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WorksheetsOral Pathology Hesi Remediation #2
Total questions: 149
Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins
Which condition is not diagnosed through clinical appearance?
Compound odontoma
Black hairy tongue
Fordyce granules
Mandibular tori
Which condition is diagnosed through clinical appearance?
Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
Unerupted mesiodens
Traumatic bone cyst
Fordyce granules
Retrocuspid papillae are located on the
floor of the mouth
gingival margin of the lingual aspect of mandibular cuspids
palate
canine eminence
A lesion with a stemlike base is described as
macular
pedunculated
sessile
Which papillae are elongated in the condition known as black hairy tongue?
Fungiform papillae elongation
Filiform papillae elongation
Foliate papillae elongation
Circumvallate papillae elongation
When exudate formation is excessive, a drainage tract through injured tissue is often termed what?
leukocytosis response
emigration process
a fistula formation
erythema reaction
Neutrophils constitute what approximate percentage of the entire white blood cell population?
90 percent total
5 percent total
20 percent total
65 percent total
Excessive scarring in skin is termed what?
a hematoma mass
tertiary intention healing
primary intention healing
a keloid lesion
Aspirin burn on the oral mucosa is most commonly caused by what action?
Ingesting too many tablets
Surrounding mucosa becomes necrotic
Placing aspirin on the tooth
The burn is painless overall
Which statement best describes leukocytosis in clinical contexts?
Migration out of vessels
Formation of a tissue tract
Localized redness only
Elevated white cell count
Which term best matches the outward movement of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissues during inflammation?
Keloid formation
Fistula creation
Erythema change
Diapedesis process
Which tongue papillae primarily function in mechanical processing rather than taste perception?
Filiform papillae
Fungiform papillae
Foliate papillae
Circumvallate papillae
What clinical feature most directly indicates tissue necrosis following topical aspirin application?
Rapid leukocytosis surge
Immediate fistula formation
Surface sloughing white layer
Pain is completely absent
Which healing pathway minimizes scar formation by closing clean wounds promptly?
Keloid-prone route
Tertiary intention route
Primary intention route
Secondary intention route
During the acute inflammatory process, the second type of white blood cell to emigrate from the blood vessel into the injured tissue is termed
macrophage
neutrophil
plasma cell
lymphocyte
The breakdown of cellular adhesion between epithelial cells is termed
cell-mediated immunity
Nikolsky sign
acantholysis
anaphylaxis
In which type of immune response do B-lymphocytes and antibodies play the predominant role?
Passive immunity
Humoral immunity
Immune complex
Cell-mediated immunity
Which is an example of type I hypersensitivity?
Immune complexes formed between microorganisms and antibody in the circulating blood
Asthma
Serum sickness
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
A prodromal period begins
1 to 2 days before the onset of ulcers
1 week before the onset of ulcers
the day the ulcers erupt
Sjögren syndrome is best described as a(n) ______.
form of aphthous ulcers in the mouth
autoimmune disease affecting salivary and lacrimal glands
type of Langerhans cell disease variant
allergic reaction to environmental antigens
Treatment for pemphigus vulgaris primarily involves ______.
long-term antiviral drug regimen
broad-spectrum antibiotics course
regular antihistamine therapy
high doses of systemic corticosteroids
Diagnosing Behçet syndrome generally requires which consideration?
Two of the three principal manifestations
The presence of all three manifestations
A biopsy of an oral ulcer only
A history of pemphigus vulgaris
A condition with explosive onset featuring target (bull's eye) skin lesions and mucosal ulcerations of the lips, buccal mucosa, and tongue that may be ulcerated, encrusted, and bloody most likely indicates ______.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Contact dermatitis
Lichen planus
Erythema multiforme
For aphthous ulcers, diagnosis is based on distinctive clinical appearance, lesion location, and ______.
serologic autoantibody panel
response to antibiotics
patient history
patch test results
A prodromal period of 7 to 10 days most closely precedes the eruption of which lesions?
Erythema multiforme targets
Lichen planus plaques
Aphthous ulcers
Herpetic vesicles
Which statement best differentiates erythema multiforme lesions on the skin?
Target, iris, or bull's eye appearance
Uniform annular erythematous rings
Scaly plaques with Wickham striae
Nonulcerated maculopapular patches
Which pair correctly matches disorder and primary therapy?
Lichen planus — high-dose steroids
Behçet syndrome — antivirals
Sjögren syndrome — antibiotics
Pemphigus vulgaris — systemic corticosteroids
Which finding increases suspicion for Behçet syndrome during clinical evaluation?
Exclusive salivary gland enlargement
Isolated contact dermatitis on hands
Single traumatic ulcer without eye signs
Recurrent oral ulcers with ocular involvement
Which feature is least consistent with erythema multiforme involving mucosa?
Encrusted, bloody lesions on the lips
Diffuse pruritic scaling without ulcers
Ulcerations on the tongue
Superficial ulcerations on buccal mucosa
Which condition is associated with scarlet fever?
Strawberry tongue
Scrofula
Median rhomboid glossitis
Black hairy tongue
The most common sites for oral lesions in tuberculosis are the
floor and mucobuccal folds
uvula and faucial pillars
gingiva and lips
tongue and palate
Which statement is not true about syphilis?
Dark-field exam can diagnose skin lesions
Penicillin is standard treatment
VDRL and FTA-ABS confirm diagnosis
Antibody titer rises after successful therapy
Which condition does not contribute to the overgrowth of Candida albicans?
Dentures
Angioedema
Antibiotic therapy
Cancer chemotherapy
The varicella-zoster virus causes a highly contagious disease in children termed
herpangina
chickenpox
shingles
hand-foot-and-mouth
Select the diagnostic test commonly used to confirm syphilis infection.
Throat culture
VDRL with FTA-ABS
Complete blood count
Tuberculin skin test
Identify the oral site least likely to show tuberculosis lesions.
Uvula
Gingiva
Palate
Tongue
Which oral condition presents as an elongated, darkly pigmented lingual filiform papillae?
Geographic tongue
Strawberry tongue
Median rhomboid glossitis
Black hairy tongue
Which factor most predisposes to candidal overgrowth by altering normal flora?
Fluoride use
Mouth breathing
Antibiotic therapy
Topical steroids
Which clinical feature characterizes scarlet fever in the oral cavity?
Purulent gingival exudate
Vesicular lip lesions
Strawberry-appearing tongue
Median rhomboid plaque
Herpangina is caused by which virus?
Varicella–zoster virus
Epstein–Barr virus
Coxsackievirus
Herpes simplex virus
In HIV infection, which test measures viral titer rather than circulating antibody?
Western blot
ELISA
VDRL
PCR
In herpes labialis, the viral load is highest during which stage?
Healing stage
Crusted stage
Prodromal stage
Vesicle stage
Unilateral vesicles along a sensory nerve distribution in an adult most suggest
Minor aphthous ulcers
Varicella–zoster or chickenpox
Herpes zoster or shingles
Recurrent intraoral herpes simplex
Which diagnostic assay is primarily an antibody detection test for HIV?
Western blot
VDRL
PCR
ELISA
A patient presents with fever and oral vesicles localized to the soft palate and tonsillar pillars. Which pathogen is the most likely cause?
Herpes simplex type 2 infection
Coxsackievirus infection
Varicella–zoster reactivation
Epstein–Barr virus infection
During which phase of a cold sore is transmission risk greatest due to peak viral shedding?
Resolution phase
Vesicular phase
Scabbing phase
Prodromal phase
Which condition typically presents bilaterally with diffuse lesions rather than unilateral dermatomal vesicles?
Herpangina
Aphthous ulcers
Chickenpox (varicella)
Herpes zoster
Which test is confirmatory for HIV by detecting specific viral proteins?
PCR
ELISA
VDRL
Western blot
Minor aphthous ulcers are best distinguished from herpetic lesions by which feature?
Keratotic rim around vesicles
Dermatomal unilateral distribution
Occurrence on keratinized mucosa
Shallow ulcers without vesicle stage
The lesions seen in this illustration most commonly appear in patients with HIV. What is the clinical diagnosis?
Aphthous ulcer
Candidiasis
Lymphoma
Kaposi sarcoma
Which form of candidiasis is most asymptomatic?
Pseudomembranous
Angular cheilitis
Erythematous
Chronic atrophic candidiasis
An erythematous, often rhombus-shaped, flat-to-raised area on the midline of the posterior dorsal tongue describes
hairy leukoplakia.
geographic tongue.
median rhomboid glossitis.
recurrent herpes simplex infection.
Why is hairy leukoplakia a significant clinical finding in persons with HIV disease?
Its presence suggests poor oral hygiene
It is considered a predictor of the development of AIDS
Hairy leukoplakia may affect the function of the taste buds
It may represent a malignancy of the tongue
Intraoral lesions of Kaposi sarcoma are most often found in which two sites?
Palate and gingiva
Uvula and posterior third of the tongue
Gingiva and floor of the mouth
Labial mucosa and interdental papilla
Which epithelium-lined tract represents a developmental anomaly located at the commissures of the mouth?
Congenital lip pit
Fistula
Angular cheilitis
Commissural lip pit
The most common cyst in the oral cavity is caused by pulpal inflammation. What is it called?
Primordial cyst
Radicular cyst
Eruption cyst
Dentigerous cyst
Radiographically, which radiolucent cyst is often heart shaped due to the anatomic Y-shaped area?
Globulomaxillary cyst
Nasopalatine canal cyst
Median palatine cyst
Nasolabial cyst
Which pseudocyst filled with salivary gland tissue may be an extension of the sublingual gland?
Globulomaxillary cyst
Ranula
Static bone cyst
Lymphoepithelial cyst
Identify the lesion type most associated with immunocompromised states and vascular proliferation in the oral cavity.
Hemangioma
Peripheral ossifying fibroma
Kaposi sarcoma
Pyogenic granuloma
Which anatomical location is classically related to a nasopalatine canal cyst appearance on radiographs?
Between maxillary lateral and canine roots
Within mandibular body near premolars
Floor of mouth anterior to sublingual caruncle
Midline of the palate near incisive foramen
A swelling in the floor of the mouth that transilluminates and is associated with mucus extravasation is most consistent with which diagnosis?
Thyroglossal duct cyst
Branchial cleft cyst
Dermoid cyst
Ranula
Which cyst arises from inflammatory stimulation of epithelial rests of Malassez at the apex of a nonvital tooth?
Primordial cyst
Residual cyst
Dentigerous cyst
Radicular cyst
Which developmental pit occurs at the lip commissure and may present as a small depression or tract?
Angular cheilitis lesion
Paramedian lip pit
Median palatal pit
Commissural lip pit
The most common supernumerary tooth is termed
distomolar.
mesiodens.
mulberry molar.
Turner tooth.
Dens in dente is a developmental anomaly often seen with
supernumerary roots.
extra cusps.
a periapical lesion.
tuberculated premolars.
Which defines a disturbance of the maturation of the enamel matrix?
Enamel hypocalcification
Premature birth
Mulberry molar
Turner tooth
Regional odontodysplasia is also referred to as
supernumerary teeth.
taurodontism.
ghost teeth.
hypodontia.
Which term best describes a disorder caused by abnormalities in the genetic makeup transmitted from parent to offspring?
Anomaly
Inherited
Odontogenic keratocysts are a clinical component of which syndrome?
Gardner syndrome association
nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome
neurofibromatosis of von Recklinghausen
cherubism syndrome presentation
Primitive germ cells have how many chromosomes and are termed what?
46; diploid
23; haploid
46; haploid
23; diploid
Most cases of Down syndrome are associated with which maternal factor?
estrogen supplement exposure
late maternal age at conception
inhalation of volatile vapors
maternal consumption of alcohol
Patients with Turner syndrome typically have which phenotype and how many chromosomes?
male; 47
female; 46
female; 45
male; 44
Cyclic neutropenia is characterized by what clinical course?
episodes generally persisting for 21 to 27 days
severe ulcerative gingivitis or gingivostomatitis
lifelong remission after early childhood
constant neutrophil elevation without cycles
Which statement best distinguishes diploid from haploid human cells?
haploid cells carry 22 autosomes only
diploid cells carry 46 chromosomes total
haploid cells carry 46 chromosomes total
diploid cells carry 23 chromosomes total
Which etiologic misconception about Down syndrome should be corrected?
it mainly results from estrogen supplement exposure
it mainly results from maternal alcohol consumption
it primarily results from trisomy due to maternal age
it mainly results from inhalation of volatile vapors
Turner syndrome most commonly involves which chromosomal change?
trisomy of sex chromosomes
triploidy across all chromosomes
monosomy X karyotype 45,X
deletion of chromosome 21
Which oral manifestation can accompany cyclic neutropenia during episodes?
constant aphthous ulcers between cycles
severe ulcerative gingivitis or gingivostomatitis
enamel hypocalcification without inflammation
painless mucosal hyperplasia without ulcers
Cherubism is best categorized as which type of condition listed?
congenital developmental anomaly
acquired infectious disease
autoimmune endocrine disorder
environmental toxic exposure
Cherubism is best described by which inheritance and penetrance pattern?
Mitochondrial inheritance with uniform penetrance
Autosomal-dominant with marked female penetrance
Autosomal-recessive with complete male penetrance
X-linked dominant with variable penetrance
Which craniofacial region is most frequently involved in cherubism?
Mandible involvement predominates
Zygomatic bone predominates
Frontal bone predominates
Maxilla involvement predominates
Radiographs of cherubism typically show what pattern?
Soap-bubble multilocular appearance
Ground-glass monolocular opacity
Sunburst periosteal reaction
Punched-out unilocular defects
Which facial presentation aligns with cherubism?
Isolated orbital rim thickening typical
Midline nasal collapse typical
Bilateral symmetric swelling typical
Unilateral facial deformity typical
Ellis–van Creveld syndrome most likely presents with which limb finding?
Polydactyly on radial forearm side
Syndactyly on ulnar forearm side
Absent thumb on radial side
Hyperextension of wrist joints
Which oral vestibular feature is absent in Ellis–van Creveld syndrome?
Posterior mandibular vestibular sulcus absent
Buccal maxillary vestibule absent
Anterior maxillary vestibular sulcus absent
Labial mandibular vestibule absent
In hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia, oral telangiectasias are especially prominent at which site?
Buccal mucosa near commissure
Attached gingiva around molars
Hard and soft palate surfaces
Tip and anterior dorsum of tongue
Multiple melanotic macular pigmentations of skin and mucosa with gastrointestinal polyposis characterize which syndrome?
Carney complex type 2
Gardner syndrome variant
Peutz–Jeghers syndrome
Osler–Rendu–Parkes Weber syndrome
A chromosomal deletion on the long arm of chromosome 11 regions 14–21 is most consistent with which inheritance?
Autosomal recessive inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance
Autosomal dominant inheritance
Mitochondrial inheritance
Which vascular condition corresponds to mucosal telangiectasias and epistaxis risk?
Osler–Rendu–Parkes Weber syndrome
Ehlers–Danlos type IV
Peutz–Jeghers syndrome
Marfan vascular variant
Snow-capped amelogenesis imperfecta is a variation of type ____ amelogenesis imperfecta.
hypoplastic–hypomaturation
hypomaturation
hypocalcified
hypoplastic
Frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, protuberant lips, and near absence of scalp hair are most characteristic of which condition?
Hypophosphatemic vitamin D–resistant rickets
Hypophosphatasia
Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
Dentin dysplasia
A benign tumor of bone is best termed a(n) ____.
osteogenic sarcoma
carcinoma
osteoma
chondroma
A papilloma is a ____ tumor derived from ____ epithelium.
malignant; odontogenic
benign; salivary gland
malignant; squamous
benign; squamous
Which syndrome name appears alongside Van der Woude syndrome in the list?
Ehlers–Danlos syndrome
Marfan syndrome
Gorlin syndrome
Turner syndrome
Which listed condition is a malignant bone tumor?
osteogenic sarcoma
osteoma
chondroma
papilloma
Which option pairs a tumor type with a tissue of origin that does NOT match a papilloma?
benign; salivary gland
benign; squamous
malignant; squamous
malignant; odontogenic
Which dental condition listed is primarily a disorder of dentin formation?
Gorlin syndrome
Hypophosphatasia
Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
Dentin dysplasia
Which metabolic or mineralization disorder is associated with low alkaline phosphatase activity?
Hypophosphatasia
Osteogenic sarcoma
Hypophosphatemic vitamin D–resistant rickets
Hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
Which craniofacial feature combination would most strongly suggest ectodermal dysplasia?
Proptosis with midface hypoplasia
Frontal bossing with depressed nasal bridge
Mandibular prognathism with microtia
Cleft palate with macroglossia
Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral epithelium usually metastasizes first to which site?
Lymph nodes
Liver
Lungs
Spleen
“Keratin pearls” are a characteristic feature of
squamous cell carcinoma.
monomorphic adenoma.
pleomorphic adenoma.
basal cell carcinoma.
Basal cell carcinoma is a ____ tumor that ____ in the oral cavity.
malignant; does not occur
benign; does not occur
malignant; occurs
benign; occurs
Which is the most common salivary gland neoplasm?
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Monomorphic adenoma
Pleomorphic adenoma
Which is the most common malignant salivary gland tumor found in children?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Which statement about ameloblastoma is correct?
May cause expansion of bone
Is commonly known as a Pindborg tumor
Is a benign, encapsulated tumor
Occurs exclusively in the mandible
Ghost cells are characteristic of which lesion?
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
Ameloblastoma
Calcifying odontogenic cyst
Which description best matches a compound odontoma?
Usually occurs in the posterior mandible
Appears as radiolucent mass surrounded by thin radiopaque halo
Mass of enamel, dentin, cementum, and pulp not resembling a normal tooth
Radiograph shows cluster of miniature teeth with radiolucent halo
The central cemento-ossifying fibroma is most likely derived from which cells?
Cells of the periodontal ligament
Osteoblasts
Odontoblasts
Ameloblasts
Which statement about lipoma is correct?
Is a benign tumor of adipose tissue
Is a tumor of peripheral nerve tissue
Is a malignant tumor of skeletal muscle
Is commonly encapsulated by enamel-like tissue
Which lesion is referred to as Pindborg tumor?
Ameloblastoma
Pleomorphic adenoma
Monomorphic adenoma
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
Which tumor type is most associated with salivary glands and shows mixed cellular morphology?
Ameloblastoma
Lipoma
Pleomorphic adenoma
Monomorphic adenoma
Which feature would argue against a benign encapsulated tumor diagnosis for ameloblastoma?
Slow growth pattern
Origin from salivary gland tissue
Encapsulation by a fibrous capsule
Tendency to cause bone expansion
In radiographic evaluation, which finding supports diagnosing a compound odontoma?
Multilocular radiolucency with soap-bubble appearance
Diffuse radiopacity without defined borders
Cluster of small tooth-like structures with radiolucent halo
Single radiolucent area with thin radiopaque rim
Which cell type primarily forms dentin and is therefore not the origin of central cemento-ossifying fibroma?
Periodontal ligament fibroblasts
Odontoblasts
Osteoblasts
Ameloblasts
Which statement about hemangiomas is true?
They may occur in adults after trauma as abnormal vessel proliferation
They are more common in boys than in girls
The gingiva is the most common intraoral location
They appear as deep red or blue lesions that do not blanch
Kaposi sarcoma is
a malignant striated muscle tumor
caused by a human herpesvirus
seen only in association with HIV infection
most often seen intraorally on the tongue
Which statement about malignant melanoma is true?
The most common intraoral location is the tongue
Most cases arise from prolonged exposure to benzene
It has a benign counterpart called benign melanoma
Primary malignant melanoma of the oral cavity is rare
Which statement is true of periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia?
It is a neoplasm
The lesion is painful and often in the posterior maxilla
Teeth in the area are usually not vital
Older lesions are primarily radiopaque
Surgical treatment would most likely be recommended for a patient with ______ dysplasia.
focal cemento-osseous
florid cemento-osseous
periapical cemento-osseous
fibrous
A hemangioma typically appears clinically as
a bluish mass surfaced by thick keratin
a yellowish mass surfaced by thin epithelium
a firm white nodule with smooth surface
a papillary mass with ulcerated surface
Hemangiomas are found most commonly intraorally on the
hard palate
gingiva
tongue
buccal mucosa
Hemangiomas occur most often in
men over 60
girls over 15
women under 40
boys under 10
Kaposi sarcoma is best characterized as
an epithelial dysplasia of keratinocytes
a vascular neoplasm linked to HHV-8
a muscle tumor derived from myocytes
a granulomatous inflammatory process
In periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia, a common finding is
nonvital teeth adjacent to radiolucent lesions
vital teeth with evolving radiolucent-to-radiopaque changes
painful swelling with cortical perforation
lesions confined to the posterior maxilla
Which pattern best matches monostotic fibrous dysplasia in the maxillofacial region?
Typically diagnosed in middle-aged women
Commonly painless buccal plate bulging orally
Expanding lesion causing malocclusion or tooth displacement
Involves multiple bones in most cases
Paget disease of bone in the jaws most commonly shows which radiographic feature?
Cotton-wool appearance on radiographs
Ground-glass appearance throughout bone
Uniform lamellar bone radiodensity
Sunburst spiculations from cortex
Which statement about Paget disease of bone is accurate for clinical presentation?
Primarily affects only a single craniofacial bone
Consistently results in bone shrinkage
Often presents without pain symptoms
Typically occurs in children under 18 years
Numerous gritty pieces of soft and hard tissue containing fibrous connective tissue interspersed with bone trabeculae and cementum-like material are most characteristic of which condition?
Central cementifying fibroma
Ossifying fibroma
Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
Which description aligns with buccal plate changes observed orally in monostotic fibrous dysplasia?
Painful bulging of the buccal plate
Localized ulceration over buccal plate
Nonexpansile thinning of the buccal plate
Expansile swelling displacing adjacent teeth
Which variant names correspond to cemento-osseous dysplasia subtypes?
Periapical, focal, florid
Central, peripheral, florid
Monostotic, polyostotic, focal
Trabecular, cemental, combined
Giant cell granulomas located in gingiva or alveolar mucosa are termed what?
Ossifying fibromatous granulomas
Reactive hyperplastic granulomas
Peripheral giant cell granulomas
Central giant cell granulomas
Giant cell granulomas within the maxilla or mandible are classified as what type?
Peripheral lesions
Central lesions
Odontogenic stromal lesions
Reactive periodontal lesions
Which outcome is least consistent with Paget disease of bone affecting the jaws?
Shrinkage of affected bone volume
Involvement in adults rather than children
Cotton-wool radiographic appearance
Painless presentation in many cases
Which feature of the expanding lesion in fibrous dysplasia most directly impacts occlusion?
Induces malocclusion by tooth displacement
Leads to enamel hypoplasia patterns
Produces periodontal pocketing only
Causes tooth ankylosis without movement
“Ground glass” is the classic radiographic description of which condition?
Fibrous dysplasia
Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
Paget disease of bone
Osteomalacia
Which statement best differentiates periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia from florid cemento-osseous dysplasia?
Florid form involves multiple quadrants including posterior mandible
Periapical form affects only whites while florid affects all groups
Symptoms are uniformly painful in both conditions
Radiographic appearances are identical for both conditions
Which feature is NOT characteristic of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia?
Male predilection
Occurs in children under 10 years
Seen in association with skin lesions
Most cases are asymptomatic
Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia typically shows which demographic pattern?
Predominantly elderly patients
Equal across all ethnicities
Predominantly black females
Predominantly white males
Which region is commonly involved in florid cemento-osseous dysplasia?
Anterior maxilla only
Condyle and coronoid process only
Single periapical site in premolar area
Posterior mandible among multiple quadrants
What is a typical symptom profile for fibrous dysplasia?
Intermittent febrile episodes
Most patients asymptomatic
Neurologic deficits common
Frequently severe pain
Skin lesions classically associated with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia are best described as which finding?
Livedo reticularis
Targetoid lesions
Erythematous plaques
Café-au-lait macules
Paget disease of bone typically presents radiographically with which pattern?
Sunburst periosteal reaction
Cotton wool appearance in later stages
Moth-eaten lytic destruction
Uniform ground glass texture
Which statement about the pain spectrum in cemento-osseous dysplasia is accurate?
Pain occurs only with superimposed caries
Never associated with pain
Ranges from asymptomatic to painful
Always extremely painful
The most common cause of hyperpituitarism is which lesion?
Craniopharyngioma
Pituitary adenoma
Hypothalamic hamartoma
Meningioma of sella
The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is
hyperplasia of the thyroid gland tissue
benign and malignant thyroid tumors
pituitary gland disease affecting TSH
an autoimmune disorder targeting receptors
Which statement about type 1 diabetes is true?
It can present with polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia
Onset is gradual and occurs after age forty
About 30% of patients with diabetes have type 1
It is called non–insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
Pernicious anemia results from deficiency of intrinsic factor secreted by which cells?
beta cells of the pancreatic islets
parietal cells of the stomach mucosa
the gallbladder epithelial cells
the adrenal cortical cells
A megaloblastic anemia is characterized by red blood cells that are
hypochromic and macrocytic in appearance
hyperchromic and macrocytic in appearance
microcytic and have retained nuclei
macrocytic and have retained nuclei
Thalassemia is best described as
caused by folate deficiency impairing DNA
caused by an abnormal type of hemoglobin
caused by iron absorption defects in gut
caused by autoimmune destruction of RBCs
In type 1 diabetes, which pathophysiologic mechanism is primary?
Autoimmune destruction of beta cells
Peripheral resistance to insulin signaling
Excess hepatic glucose production
Mutations in insulin receptor gene
