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Fronts and Storms Study Guide (NS2 CHAPS 26–31)

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The area which has more tropical cyclones than any other place on earth is

a)

the North Pacific.

b)

the South Pacific.

c)

the southwestern part of the North Pacific.

d)

the southeastern part of the North Pacific.

2.

The second stage of a thunderstorm is called the ________.

a)

infant Stage

b)

immature Stage

c)

mature Stage

d)

adult Stage

3.

What is the best term for a tornado that forms over water?

a)

Stormspout

b)

Waterspout

c)

Dust devil

d)

Tornado

4.

Tropical cyclones that occur off the west coast of Australia are referred to as

a)

typhoons.

b)

baguios.

c)

hurricanes.

d)

willy-willies.

5.

In regard to ship maneuvering, what is the most dangerous area in a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

Right semicircle when in opposite direction to the storm movement.

b)

Left semicircle when in opposite direction to the storm movement.

c)

Right semicircle when in the same direction as the storm movement.

d)

Left semicircle when in same directions as the storm movement.

6.

What type of weather phenomenon usually occurs in the region near the equator where Trade Winds meet to form the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ICZ)?

a)

Tornadoes

b)

Typhoons

c)

Tsunamis

d)

Hurricanes

7.

What is the final stage of a thunderstorm called?

a)

Cumulus

b)

Altocumulus

c)

Mature

d)

Dissipating or anvil

8.

What is the maximum wind velocity in a typhoon?

a)

43 knots

b)

53 knots

c)

63 knots

d)

64 knots and up

9.

The source of lightning in thunderhead clouds is

a)

cold fronts.

b)

currents.

c)

electrical fuses.

d)

static electricity.

10.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the mature stage of the thunderstorm?

a)

Updraft of warm, moist air into the atmosphere

b)

Water vapor cools and condenses into cloud

c)

Updrafts and downdrafts within the storm producing cloud

d)

Downdrafts take place of updrafts, and spread out

11.

Tropical cyclones occurring east of the International Date Line in the Pacific or along the US east coast and the Gulf of Mexico are known as

a)

typhoons.

b)

hurricanes.

c)

baguios.

d)

impressions.

12.

What signal best describes the small craft warning?

a)

One red pennant displayed by day

b)

Two red pennants displayed by day

c)

A single square red flag with black center during daytime

d)

Two square red flag with black centers displayed by day

13.

Which of the following forms on the forward edge of a fully developed cumulonimbus cloud?

a)

Thunderstorm

b)

Tornado

c)

Typhoon

d)

Lightning

14.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the final stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

Water vapor cools and condenses into cloud.

b)

Rain falls heavily on the ground.

c)

There is frictional drag between the raindrops and the surrounding air.

d)

Clouds grow taller and taller.

15.

A sudden violent wind, often with rain or snow, is called a

a)

tornado.

b)

squall.

c)

hurricane.

d)

wave.

16.

Boundaries of air masses of different temperatures that collide are called

a)

zones.

b)

fronts.

c)

slopes.

d)

areas.

17.

When a cold air mass collides with a warmer air mass, the cold air usually

a)

forces the warmer air downward.

b)

displaces the warm air ahead of it upward.

c)

forms a stationary front.

d)

forms an occluded front.

18.

Which type of cloud first precedes a warm front?

a)

Cirrus Clouds

b)

Cirrostratus Clouds

c)

Altostratus Clouds

d)

Stratus Clouds

19.

Cloud sequences may occur 1000 miles in advance of the front itself.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

A thunderstorm develops in ______ stages.

a)

5

b)

2

c)

1

d)

3

21.

A warm front is formed when a warm air mass ___________________ a cold air mass.

a)

goes through

b)

moves into

c)

rises over

d)

goes under

22.

When air masses of the same temperatures collide a front develops.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The most intense and violent localized storms is the

a)

tropical cyclone.

b)

hurricane.

c)

typhoon.

d)

tornado.

24.

What causes closed homes and barns to explode as a tornado's vortex passes overhead?

a)

The tornado's updraft

b)

The difference in pressure in the vortex of the tornado and the normal pressure of air trapped inside

c)

The high speed of the tornado's wind

d)

Wind shear

25.

In the southwestern part of the North Pacific, most tropical cyclones are born between

a)

Okinawa and Japan.

b)

Taiwan and Okinawa.

c)

The Marshall Islands and the Philippines.

d)

Singapore and Taiwan.

26.

In probably the greatest natural catastrophe of history, a 1737 typhoon killed 300,000 people in

a)

Bay of Campeche, Mexico.

b)

Bay of Bengal, India.

c)

Bay of Cadiz, Spain.

d)

Hudson Bay, Canada.

27.

The strongest hurricane ever recorded in the Western Hemisphere was _______________________.

a)

Hurricane Andrew

b)

Hurricane Camille

c)

Hurricane Gilbert

d)

Hurricane Isabel

28.

Because cyclonic winds in the Northern Hemisphere circulate in a counterclockwise direction, as you move in the same direction as the storm, winds in the left semicircle are known as the

a)

dangerous semicircle.

b)

navigable semicircle.

c)

safety semicircle.

d)

semicircle of doom.

29.

Flags and pennants hoisted by the National Weather Service and other shore stations indicating the presence of unfavorable winds in excess of 55 mph (48 knots) are known as

a)

Small Craft Warnings.

b)

Gale Warnings.

c)

Storm Warnings.

d)

Hurricane Warnings.

30.

The second stage of a thunderstorm is characterized by both updrafts and downdrafts within the storm-producing cloud.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

A typical hurricane that originates in the doldrums and follows a northeastward track from the Greater Antilles will spread destruction

a)

along the Yucatan Peninsula.

b)

along the southern Caribbean.

c)

throughout the Gulf of Mexico.

d)

along the eastern seaboard of the United States.

32.

An East Coast hurricane will usually cause tidal flooding from

a)

Louisiana to Florida.

b)

Texas to Mississippi.

c)

Georgia to Virginia.

d)

Maryland to Massachusetts.

33.

In a front, usually the ______ of two air masses predominates and forces the other ______.

a)

colder; up

b)

warmer; down

c)

colder; down

d)

warmer; up

34.

Which of the following mark the passage of a cold front? Select all that apply.

a)

Wind shift

b)

Increase in temperature

c)

Gradual clearing

d)

Rise in pressure

35.

Where do the charges that generate lightning form within a cloud?

a)

Positive and negative charges form in the center of the cloud.

b)

Positive charges form near the top of the cloud, negative toward the bottom.

c)

Positive charges form on the outer layers, negative in the center.

36.

A transition zone caused by one front overtaking another front is called a(n)

a)

Cold front

b)

Warm front

c)

Occluded front

37.

A boundary between two different air masses, neither which is strong enough to replace the other

a)

Warm front

b)

Occluded front

c)

Stationary front

d)

Cold front

38.

Which of the following are true about tornadoes? Select all that apply.

a)

speed on earth can reach 100 mph

b)

may travel a path more than 100 miles

c)

winds in the vortex may exceed 300 mph

d)

about 300-400 feet in diameter

39.

One of the strongest hurricanes ever recorded in the Western Hemisphere was Hurricane Katrina that hit the New Orleans in 1988, killing 500 and rendering 500,000 homeless. Select all the corrections that apply.

a)

change "Katrina" to "Gilbert"

b)

change "Western" to "Eastern"

c)

change "New Orleans" to "Yucatan Peninsula"

40.

A localized, violently destructive windstorm occurring over land especially in the Middle West, and characterized by a long, funnel shaped cloud extending to the ground and made visible by condensation and debris

a)

Waterspout

b)

Hurricane

c)

Cyclone

d)

Tornado

41.

A coastal flood or tsunami-like phenomena of rising water commonly associated with low pressure weather systems and the timing of the tides

a)

Storm surge

b)

Typhoon

c)

Willy-willies

d)

Tsunami

42.

A sudden, violent windstorm, often accompanied by intense rain, snow or sleet

a)

Squall

b)

Typhoon

c)

Tropical Cyclone

43.

What causes closed homes and barns to explode as a tornado's vortex passes overhead?

a)

the high speed of the tornado's wind

b)

wind sheer

c)

the difference in pressure in the vortex of the tornado and the normal pressure of air trapped inside

44.

Flags and pennants hoisted by the National Weather Service and other shore stations indicating the presence of unfavorable winds in excess of 55 mph (48 knots) are known as

a)

Gale Warning

b)

Storm Warning

c)

Small Craft Warning

d)

Hurricane Warning

45.

A tornado forms on the forward edge of a fully developed

a)

altocumulus cloud

b)

cirrus cloud

c)

cumulonimbus cloud

46.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the final stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

Rain falls heavily on the ground.

b)

Water vapor cools and condenses into cloud.

c)

Clouds grow taller and taller.

d)

There is frictional drag between the raindrops and the surrounding air.

47.

In regard to ship maneuvering, what is the most dangerous area in a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

Left semicircle when in opposite direction to the storm movement.

b)

Right semicircle when in opposite direction to the storm movement.

c)

Left semicircle when in same directions as the storm movement.

d)

Right semicircle when in the same direction as the storm movement.

48.

Flags and pennants hoisted by the National Weather Service and other shore stations indicating the presence of unfavorable winds in excess of 55 mph (48 knots) are known as

a)

Hurricane Warning

b)

Storm Warning

c)

Gale Warning

d)

Small Craft Warning

49.

A warm front is characterized by

a)

A sudden line of thunderstorms with heavy rain lasting only a short time followed by rapidly clearing skies with lower humidity.

b)

Several hours or days of steady rain followed by cloudy humid weather after frontal passage.

c)

Several hours of steady rain, punctuated by imbedded thunderstorms with heavy rain with several more hours of steady rain following.

d)

Several days of rain with no apparent letup gradually clearing with no appreciable change in temperature or humidity.

50.

Which zone develops between the arctic air of the far north and the polar maritime air of the Pacific and Atlantic Ocean?

a)

Western Frontal Zone

b)

Polar Frontal Zone

c)

Intertropical Convergence Zone

d)

Arctic Frontal Zone

51.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the final stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

Clouds grow taller and taller.

b)

Rain falls heavily on the ground.

c)

Water vapor cools and condenses into cloud.

d)

There is frictional drag between the raindrops and the surrounding air.

52.

The U.S. Hurricane Warning System receives most of its information from

a)

satellites

b)

naval vessels

c)

land stations

d)

reconnaissance aircraft

53.

What is the normal prediction period for local weather forecasts?

a)

24 hours

b)

36 hours

c)

48 hours

d)

60 hours

54.

__________________ are the newest forecasting tools available to the meteorologist.

a)

Weather satellites

b)

Weather ships

c)

Celsius thermometers

d)

Balloons

55.

Geosynchronous satellites, hovering ____________ miles above the equator at a fixed location, photograph an entire hemisphere every half an hour.

a)

900

b)

9000

c)

22300

d)

2300

56.

The National Weather Service is in the Department of

a)

Defense.

b)

Interior.

c)

Commerce.

d)

State.

57.

What weather warnings are included in scheduled broadcasts to both the fleet and the merchant marine?

a)

Storm warning reports

b)

Terminal forecast reports

c)

Flight forecast reports

d)

Route, Flight, and Terminal reports

58.

The U.S. Navy rating which specifically concerns itself with interpreting weather conditions for command use is the

a)

aerographer's mate.

b)

oceanographer.

c)

quartermaster.

d)

radar operations specialist.

59.

For weather conditions along a specific route, aviators usually refer to

a)

precipitation reports.

b)

local forecasts.

c)

route forecasts.

d)

terminal forecasts.

60.

Much of The National Weather Service's day-to-day activity is geared to the service of aviation through its

a)

Navy Weather Service.

b)

National Meteorological Service Center.

c)

National Severe Storms Forecast Center.

d)

Aviation Weather Center in Kansas City Missouri.

61.

Early weather satellites began in 1960 with the

a)

Explorer 1.

b)

Hubble Space Telescope.

c)

Tiros Satellite.

d)

Transit Satellites.

62.

Which weather agency provides weather information to newspapers, radio, and television stations?

a)

The Navy Weather Service

b)

The National Severe Storms Forecast Center

c)

The National Weather Service

d)

National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration

63.

The National Weather Service processes 1400 reports from ships in one ________.

a)

week

b)

month

c)

hour

d)

day

64.

Change the following sentence so that it is correct: Local weather reporting is an exact science and is predicted hourly.

a)

Local weather reporting is not an exact science and is predicted up to approximately a month in advance.

b)

Local weather reporting is an exact science and is predicted annually.

c)

Long-range forecasting is not an exact science and is predicted daily.

65.

A petty officer in the Navy whose duties include observation of weather and preparation of weather and surf forecasts

a)

Synchronous Mate

b)

Quartermaster

c)

Aerographers Mate

d)

Meteorologists Mate

66.

Weather maps such as those found in newspapers and on TV weather reports have many symbols including different curved lines and arrows. The standard symbols for a hurricane looks like

a)

A capitol letter “S” with a dot in the middle

b)

A large spiral

c)

A large capitol letter “H” with a small subponet indicating the category of the hurricane

d)

several concentric circles surrounding an “H”, the number of circles corresponds to the category of the hurricane

67.

Which of the following is NOT a location of one of the six U.S. Naval Meteorological and Oceanographic Centers (NMOCs)?

a)

Pearl Harbor, Hawaii

b)

San Diego, California

c)

San Francisco, California

d)

Norfolk, Virginia

68.

Curved lines on a weather map indicating lines of equal pressure are called

a)

isobars

b)

isotherms

c)

gradients

d)

contours

69.

Astronomy is the study of _____________.

a)

the atom

b)

the universe

c)

the solar system

d)

the zodiac

70.

The modern science theory of origin of the universe is called the "Big Bang Theory." What is another name for this theory?

a)

expanding-universe theory

b)

contracting-universe theory

c)

constricting-universe theory

d)

growing-universe theory

71.

The "Big Bang" theory was first proposed in 1927 by the Belgian astronomer

a)

Georges Lemitre.

b)

Neil Armstrong.

c)

John Glenn.

d)

Alan Shepard.

72.

Scientists believe that what is now our solar system began about 4.5 billion years ago as a large cloud of ________ from the Big Bang.

a)

metal and liquid

b)

water and dirt

c)

gas and dust

d)

light and wind

73.

According to the "Big Bang" theory, when our solar system was forming the thermonuclear ____________ at the core of the proto-Sun released large amounts of energy and caused the proto-Sun to shine.

a)

fusion reactions

b)

fission reactions

c)

chemical combustion

d)

gravitational collapse

74.

According to the "Big Bang" theory, creation began about ______ billion years ago when a huge explosion sent dust and gas hurtling through space in all directions.

a)

13

b)

31

c)

131

d)

113

75.

What became the first official manmade object to pass beyond the boundaries of our solar system?

a)

Pioneer 10

b)

Galileo

c)

Explorer I

d)

Pioneer II

76.

What mission was the last U.S. lunar landing in 1972?

a)

Apollo 17

b)

Pioneer 11

c)

Mariner 1

d)

Apollo 13

77.

A ______ records the color bands in the spectrum and, when analyzed, it tells scientists which elements produced light.

a)

Radiotelescope

b)

Cassegrain reflector

c)

Photopolarimeter

d)

Spectrogram

78.

In 1986, a pair of Soviet reconnaissance probes conducted a close fly-by of

a)

the Martian surface.

b)

Jupiter.

c)

Halley's Comet during its swing through the solar system.

d)

Venus.

79.

Sir Isaac Newton is credited with the development of the

a)

observatory.

b)

reflecting telescope.

c)

spectrograph.

d)

radio telescope.

80.

What spacecraft helped to rewrite the book on solar physics and our understanding of how and why the sun functions, and the effects the sun has on terrestrial weather and communication?

a)

Explorer I

b)

Mariner I

c)

Skylab

d)

Pioneer 11

81.

Thermonuclear fusion occurs when

a)

radioactive elements within the cold earth gradually began to give off heat.

b)

proto-planets are formed by the accumulation of cold dusts from the region of space near the sun.

c)

hydrogen atoms fuse to form helium.

d)

forces in a spinning cloud flatten it into the shape of an enormous disk.

82.

What spacecraft, named for the man who first documented the moons of Jupiter, arrived at Jupiter in Dec 1995 and took detailed observations of the planet and its moons?

a)

Pioneer 11

b)

Galileo

c)

Explorer I

d)

Skylab

83.

Balloons astronomy is playing a great part in the study of the universe.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Mariner reconnaissance spacecraft conducted orbital surveys of

a)

Mars in the late 1960s, and Venus in the early 1970s.

b)

the Martian surface in the mid-1970s, sending back photos of the Martian terrain and conducting experiments to try to determine whether microbial life forms exist in the soil.

c)

Halley's Comet in 1986, confirming observations that the head of the comet is composed primarily of dirty ice.

d)

the Sun, the other planets, their satellites, and the space between them in the 1970s.

85.

Which of the following statements best describes the spectrograph?

a)

Attaches directly to a telescope, breaks up incoming light into its component wavelengths or colors to be photographed.

b)

Produces the rainbow of colors of a prism.

c)

Records the color bands of the spectrum.

d)

Determines the amount of hydrogen, helium, and the other elements that may be present.

86.

Why are astronomical photographs taken on sensitive photographic glass plates instead of on film?

a)

Glass plates do not curl and can be stored and handled with greater ease.

b)

Glass plates are less expensive than film.

c)

Film is less likely to take accurate pictures.

d)

Over time, pictures taken on film tend to fade and are no longer useful.

87.

Where is the world's largest steerable radiotelescope located?

a)

Flagstaff, Arizona

b)

Chesire, England

c)

Green Bank, West Virginia

d)

Arecibo, Puerto Rico

88.

These objects look no larger than a single star, but they emit hundreds of times more energy than most galaxies.

a)

Quasars

b)

Sun-spots

c)

Supernovae explosions

d)

Pulsars

89.

This project's goal is to scan the 1,000 closest stars for all frequencies in the microwave region between 1.0 and 3.0 GHz, that might indicate intelligent origin. What is the name of this project?

a)

Project Santa Fe

b)

Project Hollywood

c)

Project Phoenix

d)

Project Alamo

90.

The amount of light a telescope can collect depends entirely on

a)

The number of lenses

b)

The precision of the lens or mirror

c)

The shape of the lens or mirror

d)

The area of its main lens or mirror

91.

The ________ was placed in earth orbit in 1990.

a)

MacDonald

b)

Hubble

c)

Monochrome

d)

Gerbile

92.

Many additional missions to the planet ____________ are planned over the next decade, perhaps culminating in a manned mission sometime before the year 2020.

a)

Mars

b)

Juno

c)

Pluto

d)

Jupiter

93.

A system consisting of an antenna, either parabolic or dipolar, used to gather radio waves emitted by celestial sources and bring them to a receiver placed in the focus was called

a)

Sonar Camera

b)

Radiotelescope

c)

Reflecting telescope

d)

Solar telescope

94.

In 2009, NASA launched a space telescope specifically designed to locate exoplanets. It was called

a)

Kepler

b)

Hubble

c)

Webb

d)

Chandra

95.

Skylab, first manned in ____, contained a group of ______ solar observation instruments and cameras, and made approximately ______ Sun observations.

a)

1974; 9; 50,000

b)

1974; 8; 150,000

c)

1973; 9; 50,000

d)

1973; 8; 150,000

96.

The largest and most complex international scientific project in history; draws upon the scientific and technological resources of 16 nations: U.S., Canada, Japan, Russia and 11 nations of the European Space Agency and Brazil.

a)

Spacecraft

b)

International Space Station (ISS)

c)

Satellite

d)

Space Probe

97.

Which of the following statements about observatories is false?

a)

They must be the same temperature inside and out.

b)

The telescope and its cameras are operated by astronomers wearing heavy clothing as a protection against the cold.

c)

They should be located where there is a steady atmosphere.

d)

None of them are false

98.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of space-based telescopes over balloon-mounted telescopes?

a)

They don't have problems with distortions caused by the Earth's atmosphere

b)

They are self-propelled.

c)

The ability to carry more equipment.

d)

All of these are advantages of space-based telescopes over balloon-mounted telescopes.

99.

What is special about the National Radio Astronomy Observatory at Socorro, New Mexico?

a)

It combines a number of small radiotelescopes via computer control to form the equivalent of a giant radiotelescope.

b)

It is the location of the world's largest steerable radiotelescope.

c)

It has an array of radar telescopes which allows the accurate measurement of distances to objects within our solar system.

d)

None of the above

100.

The Newtonian telescope involves

a)

a reflecting telescope with the eyepiece on the side

b)

a reflecting telescope with the eyepiece on the end

c)

a refracting telescope with the eyepiece on the side

d)

a refracting telescope with the eyepiece on the end

101.

These objects look no larger than a single star, but they emit hundreds of times more energy than most galaxies.

a)

Pulsars

b)

Sun-spots

c)

Quasars

d)

Supernovae explosions

102.

Thermonuclear fusion occurs when

a)

forces in a spinning cloud flatten it into the shape of an enormous disk.

b)

hydrogen atoms fuse to form helium.

c)

proto-planets are formed by the accumulation of cold dusts from the region of space near the sun.

d)

None of the above

103.

Although relatively new, ______ astronomy is playing a great part in the study of the universe.

a)

Balloon

b)

Gondolas

c)

Radiotelescope

d)

None of the above

104.

The moon's diameter is 2160 miles, roughly ______ percent of that of the earth's.

a)

50

b)

30

c)

10

d)

15

105.

Super-heavy magnetic concentrations, probably massive bodies such as asteroids, lying beneath the lunar surface are called

a)

maria.

b)

mascons.

c)

tektites.

d)

poles.

106.

Some smooth plains on the moon's surface are old craters filled with lava or volcanic ash. These are known as

a)

oceans.

b)

mascons.

c)

lake beds.

d)

maria.

107.

The moon's mountains are

a)

concentrated in the northern hemisphere.

b)

considerably lower than those on earth.

c)

very smooth due to the constant bombardment from meter dust.

d)

concentrated in the southern hemisphere.

108.

A __________ occurs when the moon passes through the shadow of the earth.

a)

Lunar eclipse.

b)

Waning.

c)

Solar eclipse.

d)

Blackout.

109.

On an average the Moon is about how far from the Earth?

a)

149,000 miles away

b)

200,000 miles away

c)

239,000 miles away

d)

350,000 miles away

110.

One cause of erosion on the Moon is from crashing meteorites. These crashing meteorites spray the surface with broken rocks called

a)

mascons.

b)

tektites.

c)

breccia.

d)

atomic particles.

111.

The Moon has no atmosphere. Thus there is

a)

a gradual daily temperature change from hot to cold.

b)

no daily temperature change from hot to cold.

c)

a drastic change in daily temperature (243 degrees F to -261 degrees F).

d)

no daily temperature change.

112.

Physical features you can see on the surface of the Moon are

a)

oceans, rivers, and plains.

b)

volcanoes, rivers, and craters.

c)

desserts, oceans, and mountain ranges.

d)

craters, mountain ranges, and plains.

113.

Some scientists believe it possible that the Moon

a)

has an exterior of hot molten rock.

b)

has a cold interior core.

c)

has a hot exterior shell.

d)

has deposits of water ice.

114.

The most conspicuous crater on the Moon is located in its southern hemisphere. What is this crater's name?

a)

The Sea of Tranquillity

b)

Copernicus

c)

Bailly

d)

Tycho

115.

When the visible moon begins to get smaller after the full moon, the moon is said to

a)

wax.

b)

phase.

c)

shrink.

d)

wane.

116.

A day or so after a new moon, the Moon is seen as a thin bow-shaped figure. What is this figure called?

a)

Gibbous.

b)

Eclipsed

c)

Waxing

d)

Crescent

117.

At new moon what is the alignment of the Earth, Moon, and Sun?

a)

The Sun is between the Earth and the Moon

b)

The Earth is between the Sun and the Moon

c)

The Moon is between the Earth and the Sun

d)

None of the answers are correct

118.

The Apollo 11 astronauts set up a moonquake detector at

a)

the Sea of Tranquillity.

b)

Copernicus.

c)

Bailly.

d)

Tycho.

119.

The moon circles the Earth every 27 1/3 days. How long does it take the moon to make a full rotation on its own axis?

a)

27 1/3 days

b)

24 hours

c)

25 days

d)

The moon does not rotate on its axis.

120.

Which one of the following are similar to shallow, flat-bottomed riverbeds on Earth?

a)

regolith

b)

breccia

c)

rilles

d)

craters

121.

The Moon's motion in its orbit (progressive changes in the visible portion of the Moon).

a)

Phases (of the Moon)

b)

Eclipse

c)

Impact Crater

122.

Sometimes the new moon is faintly visible by day, because its otherwise dark night side is illuminated by reflected Earthlight.

a)

Impact Crater

b)

Planets shine

c)

Phases of the Moon

123.

What are the relative positions of the Moon, Earth and Sun during a full Moon?

a)

The Earth is between the Moon and the Sun

b)

The Earth and the Sun are equal distances from the Moon

c)

The Moon is between the Earth and the Sun

d)

None of the above are correct.

124.

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the maria on the Moon?

a)

They are younger than the rest of the Moon.

b)

They cover up older craters.

c)

Some maria have definite magnetic fields.

d)

All of the above are false.

e)

None of the above are false.

125.

Which of the following statements about the Moon is TRUE?

a)

Visible starlight is roughly the same on the surface of the Moon as on the surface of the Earth.

b)

The Moon is roughly one-quarter the size of Earth.

c)

The Moon circles the Earth once every 30 days.

d)

The Moon is iron-poor.

e)

All of the above are true.

126.

Erosion on the moon is due to

a)

Rain

b)

Wind

c)

A & B

d)

Breccia and atomic particles from the Sun

e)

A & D

127.

The so-called "seas" on the Moon are

a)

the maria, which actually are plains carved with lava or volcanic ash.

b)

lunar spots caused by cooler concentrations of hydrogen suspended in the cosmos.

c)

the mare or maria, which really are areas of water vapor in suspension.

128.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement?

a)

Modern maps of the Earth were more complete than maps of the lunar surface prior to the Apollo expeditions.

b)

Astronomical laboratories and observatories on the Moon would be able to probe greater distances into space than would astronomical laboratories and observatories on the Earth.

c)

The mapping and study of our own Earth and its atmosphere from Moon and space satellites would lend more accuracy to our current geographical and meteorological information.

d)

All are true statements.

129.

Sunspots have been known to last as long as

a)

a year and a half.

b)

a day.

c)

a week.

d)

a month.

130.

Most of the world's energy needs are still being met with

a)

water power, coal, and petroleum.

b)

petroleum, solar power, and coal.

c)

nuclear energy, water, and coal.

d)

coal, nuclear energy, and petroleum.

131.

A tremendous source of environmentally friendly power that can satisfy the growing needs of all civilized mankind, if it could be economically harnessed, would be

a)

nuclear energy.

b)

volcanic energy.

c)

tidal energy.

d)

solar energy.

132.

There are huge numbers of charged particles which have been trapped by the Earth's magnetic field. These particles circle the earth in four doughnut shaped regions. Two are?

a)

Inner and Outer Van Allen radiation belts.

b)

magnetopause.

c)

Starfish ring.

d)

stable trapping region.

133.

The Sun's gravitational attraction is 270 times that of Earth; if possible a 100-pound keg of nails would weigh how many pounds on the Sun?

a)

270000

b)

54000

c)

27000

d)

1000

134.

There are huge numbers of charged particles which have been trapped by the earth's magnetic field. These particles circle the earth in four doughnut-shaped regions. One region is man-made and three are natural. Which region was caused by a hydrogen bomb?

a)

Inner Van Allen Belt

b)

Outer Van Allen Belt

c)

Starfish Ring

d)

Stable Trapping Region

135.

The lowest layer of the sun's atmosphere is called the

a)

photosphere

b)

magnetosphere

c)

chromosphere

d)

coronasphere

136.

The whirling fountains of hot gases which come out of the sun's interior are called

a)

Solar spots

b)

Prominences

c)

Solar winds

d)

Sunspots

137.

What is it called when hydrogen gases are transformed into helium?

a)

Solar fusion

b)

Fission process

c)

Nuclear fusion

d)

Hydrogen process

138.

Electrically charged sunspot gases which escape the sun's chromosphere and enter the earth's atmosphere near the magnetic north pole cause the

a)

Auroras Borealis

b)

corona of the sun to be visible

c)

sun to increase in luminosity

d)

eclipse of the sun in the polar regions

139.

The average distance from the Sun to the Earth, about 93 million miles, is called one

a)

solar distance unit

b)

parsec

c)

astronomical unit

d)

light year

140.

The sun contains _____ of all the matter in our solar system.

a)

5%

b)

99%

c)

63%

d)

32%

141.

Which layer of the sun do sunspots rise through?

a)

Photosphere

b)

Chromosphere

c)

Corona

d)

None of the above

142.

The luminous visible surface of the Sun, being a shallow layer of strongly ionized gases

a)

Heliosphere

b)

Photosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Metrosphere

143.

A vast region of space surrounding the Sun; a sort of bubble filled by the interplanetary medium and extending well beyond the orbit of Pluto

a)

Photosphere

b)

Metrosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Heliosphere

144.

A stellar remnant composed mostly of electron-degenerate matter

a)

Red dwarf

b)

White giant

c)

Red giant

d)

White dwarf

145.

Sunspots are believed to be responsible for what phenomena here on Earth?

a)

The Van Allen radiation belts

b)

Solar eclipses

c)

The Aurora Borealis and the Aurora Australis

d)

The Earth's magnetosphere

146.

What is the "magnetopause"?

a)

The boundary of the Sun's magnetosphere

b)

A band of magnetically neutral space between the Earth and the Sun

c)

The boundary of the Earth's magnetosphere

d)

The limit of the Sun's magnetic field within the solar system

147.

What part of the magnetosphere contains lower-energy particles?

a)

The Starfish ring

b)

The Van Allen radiation belts

c)

The aurora belt

d)

The stable trapping region

148.

What is the "Starfish ring"?

a)

This refers to the shape of charged particles as they rush outward from a sunspot

b)

A narrow ring of charged particles caused by a U.S. hydrogen bomb exploded at a height of 250 miles in 1962

c)

The limit of the Sun's magnetic field within the solar system

d)

None of the above

149.

In illustrations, the Earth is shown as the center of a doughnut hole around which various radiation belts circle. At the North and South poles of the Earth there are

a)

high-energy protons and electrons

b)

no trapped particles above or below the poles

c)

low-energy protons and electrons

d)

both low-energy and high-energy particles

150.

The time it takes a planet to go around the Sun is

a)

Orbital period

b)

Retrograde Motion

c)

Eliptical movement

d)

Axis rotation