WorksheetsMI Final Review
Total questions: 112
Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins
What is the purpose of PCR?
To produce millions of copies of DNA.
To produce millions of copies of a specific region of DNA
To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence
To watch polymerase work.
The first step in PCR is
Primer annealing
Primer extension
Denaturation
None of these
What is the denaturation step?
mutating RNA polymerase
separating DNA helix in a cold environment
Cooling DNA to allow primers to form
separating DNA double helix with using heat
At what temperature does the Denature step of PCR occur?
94-96° C
72° C
50-65° C
Any temperature
What happens during the annealing step of PCR?
Primers are created.
Primers copy the new DNA strand.
The primers attach to the target DNA region.
Primers sequence DNA
What is the extension step?
DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 5' end
DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' end
RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 5' end
RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3' end
Why does PCR require a specific type of polymerase?
Taq polymerase can withstand the range of temperatures in PCR without denaturing.
Taq polymerase is the most common type of polymerase.
Taq polymerase is the most inexpensive type of polymerase.
A specific type of polymerase is unnecessary.
PCR is a
DNA Sequencing technique
DNA Degradation technique
DNA Amplification technique
All of these
Why are primers added to the PCR reaction mixture?
To provide a starting point for DNA replication
To provide a place for RNA primase to bind
To allow denaturation to take place
To buffer the reaction mixture
Match the following components of a PCR master mix to their use
dNTPs
raw materials used to make new DNA
buffer
keeps the PCR tube at a constant pH
water
bring the reaction to a final voulme
primers
needed to "frame" the DNA sequence to be amplified
magnesium chloride
cofactor needed to enhance activity of DNA polymerase
What is transcribed from DNA to produce a protein and is a good indication of whether or not a particular gene is expressed?
mRNA
cDNA
tRNA
trRNA
What happens after the DNA from the sample is applied to the DNA microarray?
the mRNA falls off the spot
the DNA comes apart
the tRNA will join the complementary strand
the cDNA will hybridize with the single stranded DNA molecules on the microarray
In the microarray, what does the RED color indicate?
these genes are not expressed or turned off
these genes are expressed or turned on in cancer
these genes are expressed in healthy cells
there are no genes in this cell
What does the GREEN color indicate in DNA microarray?
these genes are expressed in cancer
these genes are not expressed in cancer
these genes are not expressed in healthy cells
there are no genes in these cells
What does the YELLOW color indicate in DNA microarray?
this gene is expressed in cancer cells only
this gene is expressed in healthy cells only
there are no genes in the cell
this gene is expressed in both cancer and healthy cells
What does BLACK indicate in dna microarray?
gene expression in cancer cells
gene expression in healthy and cancer cells
no gene expression
gene expression in healthy cells
Which genes are expressed in both normal and in cancerous cells?
Genes marked by red spots only
Genes marked by red and green spots
Genes marked by black and yellow spots
Genes marked by yellow spots only
Which unknown gene sequences might belong to cancer-suppressor genes?
Genes marked by red spots
Genes marked by green spots
Genes marked by black spots
Genes marked by yellow spots
When comparing healthy and cancerous lung cells on a microarray, what color would you expect the dot that represents the gene for producing melanin (pigment for skin color)?
Red
Yellow
Green
Black
Reorder the following steps of a microarray experiment
Collect tissue (normal & cancerous)
Isolate RNA and separate tRNA, mRNA, and r RNA
Use reverse transcriptase to make a labeled DNA copy (cDNA)
Apply cDNA to the chip
Scan microarray and analyze DATA
When quantifying the microarray results, scientists convert the colors to what?
Match the following microarray data with the correct intensities
400
very bright
100
dull
250
medium
Match the ratio expression levels with the proper descriptions
Up regulation
positive ratio
Down regulation
negative ratio
gene is not affected by the tumor
ratio = 1
gene is not expressed in either cell
ratio = 0
What is the strength and direction of correlation between two variables having a correlation coefficient value of 0.67?
a. perfect negative correlation
b. weak positive correlation
c. very weak positive correlation
d. strong positive correlation
Which two genes shown have the highest similarity after calculating correlation coefficient data?
C and A
B and D
D and A
B and C
If allele 3 (fragment length 400 bp) and allele 7 (fragment length 800 bp) are known to carry a BRCA mutation, what would be your conclusion if a patient's gel results gave Rf values of 0.46 and 0.39?
The patient carries two BRCA mutations which puts her at a much higher risk of developing breast cancer with no functioning tumor suppressor genes.
The patient carries no BRCA mutation which puts her at nominal risk of breast cancer; if she does develop breast cancer, it will be a sporadic form of cancer.
The patient carries one BRCA mutation which puts her at higher risk of developing breast cancer but still has one functioning tumor suppressor gene.
The patient carries one BRCA mutation, but she still has one functioning BRCA allele so she will not develop breast cancer.
Which imaging technique does not use radiation?
CT scan
X-ray
MRI
Bone Scan
Are these cells normal or cancerous? (a)
What types of agglutinogens are present in a person with O blood?
A and B
B
Anti-a & Anti-B
None
Which type of blood can a O blood type receive?
A
AB
Any blood type
Only O
What types of antibodies are found in a person with AB- blood?
None
Anti-Rh, only
Anti-A and Anti-B
Anti-A,
Jenna has been in an accident and needs a blood transfusion. She has been identified as having type B blood. Which of the following BEST describes who Jenna can receive blood from?
Someone with type O blood
Someone with type B blood
Someone with type A blood
Both choices 1 & 2 are correct
Which antigens would exist on red blood cells if a person had type B+ blood?
A antigen
B antigen
Rh antigen
If a person has type A- blood, then they have _____.
Only the B antigen
Both the A and the Rh antigen
Only the A antigen
Only the Rh antigen
Which of the following is NOT true concerning blood typing?
Blood typing is faster and less expensive that DNA testing.
Blood typing is a source of individual evidence.
Blood typing can eliminate suspects.
Blood typing can be used in forensics as well as in determining parentage.
A thief breaks a window of a house and steals a wallet. You test a sample of blood left behind by the thief. It is O-. How do you know it is O-?
You see clotting in the A & B wells
You see clotting in the Rh well
You see clotting in all three wells
You see clotting in none of the wells
Which antibodies would exist in blood plasma if a person had type B+ blood?
A antibodies
B antibodies
Rh antibodies
Which blood type would only have Rh antigens on the surface of red blood cells?
A+
AB+
B+
B-
O+
Which blood type would have no Rh antigens, but only have B antigens on the surface of red blood cells?
A+
AB-
B+
B-
O-
What antigens are present on the red blood cells of a person with AB+ blood type?
A antigen only
B antigen only
A and B antigens only
A, B, and Rh antigens
In a blood transfusion, why is it important to match the Rh factor of the donor and recipient?
To prevent agglutination and hemolysis
To ensure compatibility with plasma proteins
To avoid allergic reactions
To match blood pressure levels
A person with type A- blood needs a transfusion. Which blood types can they safely receive?
A+ and O+
A- and O-
B+ and AB-
AB+ and O-
Sickle Cell Anemia
Down Syndrome
Hemophilia
Cystic Fibrosis
Sickle Cell Anemia
Down Syndrome
Hemophilia
Cystic Fibrosis
Genome
Clone
Genetic Engineering
Inbreeding
Sickle Cell Anemia
Cystic Fibrosis
Down Syndrome
Hemophilia
What is the full form of CRISPR?
Clustered Randomly Inserted Short Polymorphic Repeats
Crispy Regularly Integrated Short Phrases
Centralized Repetitive Interspaced Short Patterns
Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
Which enzyme is commonly used in CRISPR for gene editing?
Amylase
Cas9
Lipase
DNA polymerase
How is CRISPR technology being used in medicine?
To create new viruses for biological warfare
To edit genes and potentially treat genetic disorders and diseases.
To develop new flavors of genetically modified foods
To improve the taste and texture of processed meats
Explain the mechanism of CRISPR-Cas9 system.
CRISPR-Cas9 system targets RNA sequences instead of DNA sequences
Cas9 protein is not involved in the CRISPR-Cas9 system
The CRISPR-Cas9 system uses a guide RNA to target specific DNA sequences and the Cas9 protein to cut the DNA at that location.
The CRISPR-Cas9 system uses a guide RNA to repair DNA damage
What are the potential benefits of gene editing with CRISPR?
Causing more genetic disorders
Potential benefits include treating genetic disorders, creating disease-resistant crops, and developing new medical treatments.
Reducing crop yield
No impact on medical treatments
What are the potential risks of gene editing with CRISPR?
Off-target mutations, ethical concerns, and unintended genetic changes.
Reduced risk of disease
Enhanced physical traits
Increased crop yield
How does CRISPR technology compare to other gene editing techniques?
CRISPR technology is more precise and efficient compared to other gene editing techniques.
CRISPR technology has no significant difference compared to other gene editing techniques.
CRISPR technology is more expensive and time-consuming compared to other gene editing techniques.
CRISPR technology is less precise and efficient compared to other gene editing techniques.
This antibiotic works by making it difficult for the bacteria to form cell walls (capsule) correctly. The peptidoglycan can't cross-link, so the walls are weak, and the cells burst. It actually kills bacteria, not inhibits them.
Tetracyclines
Penicillin (beta-lactam)
Fluoriquinolones
Sulfa antibiotics (sulfonamids)
This antibiotic works by binding to ribosomes. The bacteria can't synthesize proteins, and thus can't reproduce.
Tetracyclines
Penicillin (beta-lactam)
Fluoriquinolones
Sulfa antibiotics (sulfonamids)
This antibiotic works by interfering with bacteria's ability to copy their DNA. This stops them from reproducing.
Tetracyclines
Penicillin (beta-lactam)
Fluoriquinolones
Sulfa antibiotics (sulfonamids)
This antibiotic works by interfering with an B vitamin (folate) that bacteria require to survive. They can't reproduce or grow well without that vitamin.
Tetracyclines
Penicillin (beta-lactam)
Fluoriquinolones
Sulfa antibiotics (sulfonamids)
Which of these is the bacterium responsible for causing meningitis?
a
b
c
d
Which of these describes a gram-positive bacterium?
Purple, has a capsule
Purple, has no capsule
Pink, has a capsule
Pink, has no capsule
Where and what is an endotoxin?
A poisonous or toxic substance inside a bacterium (part of the cell membrane)
A large spore inside a bacterium
A poisonous or toxic substance excreted by a bacterium
A large spore produced on the outside of a bacterium
Which is a ribosome?
a
b
c
d
e
Which contains the cell's DNA?
a
b
c
d
e
Thick peptidoglycan in cell wall
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Thin peptidoglycan in cell wall
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Has an outer membrane (2nd cell membrane)
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
What is this bacteria shape?
Coccus
Bacillus
Spirillum
What is this bacteria shape?
Coccus
Bacillus
Spirillum
What is this bacteria shape and arrangement?
Streptobaccillus
Streptococcus
Diplococcus
Staphylococcus
What is this bacteria shape and arrangement?
Streptobaccillus
Streptococcus
Diplococcus
Staphylococcus
What is this bacteria shape and arrangement?
Streptobaccillus
Streptococcus
Diplococcus
Staphylococcus
What is the cause of polycystic kidney disease?
Bacterial overgrowth
Virus infection
Environmental factors
Mutations in the PKD1 or PKD2 genes
What are the common symptoms of PKD?
High blood pressure, back or side pain, headaches, blood in the urine, frequent urination, kidney stones, kidney failure
Stomach pain, blurred vision, joint pain
Weight loss, muscle weakness, insomnia
Coughing, fever, sore throat
How is polycystic kidney disease diagnosed?
Urine color examination
Blood type analysis
Temperature measurement
Medical history, physical examination, imaging tests, genetic testing
What imaging tests are used to diagnose PKD?
PET scan
Ultrasound, CT scan, MRI
Echocardiogram
X-ray
What is the difference between autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive PKD?
The main difference is the number of gene copies involved in causing the disease: one copy for autosomal dominant PKD and two copies for autosomal recessive PKD.
The difference lies in the severity of symptoms: autosomal dominant PKD is more severe than autosomal recessive PKD.
Autosomal dominant PKD affects only males, while autosomal recessive PKD affects only females.
Autosomal dominant PKD is caused by environmental factors, while autosomal recessive PKD is purely genetic.
What is the significance of kidney size in diagnosing PKD?
Kidneys with irregular shape due to infection
Enlarged kidneys due to multiple cysts formation
Shrunken kidneys due to excessive scarring
Normal kidney size with no cysts
What research is being done to find a cure for PKD?
Psychological counseling
Genetic and molecular mechanisms, targeted therapies, gene-editing techniques
Herbal remedies
Surgical interventions
A nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for a kidney transplant about organ rejection. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? SATA
“Fluid retention is a manifestation of an acute rejection."
“A fever is a manifestation of an acute rejection.”
“You might need to begin dialysis to monitor your kidney function for a hyperacute rejection.”
“Your provider will increase your immunosuppressive medications for a chronic rejection.”
“Expect an immediate removal of the donor kidney for a hyperacute rejection.”
Which of the following is true regarding immunosuppressant medications following kidney transplantation?
The are continued for the rest of the client's life
They are continued for a week following transplantation
They are continued for 24 hours following transplantation
They are continued for until the kidney is no longer rejected
Which of the following would disqualify someone from receiving a donor kidney? SATA
Well controlled DM
Advanced COPD
History of drug abuse, but four years sober
Unstable Angina
Hepatitis C infection
The client is to undergo kidney transplantation with a living donor. Which of the following preoperative assessments is important?
Urine output
Signs of graft rejection
Creatinine and BUN levels
Client’s support system and understanding of lifestyle changes
Which of the following in most important when matching a donated organ with the recipient?
The organ comes from a blood relative
The organ was taken from a living donor
The donor and the recipient have matching ABO and HLA
The donor is only willing to donate to that specific recipient
What is the role of insulin in the body?
To signal the body to store sugar
to signal the body to release sugar
to signal the body to produce glucagon
to signal the pancreas to start releasing enzymes
Bacteria will pick up stray bacteria and incorporate it into its genome through the process of:
conjugation
transformation
translocation
binary fission
Genes can be cut out of human or plant DNA & placed into bacteria in small rings of DNA called:
mRNA
SNP
Plasmid
Nucleotides
Besides heat shock what other technique can be used to transform bacteria?
chromatography
CaCl2 use
PCR
conjugation
What does the GFP gene give to E. Coli?
Ability to glow
ability to replicate
ability to survive ampicillin treatment
ability to cause disease
Which of these shows the correct arrangement of amino acids in a protein?
A
B
C
All of them
Column Chromatography separates protein fragments based on?
Protein size
secondary protein structure
salt concentration
Regions of polarity (hydrophobic/hydrophilic)
To verify the purity of a protein sample you should?
Use a chromatography column
see if it can grow in the presence of an antibiotic
view it under UV light
run a protein electrophoresis
What cuts specific pieces of plasmid?
scissors
restriction enzymes
bacteria
DNA
In order for a plasmid to be maintained and replicated in a cell, the plasmid must contain?
DNA
Origin of replication
GFP
Antibiotic Resistance
Of the plates shown in the picture, which would not grow any bacteria?
-DNA
-DNA/AMP
+DNA/AMP
+DNA/AMP/IPTG (trigger for GFP, like the ARA sugar)
What is the purpose of the sugar arabinose?
“Turn on” the transcription of GFP
Food for the bacteria
It is what glows
Allows for transcription of AMP resistant gene
GFR results can indicate issues with the
lungs.
kidneys.
brain.
liver.
heart.
An EKG measures
blood pressure.
urine concentration.
kidney filtration rate.
electrical activity of the brain.
electrical activity of the heart.
The lab results shown here indicate the patient
has very low BUN levels.
has lung cancer.
has congesitve heart failure.
has end stage renal disease.
has diabetes.
The image shown here most likely shows
a continuous suture.
a subcutaneous suture.
a square suture.
a mattress suture.
an interrupted suture.
The image shown here most likely shows
a subcutaneous suture.
a continuous suture.
a square suture.
an interrupted suture.
a mattress suture.
Which of the following best defines "law"?
A set of personal beliefs about right and wrong
A system of rules created and enforced by a government
The outcome of a court case
A feeling of empathy towards others
What is "virtue" most closely associated with?
Legal punishment
Moral excellence and good character
The outcome of a trial
Breaking the law
Justice is best described as:
Following every law without question
Treating people fairly and giving them what they deserve
Always acting according to personal virtue
Ignoring the law for personal gain
Which of the following is an example of a just outcome?
A person is punished more harshly because of their appearance
Two people who commit the same crime receive the same punishment
A person is rewarded for breaking the law
A person is not given a chance to defend themselves in court
If a law is unfair but followed strictly, what might be missing?
Virtue and justice
Law enforcement
Legal outcome
Government approval
Which statement best shows the difference between law and virtue?
Law is about personal feelings, virtue is about rules
Law is enforced by the government, virtue is about personal morals
Law is always fair, virtue is always unfair
Law and virtue mean the same thing
Which outcome best represents justice in a school setting?
Only popular students are allowed to participate in activities
All students are given equal opportunities regardless of background
Students are punished without explanation
Rules are ignored by teachers
