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Diabetes Mellitus: Pharmacological Management Overview

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which primary goal should guide medication selection in diabetes pharmacological management?

a)

Focus solely on long-term A1C targets first

b)

Prioritize organ protection and acute crisis prevention

c)

Maximize rapid glucose reduction at any cost

d)

Emphasize weight loss before safety measures

2.

Which acute emergencies are key targets for prevention in diabetes care?

a)

Asthma exacerbations, COPD flare, pneumonia

b)

Sepsis, acute pancreatitis, lactic acidosis

c)

Hypertension, stroke, heart failure exacerbations

d)

Hypoglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar syndrome

3.

Which component best describes interprofessional nutritional therapy for diabetes?

a)

Universal low-fat diet without personalization

b)

High-protein diet regardless of kidney function

c)

Individualized meal planning with carbohydrate counting

d)

Fasting-based regimen replacing pharmacotherapy

4.

A patient with Type 2 diabetes starts with lifestyle changes but later needs drugs. Which statement best reflects this pathway?

a)

Most patients eventually require medication for glycemic control

b)

Lifestyle measures alone maintain control indefinitely for most

c)

Insulin is avoided permanently with strict exercise plans

d)

Pharmacotherapy begins only after microvascular complications

5.

Which team element focuses on helping patients interpret home glucose results for treatment adjustments?

a)

Pharmacological management with insulin titration only

b)

Patient education focused exclusively on complications

c)

Blood glucose monitoring with self-interpretation support

d)

Physical activity guidance without metric tracking

6.

Which objective aligns with decreasing symptoms through diabetes medications?

a)

Delay care until acute crises improve adherence

b)

Induce ketosis to enhance weight loss and energy

c)

Increase diuresis to lower blood pressure and edema

d)

Reduce polyuria, polydipsia, fatigue, and blurred vision

7.

Which category is a high-alert medication and a leading cause of medication-related hypoglycemia?

a)

Insulins used for hormone substitution

b)

Lifestyle and nutrition strategies

c)

Oral hypoglycemic drug classes

d)

Noninsulin injectable agents

8.

For Type 1 diabetes, which treatment approach is required throughout life?

a)

Initial oral monotherapy only

b)

Lifelong exogenous insulin therapy

c)

Intermittent lifestyle counseling

d)

Short-course noninsulin injectables

9.

In managing Type 2 diabetes, what is the typical progression of pharmacologic therapy when glycemic targets are not met?

a)

Oral agents temporarily, then discontinue

b)

Lifestyle, oral agents, then add insulin

c)

Insulin first, then lifestyle only

d)

Noninsulin injectables, then stop therapy

10.

Which statement best describes oral hypoglycemic drugs for Type 2 diabetes?

a)

Multiple classes with different mechanisms

b)

Single class with uniform mechanism

c)

Only rescue therapy when insulin fails

d)

Used exclusively for acute hypoglycemia

11.

Noninsulin injectable agents, such as GLP-1 receptor agonists, most likely provide which combined benefits?

a)

Rapid ketosis and diuresis

b)

Uniform hypoglycemia without risk

c)

Glycemic control and weight loss

d)

Increased insulin antibody titers

12.

Which statement best describes the primary therapeutic goal of insulin therapy in diabetes management?

a)

Maintain tight glucose control to reduce complications

b)

Eliminate the need for any carbohydrate metabolism

c)

Delay nutrient absorption to prevent postprandial spikes

d)

Increase ketone production for alternative energy use

13.

Insulin promotes which key hepatic process that helps create glucose reserves?

a)

Ketogenesis in fasting and stress states

b)

Glycogen synthesis and storage in the liver

c)

Gluconeogenesis from amino acid substrates

d)

Lipolysis in adipose and hepatic tissue

14.

Which insulin class has an onset of about 10–15 minutes and is typically given with meals?

a)

Rapid-acting insulin such as lispro or aspart

b)

Intermediate-acting insulin such as NPH insulin

c)

Long-acting insulin such as glargine or detemir

d)

Short-acting insulin such as regular insulin

15.

Regular insulin is unique among insulins because it can be administered by which route?

a)

Intravenous administration during specific indications

b)

Inhalational administration for basal control

c)

Intramuscular administration for daily basal use

d)

Transdermal administration via patch delivery

16.

A patient is scheduled to eat lunch at 12:30. Which instruction best aligns with short-acting regular insulin pharmacokinetics?

a)

Administer exactly at 12:30 with the first bite

b)

Administer at 12:45 immediately after finishing

c)

Administer at 10:30 two hours before the meal

d)

Administer at 11:45 to 12:00 before the meal

17.

Which characteristic best differentiates long-acting basal insulin such as glargine or detemir?

a)

Steady, near-peakless profile up to twenty-four hours

b)

Pronounced peak occurring about four to twelve hours

c)

Cloudy appearance that requires thorough mixing

d)

Rapid onset within ten to fifteen minutes at meals

18.

Which statement is most accurate regarding intermediate-acting NPH insulin?

a)

Cannot be mixed with any other insulin formulation

b)

Suitable for IV infusion during acute hyperglycemia

c)

Provides basal coverage with a noticeable 4–12 hour peak

d)

Has a flat profile with no significant daily peak

19.

A nurse needs to coordinate insulin with a patient’s dinner at 18:00. The patient uses rapid-acting lispro. Which timing minimizes postprandial hyperglycemia while limiting hypoglycemia risk?

a)

Administer sixty minutes after the 18:00 meal

b)

Administer two hours before the 18:00 meal

c)

Administer within fifteen minutes before the 18:00 meal

d)

Administer ninety minutes before the 18:00 meal

20.

Which insulin is classified as rapid-acting and is typically administered with meals to cover postprandial glucose rises?

a)

Glargine insulin (Lantus)

b)

Regular insulin (Humulin R)

c)

Lispro insulin (Humalog)

d)

NPH insulin (Humulin N)

21.

Which insulin preparation is short-acting with an onset of 30 minutes and a peak around 2 to 5 hours?

a)

Degludec insulin (Tresiba)

b)

Aspart insulin (NovoLog)

c)

Regular insulin (Novolin R)

d)

Detemir insulin (Levemir)

22.

NPH insulin has which characteristic action profile?

a)

Onset 10 minutes, peak 30 minutes

b)

Onset 1 to 5 hours, peak 4 to 12 hours

c)

Onset 2 hours, no defined peak

d)

Onset 30 minutes, peak 2 hours

23.

Which long-acting insulin provides roughly 24-hour basal coverage with a less pronounced peak?

a)

Afrezza inhaled

b)

Lispro (Humalog)

c)

Regular (Humulin R)

d)

Glargine (Lantus)

24.

Which combination product pairs NPH with regular insulin in a premixed 70/30 formulation?

a)

Humalog Mix 75/25 formulation

b)

Humalog Mix 50/50 formulation

c)

Ryzodeg 70/30 formulation

d)

Humulin 70/30 formulation

25.

Which insulin is ONLY available as inhaled formulation among the listed types?

a)

Afrezza powder formulation

b)

Lispro subcutaneous solution

c)

Glargine depot formulation

d)

Detemir albumin-bound

26.

Which insulin type is most appropriate to correct hyperglycemia during diabetic ketoacidosis via IV infusion?

a)

Regular insulin intravenous

b)

Glargine once-daily dose

c)

NPH twice-daily dose

d)

Lispro subcutaneous bolus

27.

A patient receives NPH at 8 AM. Based on typical kinetics, when is hypoglycemia risk highest from the peak?

a)

8:30 to 9:00 AM window

b)

10:00 AM to noon window

c)

Noon to 8:00 PM window

d)

Midnight to 4:00 AM window

28.

Which statement best differentiates rapid-acting from long-acting insulin?

a)

Rapid has slower onset than long

b)

Rapid cannot mix, long always mixed

c)

Rapid peaks within hours, long has flat

d)

Rapid is cloudy, long is clear

29.

Which long-acting insulin is correctly matched to its brand name?

a)

Lispro — NovoLog brand

b)

Regular — Lantus brand

c)

Aspart — Apidra brand

d)

Detemir — Levemir brand

30.

Which statement best describes the goal of a basal–bolus insulin regimen?

a)

Mimic physiologic insulin secretion across the day

b)

Maximize insulin peaks after late-night snacks

c)

Eliminate need for glucose monitoring entirely

d)

Prioritize convenience over glycemic precision

31.

What is the primary role of bolus (mealtime) insulin in therapy?

a)

Control postprandial glucose excursions

b)

Replace missing basal insulin entirely

c)

Suppress hepatic glucose output overnight

d)

Prevent diabetic ketoacidosis during illness

32.

Rapid-acting analogs such as lispro, aspart, or glulisine should be administered at what time relative to eating?

a)

Within 15 minutes of meal start

b)

Sixty minutes after finishing meals

c)

Two hours before anticipated meals

d)

Only at bedtime regardless of meals

33.

Which pharmacokinetic profile matches rapid-acting mealtime insulin?

a)

Onset immediate, peak 6–8 h, duration 12–16 h

b)

Onset 2–3 h, peakless, duration 48–72 h

c)

Onset 30–60 min, peak 2–4 h, duration 5–7 h

d)

Onset 10–15 min, peak 1–2 h, duration 3–4 h

34.

Regular insulin used for meals is best injected when to align with absorption?

a)

Immediately after finishing meals

b)

Two hours after a large meal

c)

Only when premeal glucose exceeds 250 mg/dL

d)

Thirty to forty-five minutes before meals

35.

Which statement about timing errors with bolus insulin is most accurate?

a)

Giving regular insulin immediately before eating prevents lows

b)

Mismatched timing can cause early hypoglycemia then hyperglycemia

c)

Delaying rapid-acting insulin always prevents postprandial spikes

d)

Timing has minimal effect if the dose is calculated correctly

36.

What is the core function of basal insulin in diabetes management?

a)

Provide steady background coverage between meals and overnight

b)

Treat acute hyperglycemia after high-carbohydrate meals

c)

Produce pronounced peaks to match midday activity

d)

Replace the need for any mealtime carbohydrate counting

37.

Which is a correct safety principle for long-acting basal insulin in type 1 diabetes?

a)

Administer basal twice within one hour if a meal is missed

b)

Give basal only on days with planned exercise

c)

Mix basal with rapid insulin in the same syringe

d)

Never skip basal doses to avoid risk of DKA

38.

Which property is characteristic of glargine or detemir when used as basal insulin?

a)

Minimal peak with approximately 24-hour coverage

b)

Pronounced peak at two hours with short duration

c)

Cloudy suspension requiring vigorous mixing

d)

Intended primarily for intravenous infusion use

39.

Which statement best describes the typical duration of action for NPH insulin when used as basal coverage?

a)

About 2 to 4 hours overall

b)

About 6 to 10 hours overall

c)

About 12 to 18 hours overall

d)

About 20 to 24 hours overall

40.

At what post-injection time frame is hypoglycemia risk highest with NPH insulin due to its pronounced peak?

a)

Twelve to twenty hours after injection

b)

Four to twelve hours after injection

c)

Zero to two hours after injection

d)

Twenty-four to thirty hours after injection

41.

A patient prefers fewer injections and is comfortable with fixed ratios. Which option best fits this preference when combining mealtime and basal insulin?

a)

Basal-only once-daily regimen

b)

Separate long-acting and bolus pens

c)

Premixed fixed-ratio formulation

d)

Self-mixing NPH with rapid-acting

42.

Which insulin compatibility rule is correct when planning to mix insulins in one syringe?

a)

Any insulin can mix with any other

b)

Long-acting glargine can mix with NPH

c)

Rapid-acting lispro can mix with NPH

d)

Detemir can safely mix with NPH

43.

You instruct a patient on preparing NPH before drawing it up. Which action is appropriate for this suspension?

a)

Shake vigorously for thirty seconds

b)

Roll gently to resuspend particles

c)

Leave undisturbed before use

d)

Warm in hands until clear

44.

A patient self-mixes NPH with short-acting insulin in the morning. To reduce hypoglycemia, which plan is most appropriate for the peak window?

a)

Skip lunch to lower insulin demand

b)

Schedule carbohydrates mid-morning snack

c)

Increase bedtime NPH without snacks

d)

Delay breakfast until late afternoon

45.

Which sequence correctly prevents contamination when mixing Regular and NPH insulin in one syringe?

a)

Inject Regular into NPH, then draw both

b)

Draw NPH first, then draw Regular

c)

Draw Regular first, then draw NPH

d)

Mix NPH and Regular in vial first

46.

Before drawing any insulin, what action ensures the NPH suspension is uniform?

a)

Invert NPH vial and tap

b)

Vigorously shake NPH for 5 seconds

c)

Warm NPH vial in hands

d)

Gently roll NPH 10–20 times

47.

When preparing doses, what is the correct air injection sequence into vials?

a)

No air injection is required

b)

Air into mixed syringe only

c)

Air into NPH, then air into Regular

d)

Air into Regular, then air into NPH

48.

Why should Regular insulin be drawn up before NPH insulin?

a)

To keep NPH crystals from dissolving

b)

To avoid contaminating Regular with NPH

c)

To reduce syringe dead space

d)

To make the dose absorb faster

49.

A patient needs 12 units Regular and 36 units NPH. After injecting air into both vials, which volume is withdrawn first and from which vial?

a)

Withdraw 24 units from each vial

b)

Withdraw 48 units from either vial

c)

Withdraw 36 units from NPH vial

d)

Withdraw 12 units from Regular vial

50.

After withdrawing the Regular dose, how is the NPH dose added without contaminating vials?

a)

Change to a new syringe for NPH only

b)

Expel Regular back into vial, then mix

c)

Reinsert into Regular, then NPH again

d)

Insert needle into NPH, add NPH to syringe

51.

Which statement best reflects timing for administration after mixing Regular and NPH in one syringe?

a)

Administer immediately after preparation

b)

Let stand until cloudy clears

c)

Wait 30 minutes before injection

d)

Store mixed dose for tomorrow

52.

Which storage practice best maintains insulin potency in unopened vials?

a)

Keep on counter near sunlight

b)

Refrigerate at 36–46°F consistently

c)

Freeze for longer shelf stability

d)

Store in warm cabinet above stove

53.

How long can an in-use insulin vial be kept at room temperature before discarding?

a)

Roughly sixty days total

b)

About two weeks maximum

c)

Up to twenty-eight days

d)

Only three to five days

54.

Which statement about temperature control for insulin is correct?

a)

Never heat or freeze insulin

b)

Freeze to preserve activity

c)

Warm before every injection

d)

Boil briefly to sterilize

55.

Which action helps protect insulin from degradation by light?

a)

Place vials under bright lamps

b)

Use clear glass near windows

c)

Avoid direct sunlight exposure

d)

Store on car dashboard daily

56.

What is the recommended storage position and duration for prefilled single‑insulin syringes?

a)

Flat in freezer for three months

b)

Upright in refrigerator for thirty days

c)

Upright at room temperature indefinitely

d)

Flat in refrigerator for twelve weeks

57.

Which anatomical site provides the fastest, most predictable insulin absorption for mealtime dosing?

a)

Abdomen excluding area near navel

b)

Upper outer buttock quadrant

c)

Posterior upper arm region

d)

Anterior and lateral mid‑thigh

58.

Which injection site typically has the slowest absorption and is often preferred for basal insulin?

a)

Outer posterior upper arm

b)

Upper outer buttocks area

c)

Abdominal wall surfaces

d)

Mid‑thigh lateral region

59.

A patient plans to jog after breakfast. Where should they avoid injecting rapid‑acting insulin to reduce hypoglycemia risk?

a)

Outer posterior upper arm

b)

Abdomen far from the navel

c)

Muscles to be heavily exercised

d)

Upper outer buttocks region

60.

Which rotation practice best prevents lipohypertrophy while keeping absorption predictable?

a)

Switch randomly between all body regions

b)

Use different depths at the same spot

c)

Inject repeatedly into a palpable lump

d)

Rotate within one area using systematic spacing

61.

Which statement reflects a sound plan for site rotation over a week?

a)

Return to the same spot each evening

b)

Inject arms only until soreness occurs

c)

Alternate abdomen and buttock every dose

d)

Use quadrants of the abdomen in sequence

62.

Which component on an insulin pen is used to select the dose prior to injection?

a)

Needle cap at tip

b)

Plunger inside barrel

c)

Dial at the pen end

d)

Numbers on window

63.

What is the primary reason for priming an insulin pen before each injection?

a)

Ensure accurate dosing volume

b)

Sterilize the needle channel

c)

Cool insulin for comfort

d)

Increase injection speed

64.

A best practice to prevent insulin leakage after a pen injection is to

a)

Leave needle in 5–10 seconds

b)

Massage site for one minute

c)

Use a longer needle size

d)

Remove needle immediately

65.

Which advantage of insulin pens most directly reduces needlestick injury risk?

a)

Portable compact design

b)

Large printed dose numbers

c)

Audible dosage clicks

d)

Single-use disposable needles

66.

Continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion primarily delivers insulin as

a)

Programmable basal rates

b)

Weekly depot infusions

c)

Fixed twice-daily doses

d)

Intermittent long-acting shots

67.

How often should pump infusion sites typically be changed to reduce infection risk and maintain absorption?

a)

Every 12 hours routinely

b)

Only when site is painful

c)

Once per week routinely

d)

Every 2–3 days routinely

68.

A patient using a pump develops hyperglycemia with moderate ketones. Which immediate action best addresses pump-specific risks?

a)

Bolus through same infusion set

b)

Inject backup insulin by pen or vial

c)

Increase basal rate by 10 percent

d)

Wait for next automated correction

69.

Which monitoring practice best supports safe pump programming and function during daily use?

a)

Use urine glucose once daily

b)

Test only when symptomatic

c)

Rely only on weekly averages

d)

Check glucose 4–8 times daily