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Page 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Variations caused due to mutations are best described as

a)

random and directionless

b)

random and directional

c)

random and small

d)

random, small and directional

2.

Which statement about homology and evolution is not true?

a)

Homologous organs share structure but differ function

b)

Homology indicates common ancestry

c)

Homologous structures arise from convergent evolution

d)

Flippers of whales and dolphins are homologous

3.

A population is in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium with alleles A (dominant) and a (recessive). If allele frequency of A is 0.6, the expected genotype frequency of Aa is

a)

0.21

b)

0.42

c)

0.32

d)

0.48

4.

Early Greek philosophers proposed that life came to Earth from another planet in the form of

a)

Gemmules

b)

Gametes

c)

Seeds

d)

Spores

5.

Post‑industrialisation in England affected moth populations. The expected effect of natural selection on white‑winged versus dark‑winged moths was

a)

Both less in number

b)

Less white than dark

c)

Both more in number

d)

More white than dark

6.

The graph shows number of giraffes versus neck length forming a peaked curve. Which option best describes the selection process affecting giraffe neck length?

a)

Directional selection favoring longer necks

b)

Stabilising selection with longer necks selected further

c)

Disruptive selection favoring smaller and longer necks

d)

Stabilising selection favoring medium neck lengths

7.

Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are examples of

a)

homologous organs

b)

vestigial organs

c)

retrogressive evolution

d)

analogous organs

8.

Darwin’s finches are an excellent example of

a)

seasonal migration

b)

adaptive radiation

c)

connecting links

d)

brood parasitism

9.

If allele a has frequency 0.4 in an equilibrium population, what is the expected frequency of genotype aa?

a)

0.36

b)

0.24

c)

0.48

d)

0.16

10.

Which observation most strongly supports common ancestry of whales and dolphins?

a)

Analogous fin function in swimming

b)

Similar habitats and diet

c)

Homologous flipper bone arrangement

d)

Convergent streamlined body shape

11.

Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as

a)

migration

b)

adaptive radiation

c)

natural selection

d)

divergent evolution

12.

The theory of spontaneous generation stated that

a)

life arose from living forms only.

b)

life can arise from both living and non-living.

c)

life can arise from non-living things only.

d)

life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from non-living.

13.

Palaentological evidences for evolution refer to the

a)

development of embryo

b)

analogous organs

c)

fossils

d)

homologous organs

14.

The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are similar in structure, because

a)

they have biochemical similarities

b)

one organism has given rise to another

c)

they share a common ancestor

d)

they perform the same function

15.

Which of the following organs are homologous?

a)

Forelimbs of man and wings of bat

b)

Wings of Bat and bird

c)

Wings of Bat and Pterodactyl

d)

None of these

16.

Homologous organs show

a)

parallel evolution

b)

divergent evolution

c)

natural selection

d)

convergent evolution

17.

Analogous organs arise due to

a)

convergent evolution

b)

divergent evolution

c)

genetic drift

d)

artificial selection

18.

Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of moving from

a)

land to water

b)

dryland to wet land

c)

fresh water to sea water

d)

water to land

19.

Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because

a)

the young ones are left on their own.

b)

the young ones are protected by a thick shell.

c)

the embryo takes a long time to develop.

d)

the young ones are protected inside the mother's body and are looked after they are born leading to more chances of survival.

20.

Fossils are generally found in

a)

igneous rocks

b)

any type of rock

c)

metamorphic rocks

d)

sedimentary rocks

21.

According to Hugo de Vries, speciation is due to

a)

inter specific breeding

b)

intraspecific breeding

c)

accumulation of small variations

d)

saltation

22.

Which type of selection explains industrial melanism observed in moth, Biston betularia?

a)

Artificial

b)

Disruptive

c)

Directional

d)

Stabilising

23.

The most accepted line of descent in human evolution is

a)

Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens.

b)

Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens

c)

Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo sapiens → Homo habilis

d)

Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens

24.

Which of the following is an example for link species?

a)

Sea weed

b)

Lobe fish

c)

Chimpanzee

d)

Dodo bird

25.

Match the scientists in Column I with the ideas in Column II: A. Darwin, B. Oparin, C. Lamarck, D. Wagner; (i) Abiogenesis, (ii) Use and disuse of organs, (iii) Continental drift theory, (iv) Evolution by natural selection. Choose the correct pairing.

a)

A-(i); B-(iv); C-(ii); D-(iii)

b)

A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iii); D-(iv)

c)

A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)

d)

A-(iv); B-(i); C-(ii); D-(iii)

26.

Stabilising selection favors which outcome in a population?

a)

none of these

b)

intermediate form

c)

both extreme forms

d)

only one extreme form

27.

Disruptive selection favors which outcome in a population?

a)

only one extreme form

b)

both extreme forms

c)

intermediate form

d)

none of these

28.

The phenomenon of "Industrial melanism" demonstrates which evolutionary process?

a)

induced mutation

b)

genetic drift

c)

natural selection

d)

geographical isolation

29.

In 1953, S. L. Miller simulated primitive Earth conditions to show abiotic synthesis of organic molecules. Which set best describes those conditions?

a)

low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere

b)

high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere with CH4, NH3

c)

low temperature, volcanic storms, oxygen-rich atmosphere

d)

high temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing atmosphere

30.

Which is the correct Hardy–Weinberg equation for a two-allele locus?

a)

p2 + pq + q2 = 0

b)

p2 + pq + q2 = 1

c)

p2 + pq + q2 = infinity

d)

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

31.

Assertion–Reason: Assertion: Louis Pasteur’s experiments showed that new organisms appeared in an open flask with heat-killed yeast. Reason: Life arises from pre-existing life. Choose the correct option.

a)

Assertion wrong; reason correct

b)

Assertion correct; reason wrong

c)

Assertion and reason both correct; reason does not explain assertion

d)

Assertion and reason both correct; reason explains assertion

32.

Which scientist is most directly associated with "use and disuse" theory?

a)

Wagner

b)

Darwin

c)

Lamarck

d)

Oparin

33.

Continental drift theory is linked with which scientist among the list?

a)

Wagner

b)

Lamarck

c)

Oparin

d)

Darwin

34.

Industrial melanism led to increased dark morphs of moths during heavy pollution. Which mechanism best explains the shift?

a)

directional selection favoring dark morphs

b)

disruptive selection splitting color forms

c)

random genetic drift in small populations

d)

stabilising selection around mean color

35.

Which statement best describes analogous organs, as illustrated by wings of butterflies and birds?

a)

Anatomically similar with identical structure

b)

Functionally different but anatomically identical

c)

Anatomically different yet functionally similar

d)

Both anatomically and functionally identical

36.

Disruptive selection typically causes which population outcome?

a)

Elimination of extreme phenotypes

b)

Split into two or more groups

c)

Shift toward intermediate traits

d)

One uniform average phenotype

37.

In early evolution, which molecule is considered the hereditary material of the earliest cells?

a)

Protein-based enzymes

b)

Polysaccharide templates

c)

DNA as primary genome

d)

RNA as hereditary molecule

38.

Which principle explains occurrence of variations in population and species by focusing on genetic equilibrium?

a)

Founder principle

b)

Hardy–Weinberg principle

c)

Bergmann’s rule

d)

Adaptive radiation model

39.

The founder effect may lead most directly to which outcome?

a)

Formation of new species

b)

Restoration of gene flow

c)

Increase in population size

d)

Elimination of mutations

40.

Excessive use of herbicides and pesticides most likely selects for which microbial trait?

a)

Broader host specificity

b)

Higher mutation frequency

c)

Reduced reproductive rate

d)

Chemical resistant varieties

41.

Darwin’s finches show different beak types mainly due to which evolutionary process?

a)

Artificial selection

b)

Genetic assimilation

c)

Adaptive radiation

d)

Convergent evolution

42.

Genetic drift primarily refers to which population-level change?

a)

Changes in allele frequency

b)

Increase in mutation rate

c)

Directional selection pressure

d)

Gene flow between populations

43.

Among primates, which species is identified as the closest relative of present-day humans?

a)

Gorilla

b)

Chimpanzee

c)

Gibbon

d)

Orangutan

44.

The industrial melanism observed in British moths after industrialisation showed which trend in white-winged moth numbers?

a)

Increased substantially

b)

Stayed approximately constant

c)

Varied seasonally only

d)

Decreased drastically

45.

In a simulation of the Urey–Miller experiment, which gas mixture is heated and exposed to electrical sparks to test origin-of-life chemistry?

a)

CO2, N2, H2O, H2S

b)

H2O, CH4, H2, NH3

c)

O2, CO, NO2, SO2

d)

H2O, CH3OH, O2, Ar

46.

Which error prevented the desired results in an early origin-of-life experiment?

a)

Excluding methane from mixture

b)

Maintaining pressure too high

c)

Using O2 instead of H2 gas

d)

Using glass instead of metal

47.

In Urey–Miller’s conclusion, what was shown about life’s origin?

a)

Evolution only by natural selection

b)

Abiogenesis from inorganic molecules

c)

Direct panspermia of spores

d)

Immediate formation of cells

48.

What was a temperature issue that led to failure in a replication attempt of the origin-of-life setup?

a)

Cooled rapidly with ice water

b)

Varied randomly from 20–50°C

c)

Held constant at 37°C

d)

Maintained 80°C not 800°C

49.

What was the main purpose of Urey–Miller’s experiment?

a)

Model fossilization in sediments

b)

Confirm abiogenesis from organic matter

c)

Measure ozone formation in storms

d)

Test photosynthesis in algae

50.

Which statement contrasts abiogenesis with panspermia?

a)

Life started by plants vs animals

b)

Life began in oceans vs deserts

c)

Life came from viruses vs bacteria

d)

Life formed on Earth vs spores from space

51.

According to Darwin, what role does an individual play in natural selection?

a)

Eliminates all mutations

b)

Controls environmental changes

c)

Creates new species instantly

d)

Passes variations and adaptations

52.

What term describes the evolution of different species from a common ancestor across habitats in an area?

a)

Directional selection

b)

Genetic drift

c)

Convergent evolution

d)

Adaptive radiation

53.

How do the Galápagos finches demonstrate adaptive radiation?

a)

Migrated without change

b)

Diverged in size, color, beaks

c)

Cloned identical offspring

d)

Hybridized into one form

54.

What is meant by the fitness of an individual in Darwinian terms?

a)

Speed compared to competitors

b)

Capacity to grow larger muscles

c)

Skill to find abundant food

d)

Ability to survive and pass genes

55.

Which evolutionary process best explains similarities between the wolf and Tasmanian wolf?

a)

Artificial selection by humans

b)

Co-evolution with same prey

c)

Parallel mutation in genes

d)

Convergent evolution of niches

56.

Which animal likely evolved along with the Tasmanian wolf due to similar ecological roles?

a)

Giant herbivorous wombat

b)

Komodo dragon predator

c)

Placental wolf as analogue

d)

Marine dolphin hunter

57.

Name the process resulting in resemblance between the wolf and Tasmanian wolf despite different lineages.

a)

Stabilizing selection

b)

Allopatric speciation

c)

Artificial breeding

d)

Convergent evolution

58.

Which geographical region is depicted as the habitat for the organisms shown in the diagram?

a)

South America rainforest

b)

Eurasia temperate zones

c)

Australia and nearby islands

d)

Africa continent overall

59.

Adaptive radiation is best described as which evolutionary process?

a)

Development of identical genes across species

b)

Evolution of diverse forms from a common ancestor

c)

Random drift without environmental influence

d)

Hybridization leading to sterile offspring

60.

Which pair illustrates convergent evolution resulting in similar niches despite different lineages?

a)

Mouse and marsupial mouse

b)

Wolf and Tasmanian wolf

c)

All of the listed pairs

d)

Flying squirrel and flying phalanger

61.

What key difference distinguishes a wolf from a Tasmanian wolf?

a)

Both are marsupial mammals

b)

Tasmanian wolf is a placental mammal

c)

Wolf is a placental mammal

d)

Neither gives live birth

62.

Which example from the diagram supports adaptive radiation within marsupials?

a)

Marsupial mole, marsupial mouse, numbat

b)

Tasmanian tiger cat, wolf, mouse

c)

Bobcat, lemur, flying squirrel

d)

Mole, anteater, spotted cuscus

63.

Convergent evolution leads to organisms that are best described as

a)

Correlated groups sharing ancestry

b)

Unrelated groups with similar functions

c)

Identical species across continents

d)

Populations separating without selection

64.

Which pair in the diagram exemplifies gliding adaptations in different mammalian groups?

a)

Lemur and bobcat

b)

Mole and marsupial mole

c)

Flying squirrel and flying phalanger

d)

Mouse and marsupial mouse

65.

Why might placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf occupy similar habitats?

a)

Shared recent common ancestor

b)

Convergent evolution to similar niches

c)

Human introduction to the region

d)

Identical reproductive anatomy

66.

Which animal listed is an insectivorous marsupial analogous to an anteater?

a)

Spotted cuscus

b)

Numbat (anteater)

c)

Bobcat

d)

Marsupial mouse

67.

Which statement about lemur and spotted cuscus sharing habitat is most accurate?

a)

They share habitat due to genetic drift

b)

They share habitat due to hybrid speciation

c)

They share habitat due to convergent evolution

d)

They share habitat due to correlated evolution

68.

Animal husbandry and plant breeding programmes are examples of

a)

reverse evolution

b)

natural selection

c)

artificial selection

d)

mutation

69.

DDT resistance in mosquito is an example of

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

d)

no selection

70.

Darwin’s finches are an excellent example of

a)

both (a) and (b)

b)

divergent evolution

c)

adaptive selection

d)

connecting links

71.

Identify the correct type of evolution exhibited by the two animals shown, living in the same habitat in Australia.

a)

convergent evolution

b)

divergent evolution

c)

disruptive selection

d)

homologous ancestry

72.

At which stage during evolution did humans use hides to protect their bodies and bury their dead?

a)

Homo habilis

b)

Neanderthal man

c)

Homo erectus

d)

Java man

73.

Assertion (A): Sediments of different aged rocks contain fossils and different life forms. Reason (R): The age of fossils is estimated by radiocarbon dating.

a)

A is wrong but R is correct

b)

A is correct but R is wrong

c)

Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A

d)

Both A and R are correct and R explains A

74.

Assertion (A): Pasteur’s experiment supported the theory of abiogenesis. Reason (R): Theory of abiogenesis states that first form of life arose from non-living molecules.

a)

A is wrong but R is correct

b)

Both A and R are correct and R explains A

c)

Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A

d)

A is correct but R is wrong

75.

Assertion (A): Darwin’s finches show adaptive radiation. Reason (R): All finches arose from common ancestral seed-eating stock and underwent adaptive changes.

a)

Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A

b)

Both A and R are correct and R explains A

c)

A is wrong but R is correct

d)

A is correct but R is wrong

76.

Observe the picture. Name the naturalist and state the explanation he gave for how evolution of giraffe forms occurred in this example.

a)

Darwin, natural selection acts on neck length

b)

Lamarck, inheritance of acquired longer neck

c)

Mendel, segregation of neck length alleles

d)

Wallace, random drift changing neck length

77.

Which selection pattern most likely maintains intermediate phenotypes and reduces extremes in a stable environment?

a)

balancing mutation

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

directional selection

d)

disruptive selection

78.

Which hypothesis did S.L. Miller aim to test using his experimental apparatus with electrodes, gases, and boiling water?

a)

RNA world self‑replicating ribozymes

b)

Panspermia arrival of life from comets

c)

Endosymbiotic origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts

d)

Primordial soup origin of organic molecules

79.

Meteorite analysis supports which idea about the origin of life molecules?

a)

Exclusive synthesis only in deep‑sea vents

b)

Immediate formation of DNA double helix

c)

Extraterrestrial delivery of organic compounds

d)

Direct emergence of complex cells

80.

In the snake population diagram, brown snakes are dominant (A) and grey snakes recessive (a). If recessive phenotype frequency q2q^2 is 9%, what is the approximate frequency of heterozygotes?

a)

About 54 percent of the population

b)

About 45 percent of the population

c)

About 9 percent of the population

d)

About 30 percent of the population

81.

Using the same snake scenario where q2=0.09q^2=0.09 , what is the approximate frequency of homozygous dominant individuals?

a)

About 64 percent of individuals

b)

About 27 percent of individuals

c)

About 36 percent of individuals

d)

About 51 percent of individuals

82.

Which evolutionary mechanism best explains the change from population‑one to population‑two after bird migration in the snake diagram?

a)

Nonrandom mating among grey snakes

b)

Natural selection by predation pressure

c)

Genetic drift due to small sample size

d)

Mutation increasing recessive allele rate

83.

Among skulls labeled A, B, and C, which two are more similar to each other in overall morphology?

a)

A and C show closest similarity

b)

B and C show closest similarity

c)

None of the three are similar

d)

A and B show closest similarity

84.

Name the primate type that existed around 1.5 million years ago and is man‑like in features.

a)

Homo erectus with upright gait

b)

Homo habilis tool‑maker early

c)

Australopithecus robustus form

d)

Neanderthal late European type

85.

According to Hugo de Vries, what primarily causes speciation?

a)

Hybridization between close species

b)

Geographic isolation of populations

c)

Gradual selection over many generations

d)

Sudden mutations producing new forms

86.

Why is Archaeopteryx significant in studies of organic evolution?

a)

It is a transitional fossil showing reptile‑bird traits

b)

It documents origin of flowering plants

c)

It demonstrates modern mammal diversification

d)

It proves convergent evolution in insects

87.

Why are coelacanth lobefins considered highly significant to evolutionary biologists?

a)

They demonstrate recent rapid speciation

b)

They evolved wings from forelimbs

c)

They show direct mammalian ancestry

d)

They represent living fossils with lobed fins

88.

Darwin’s finches are a classic example of which evolutionary pattern?

a)

Adaptive radiation producing diverse niches

b)

Stabilizing selection maintaining mean trait

c)

Parallel evolution in unrelated groups

d)

Directional selection toward larger beaks

89.

Which statement correctly defines fossils and one way they support biological evolution?

a)

Recent bones; show rapid seasonal shifts

b)

Preserved remains; document chronological changes

c)

Living specimens; demonstrate present biodiversity

d)

Mineral crystals; reveal genetic mutations directly

90.

In Miller’s apparatus, what was the function of the condenser connected above the spark chamber?

a)

Trap liquid water containing products

b)

Introduce gases from the vacuum pump

c)

Generate high‑voltage electrical sparks

d)

Cool vapors to form water droplets

91.

Which pair of statements is correct regarding ecological interactions and plant chemicals?

a)

(ii) and (iv)

b)

(i) and (iii)

c)

(iii) and (iv)

d)

(i) and (ii)

92.

Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called

a)

standing crop

b)

detritus

c)

humus

d)

standing state

93.

Identify the possible link “A” in the food chain: Plant → insect → frog → “A” → eagle

a)

wolf

b)

parrot

c)

rabbit

d)

cobra

94.

Which one is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?

a)

Stratification

b)

Productivity

c)

Decomposition

d)

Energy flow

95.

The upright pyramid of number is absent in

a)

lake

b)

pond

c)

both (a) and (b)

d)

grassland

96.

The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in grassland is called

a)

secondary productivity

b)

net productivity

c)

gross primary productivity

d)

net primary productivity

97.

Decomposers like fungi and bacteria are

a)

autotrophs

b)

heterotrophs

c)

saprotrophs

d)

chemo-autotrophs

98.

Mineralisation by microorganisms helps in release of

a)

inorganic nutrients from humus

b)

both organic and inorganic nutrients

c)

organic nutrients from humus

d)

inorganic nutrients from detritus

99.

Productivity is rate of biomass production expressed as

a)

kcal m⁻³ yr⁻¹

b)

g m⁻² yr⁻¹

c)

kcal m⁻² yr⁻¹

d)

g⁻¹ yr⁻¹

100.

An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in

a)

Grassland

b)

Marine

c)

Forest

d)

Tundra

101.

Pyramid of numbers is

a)

neither upright nor inverted

b)

either upright or inverted

c)

always inverted

d)

always upright

102.

About 10% of energy passing from one trophic level to another is

a)

respired and becomes heat

b)

passed out as faces or urine

c)

stored as body tissue

d)

recycled to autotrophs

103.

If carbon fixed by producers has passed through three species, the last species’ trophic level would be

a)

tertiary producer

b)

tertiary consumer

c)

scavenger

d)

secondary consumer

104.

Humans benefit from ecosystems because ecosystems provide

a)
b)
c)

maintenance of a clean water supply

d)

buffers from natural disasters such as floods

105.

Which ecosystem type is most likely where evaporation exceeds precipitation and mean annual rainfall is below 100 mm?

a)

Shrubby forest with dense canopy

b)

Mangrove with saline wetlands

c)

Desert with arid conditions

d)

Grassland with sparse trees

106.

The zone at a lake or ocean edge that is alternately exposed to air and immersed in water is called:

a)

Benthic zone on the bottom

b)

Pelagic zone in open waters

c)

Littoral zone near the shore

d)

Lentic zone in still waters

107.

Edaphic factor primarily refers to:

a)

Altitude influencing climate

b)

Water availability in habitats

c)

Soil characteristics in ecosystems

d)

Relative humidity of air

108.

Assertion: Some aquatic ecosystems have inverted biomass pyramids. Reason: More energy is required by organisms at higher trophic levels.

a)

Both statements true; reason correctly explains

b)

Both statements true; reason does not explain

c)

Assertion false; reason true

d)

Assertion true; reason false

109.

Assertion: A network of food chains existing together is a food web. Reason: An animal like a kite cannot be part of a food web.

a)

Both statements true; reason correctly explains

b)

Assertion false; reason true

c)

Both statements true; reason does not explain

d)

Assertion true; reason false

110.

Assertion: In a food chain, members of successive trophic levels are fewer. Reason: Organism numbers at any trophic level are independent of food availability at lower levels.

a)

Both statements true; reason correctly explains

b)

Both statements true; reason does not explain

c)

Assertion true; reason false

d)

Assertion false; reason true

111.

Assertion: Vertical distribution of different species at different levels is called stratification. Reason: Trees occupy top strata, shrubs the second, herbs and grasses the bottom layers.

a)

Assertion false; reason true

b)

Both statements true; reason correctly explains

c)

Assertion true; reason false

d)

Both statements true; reason does not explain

112.

Assertion: Pyramid of energy is always upright. Reason: Energy is lost as heat at each step when flowing to the next trophic level.

a)

Both statements true; reason correctly explains

b)

Assertion true; reason false

c)

Both statements true; reason does not explain

d)

Assertion false; reason true

113.

Assertion: Decomposers feed on detritus, derived from all levels. Reason: At each level of energy flow in the food web, energy is lost to respiration.

a)

Both statements true; reason correctly explains

b)

Assertion false; reason true

c)

Both statements true; reason does not explain

d)

Assertion true; reason false

114.

Assertion: In terrestrial ecosystems, detritus food chain is the major conduit for energy flow. Reason: Solar energy is the direct energy source in a detritus food chain.

a)

Both statements true; reason correctly explains

b)

Assertion true; reason false

c)

Assertion false; reason true

d)

Both statements true; reason does not explain

115.

Which term best describes an organism’s specific position in a food chain where it performs a functional role?

a)

Population within its habitat

b)

Guild of interacting consumers

c)

Niche within community dynamics

d)

Trophic level in the food chain

116.

What is the typical direction of energy transfer in a linear food chain?

a)

Cyclic among decomposers only

b)

Unidirectional from producers upward

c)

Bidirectional between all levels

d)

From consumers to producers

117.

Which principle states that only about 10% of energy is transferred to the next trophic level?

a)

Lotka–Volterra energy law

b)

Law of limiting factors

c)

Lindeman’s ten percent law

d)

Gause’s competitive exclusion rule

118.

Why do most food chains contain only about four or five trophic levels?

a)

Predators cap population sizes

b)

Energy loss limits transfer upward

c)

Nutrient cycles stop at consumers

d)

Producers outcompete higher carnivores

119.

In an ecological pyramid of biomass for phytoplankton → zooplankton → small fish → large fish, which shape is most likely?

a)

Flat because biomass is constant

b)

Diamond with peak at zooplankton

c)

Upright with decreasing biomass upward

d)

Inverted due to producer biomass low

120.

Given producer biomass 4 kg/m² and zooplankton biomass 11 kg/m², what does this indicate about aquatic biomass pyramids?

a)

They are always upright in water

b)

They can be inverted at lower levels

c)

They cannot exceed producer biomass

d)

They equalize across all trophic levels

121.

If only 10% of energy passes to the next trophic level, what percent is typically lost due to respiration and other activities?

a)

About ten percent lost

b)

About fifty percent lost

c)

About one percent lost

d)

About ninety percent lost

122.

Which statement best explains stability in ecosystems with interacting biotic and abiotic components?

a)

Stability arises solely from abiotic cycles

b)

Interactions through food chains support stability

c)

Energy input is independent of producers

d)

Predation alone ensures system stability

123.

Choose the correct sequence of trophic levels for the provided aquatic example.

a)

Large fish → small fish → zooplankton → phytoplankton

b)

Phytoplankton → zooplankton → small fish → large fish

c)

Zooplankton → phytoplankton → small fish → large fish

d)

Phytoplankton → small fish → zooplankton → large fish

124.

Which outcome would most likely occur if a food chain had more than five trophic levels?

a)

Energy transfer would be 100 percent

b)

Producers would increase indefinitely

c)

Residual energy would be insufficient

d)

Decomposers would disappear from system

125.

Which of the following is not a producer?

a)

Spirogyra

b)

Nostoc

c)

Agaricus

d)

Volvox

126.

Among the following, where would the process of decomposition be the fastest?

a)

Tropical rain forest

b)

Antarctic

c)

Alpine region

d)

Dry arid region

127.

How much of the net primary productivity of a terrestrial ecosystem is eaten and digested by herbivores?

a)

1%

b)

90%

c)

10%

d)

40%

128.

Increased concentration of DDT in fish-eating birds is due to

a)

cultural eutrophication

b)

bio-magnification

c)

accelerated eutrophication

d)

eutrophication

129.

Assertion (A): Energy always flows from the Sun to producers. Reason (R): No energy that is trapped into an organism remains in it forever. Choose the correct option.

a)

Both A and R are correct and R explains A

b)

Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A

c)

A is correct but R is wrong

d)

A is wrong but R is correct

130.

Assertion (A): Decomposition process is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and cutin. Reason (R): Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process. Choose the correct option.

a)

Both A and R are correct and R explains A

b)

Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A

c)

A is correct but R is wrong

d)

A is wrong but R is correct

131.

Which factor primarily affects the rate of decomposition in a terrestrial ecosystem?

a)

Availability of nitrates only

b)

Nature of detritus and temperature

c)

Amount of solar radiation

d)

Presence of large herbivores

132.

Humus formed during decomposition has which important feature?

a)

Short-lived and transparent layer

b)

Highly stable and dark material

c)

Purely inorganic crystalline compound

d)

Bright colored and volatile fraction

133.

What is the key difference between grazing food chain and detritus food chain?

a)

Uses carnivores versus omnivores

b)

Starts with producers versus detritus

c)

Includes parasites versus decomposers

d)

Operates in oceans versus forests

134.

In Sweden’s age pyramid, what pattern best describes the distribution?

a)

Broad base with high birth rate

b)

Top-heavy with extremely old population

c)

Near-rectangular with low birth rate

d)

Highly skewed male-to-female ratio

135.

In Rwanda’s age pyramid, which feature indicates population growth trend?

a)

Wider top than middle

b)

Uniform width across ages

c)

Equal percentages in elderly groups

d)

Broad base and narrow top

136.

Comparing Sweden and Rwanda, which statement about population structure is most accurate?

a)

Sweden has higher infant percentage than Rwanda

b)

Both show declining growth with narrow bases

c)

Rwanda shows aging population like Sweden

d)

Sweden shows stable growth; Rwanda shows rapid growth

137.

Which age group in Sweden has approximately 3.6% for males and 3.6% for females?

a)

35–39 years

b)

45–49 years

c)

25–29 years

d)

15–19 years

138.

Which term refers to the rate at which biomass is produced by autotrophs in an ecosystem?

a)

Tertiary trophic transfer rate

b)

Secondary consumer assimilation rate

c)

Net ecosystem respiration rate

d)

Gross primary productivity rate

139.

Which unit is most appropriate for expressing primary productivity over time?

a)

mL L−1 min−1

b)

kJ m−2 yr−1

c)

g mL−1 day−1

d)

m s−2 month−1

140.

According to the 10% law, what fraction of energy is typically transferred from one trophic level to the next?

a)

About one-tenth of the energy

b)

About one-half of the energy

c)

About one-fourth of the energy

d)

About nine-tenths of the energy

141.

Why can an ecological pyramid based on numbers be misleading for a food web?

a)

It cannot show trophic levels

b)

It always overcounts producers

c)

It ignores energy units

d)

It ignores biomass differences

142.

Which statement best explains low primary productivity in an arid region compared to a tropical region?

a)

Stronger winds always increase respiration

b)

Greater soil nitrogen always reduces growth

c)

Higher herbivore density reduces producers

d)

Lower water availability limits photosynthesis

143.

A broad base in an age pyramid of a population indicates what demographic trend?

a)

Low birth rate and stable size

b)

Balanced immigration and emigration

c)

High birth rate and rapid growth

d)

High death rate in older ages

144.

Which trophic level directly consumes primary producers?

a)

Quaternary consumers

b)

Tertiary consumers

c)

Secondary consumers

d)

Primary consumers

145.

Which organisms commonly occupy more than one trophic level in an ecosystem?

a)

Omnivores feeding on plants and animals

b)

Obligate carnivores feeding on deer

c)

Detritivores feeding on leaf litter

d)

Strict herbivores feeding on grasses

146.

Earthworms, mushrooms, soil mites, and dung beetles share which ecological role?

a)

Detritus processing and decomposition

b)

Obligate parasitism on producers

c)

Primary production via photosynthesis

d)

Top predation on tertiary consumers

147.

In the diagram, DDT concentration increases from water to fish-eating birds. What term best describes this increase across trophic levels?

a)

Bioaccumulation only within producers

b)

Biological dilution through food chains

c)

Biological magnification across trophic levels

d)

Biodegradation by top consumers

148.

Which process most directly causes higher DDT levels in fish-eating birds than in large fish?

a)

More rapid metabolic breakdown of DDT

b)

Lower lipid storage in birds

c)

Consumption of many contaminated prey items

d)

Direct absorption of DDT from water

149.

What is the most likely physiological effect on fish-eating birds exposed to 25 ppm DDT?

a)

Accelerated growth and larger body size

b)

Eggshell thinning and reproductive failure

c)

Enhanced immune resistance to pathogens

d)

Improved thermoregulation in cold climates

150.

Identify the correct trophic sequence shown in the diagram from I to V.

a)

Water → zooplankton → small fish → large fish → fish-eating birds

b)

Water → small fish → zooplankton → large fish → fish-eating birds

c)

Water → zooplankton → large fish → small fish → fish-eating birds

d)

Water → fish-eating birds → large fish → small fish → zooplankton