Early decelerations

b)

Recurrent late decelerations

c)

Accelerations with moderate variability

d)

Baseline 110 with no decels

91.

A client has recurrent late decelerations and is 2 cm dilated. What is the most likely disposition if unresolved quickly?

a)

Encourage walking for 2 hours first

b)

Stop fetal monitoring

c)

Prepare for cesarean delivery (vaginal not imminent)

92.

Which best defines uterine dehiscence?

a)

Placental separation from uterine wall

b)

Incomplete separation/thinning of uterine scar without full rupture

c)

Full thickness tear with fetal parts in abdomen

d)

Cord compression with visible loop

93.

A client with suspected uterine rupture: which nursing prep is most appropriate?

a)

Large-bore IV access, type & cross, rapid OR readiness, continuous fetal assessment

b)

Encourage oral intake for energy

c)

Start dinoprostone

d)

Delay labs until delivery

94.

The nurse suspects abruptio placentae. Which fetal tracing change is common with worsening abruption?

a)

Early decelerations only

b)

Increasing late decelerations/bradycardia due to compromised perfusion

c)

Sinusoidal always due to fever

d)

Frequent accelerations only

95.

A client has fetal demise confirmed. Which nursing intervention is best?

a)

Avoid discussing grief resources

b)

Use false reassurance only

c)

Prevent family visits

d)

Offer choices: holding baby, photos/prints, spiritual/cultural support per preference

96.

Which response is most therapeutic to a client after fetal loss?

a)

“You need to move on quickly.”

b)

“Everything happens for a reason.”

c)

“Tell me what you’re feeling right now—I’m here with you.”

d)

“At least you can get pregnant.”

97.

A client in latent labor requests nonpharmacologic pain control. Best option?

a)

Immediate general anesthesia

b)

Ambulation, position changes, breathing, hydrotherapy (if appropriate)

c)

Supine bedrest only

d)

Directed pushing

98.

Which analgesia method provides perineal anesthesia late in second stage and for laceration repair?

a)

Pudendal block

b)

Dinoprostone

c)

Nitrous oxide only

d)

Epidural only

99.

Which is a common epidural complication that can worsen uteroplacental perfusion?

a)

Maternal hyperglycemia

b)

Maternal hyperreflexia

c)

Maternal polycythemia

d)

Maternal hypotension

100.

A client with epidural develops pruritus and nausea. Priority nursing action?

a)

Encourage unassisted ambulation

b)

Stop fetal monitoring

c)

Monitor maternal VS/respirations and fetal status; manage per protocol

d)

Place supine to reduce itching