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Unit 5 Review (Part 1)

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best explains why very large cells are inefficient at meeting their needs?

a)

The cell membrane becomes thicker to slow transport

b)

The surface area to volume ratio becomes larger

c)

The surface area to volume ratio becomes smaller

d)

The DNA instructions become less accurate over time

2.

What problem would occur if a cell grew too large without dividing?

a)

ATP would automatically increase without regulation

b)

Ribosomes would fuse and stop translation entirely

c)

Mitochondria would disappear from the cytoplasm

d)

DNA would be overloaded producing needed proteins

3.

Maintaining a high surface area to volume ratio helps a cell primarily by improving which function?

a)

Storage of genetic material in the nucleus

b)

Stability of the phospholipid bilayer

c)

Exchange of materials across the membrane

d)

Synthesis of membrane-bound organelles

4.

Which scenario most likely triggers cell division in healthy tissues?

a)

When diffusion no longer meets metabolic demands

b)

When the genome duplicates arbitrary extra genes

c)

When lysosomes digest excess plasma membrane

d)

When the membrane potential becomes slightly positive

5.

Compare asexual and sexual reproduction: which pairing is accurate?

a)

Asexual increases genetic variation in populations

b)

Sexual yields genetically identical offspring

c)

Sexual requires only a single parent organism

d)

Asexual yields genetically identical offspring

6.

Which example illustrates a form of asexual reproduction in multicellular organisms?

a)

Meiosis forming haploid gametes

b)

Crossing over during prophase I

c)

Budding in hydra producing a clone

d)

Fertilization creating a zygote

7.

Two cubic cells differ in size. Cell A has twice the edge length of Cell B. Which statement is correct about their surface area to volume ratios?

a)

Cell A has a higher ratio than Cell B

b)

Both cells have identical ratios and transport

c)

Cell A has a lower ratio than Cell B

d)

Ratios are irrelevant to transport efficiency

8.

A tissue relies on rapid nutrient uptake. Which cell morphology best supports this requirement?

a)

Small cells with many microvilli

b)

Large cells with minimal membrane

c)

Spherical cells with reduced area

d)

Thick cells with low ratio

9.

Which statement best distinguishes asexual reproduction from sexual reproduction at the cellular level?

a)

Sexual reproduction requires mitotic division of a single cell

b)

Sexual reproduction produces genetically identical daughter cells

c)

Asexual reproduction fuses two gametes to form zygotes

d)

Asexual reproduction uses one parent cell to produce clones

10.

In budding, what most accurately describes the origin of the new individual?

a)

An outgrowth detaches from a single parent organism

b)

Two parental gametes fuse to form an embryo

c)

A spore disperses and develops independently

d)

A fertilized ovule grows within a flower

11.

Vegetative propagation in plants primarily results in offspring with which genetic relationship to the parent?

a)

Genetically mixed from two parent plants

b)

Genetically identical to the parent organism

c)

Genetically unrelated to the parent plant

d)

Genetically reduced relative to the parent

12.

Which outcome most directly explains why sexual reproduction can enhance a species’ long‑term survival in changing environments?

a)

Single-parent reproduction conserves more energy

b)

Parent-offspring genomes remain identical

c)

Rapid cloning maximizes population growth

d)

Genetic mixing increases variation among offspring

13.

Most unicellular organisms primarily reproduce by which mechanism, and what is a key consequence for genetic diversity?

a)

Cross-fertilization producing extreme genetic variation

b)

Asexual division producing low genetic variation

c)

Sexual fusion producing high genetic variation

d)

Spore formation producing moderate genetic variation

14.

A research team compares hydra budding with human reproduction. Which pairing correctly matches process to genetic outcome?

a)

Hydra budding—offspring reduced genomes; human reproduction—offspring reduced genomes

b)

Hydra budding—offspring unrelated; human reproduction—offspring unrelated

c)

Hydra budding—offspring are clones; human reproduction—offspring are genetically mixed

d)

Hydra budding—offspring genetically mixed; human reproduction—offspring are clones

15.

In a eukaryotic cell, where is the genetic material primarily located?

a)

Freely in the cytoplasm

b)

Attached to ribosome surfaces

c)

Embedded in the cell wall

d)

Inside the nucleus region

16.

During most of a eukaryotic cell’s life cycle, DNA exists mainly as which form?

a)

Tightly packed chromatids

b)

Long strands called chromatin

c)

Separated sister chromosomes

d)

Short fragments called plasmids

17.

What is the primary reason chromatin condenses when a cell divides?

a)

To prevent tangling and breakage

b)

To increase gene transcription

c)

To export DNA from nucleus

d)

To lengthen interphase duration

18.

Which proteins serve as spools around which DNA winds to form higher-order structure?

a)

Tubulins in microtubules

b)

Kinesins on chromosomes

c)

Polymerases on templates

d)

Histones in nucleosomes

19.

The X-shaped structure visible during mitosis is best described as what?

a)

A circular DNA plasmid

b)

A single chromatid fiber

c)

A condensed chromosome

d)

A histone protein core

20.

Which statement best contrasts eukaryotic and prokaryotic genetic organization?

a)

Eukaryotes use histones; prokaryotes lack any proteins

b)

Eukaryotes have one chromosome; prokaryotes have many

c)

Eukaryotes store DNA in cytoplasm; prokaryotes in nucleus

d)

Eukaryotes have linear chromosomes; prokaryotes have circular DNA

21.

A bacterial cell’s genome is most often contained in which structural form?

a)

A single circular DNA molecule

b)

Multiple linear chromosomes

c)

Many X-shaped chromatids

d)

Numerous mitochondrial DNAs

22.

If histone-DNA interactions were experimentally weakened during cell division, which outcome would be most likely?

a)

Chromosomes would fail to condense properly

b)

Transcription rates would immediately cease

c)

Cell membranes would lose integrity

d)

Ribosomes would stop protein synthesis

23.

Which observation would best indicate a cell is not currently dividing?

a)

Numerous X-shaped chromosomes

b)

Diffuse chromatin strands in nucleus

c)

Spindle microtubules attached kinetochores

d)

Separated sister chromatids at poles

24.

Which statement best explains why cells organize DNA into chromosomes during division?

a)

To protect genetic information during segregation

b)

To increase mutation rates for adaptation

c)

To reduce the amount of cellular DNA overall

d)

To stop transcription throughout the cell

25.

Which process describes how most prokaryotes reproduce?

a)

Binary fission producing identical cells

b)

Meiosis producing varied gametes

c)

Mitosis producing diploid spores

d)

Budding producing unequal daughter cells

26.

What is the immediate result of DNA replication during binary fission?

a)

Four chromatids forming homologous pairs

b)

Separated daughter cells with membranes

c)

Two copies of the circular chromosome

d)

A condensed metaphase chromosome

27.

During which general phase do eukaryotic cells spend most of their time?

a)

M phase focused on chromosome movement

b)

G0 exit focused on permanent inactivity

c)

Cytokinesis focused on cytoplasm splitting

d)

Interphase focused on growth and work

28.

Arrange these interphase subphases in the correct chronological order: G1, S, G2.

a)

G2 then G1 then S

b)

G1 then G2 then S

c)

S then G2 then G1

d)

G1 then S then G2

29.

Which event characterizes the S phase of interphase?

a)

Duplication of DNA molecules

b)

Separation of sister chromatids

c)

Assembly of mitotic spindle

d)

Active cytokinesis of cytoplasm

30.

A bacterium divides and produces two daughter cells with the same genome. Which feature makes this likely?

a)

Replication followed by pinching in half

b)

Crossing over during prophase I

c)

Independent assortment of chromosomes

d)

Fusion of two parental gametes

31.

Which comparison between binary fission and mitosis is accurate?

a)

Both require formation of meiotic tetrads

b)

Both involve homologous recombination events

c)

Both reduce chromosome number by half

d)

Both yield genetically identical daughter cells

32.

A eukaryotic cell spends only a small fraction of its cycle in mitosis. What is the best explanation?

a)

Cytokinesis requires more time than growth

b)

Most time is needed for growth and preparation

c)

DNA cannot replicate outside mitosis

d)

Division machinery works extremely slowly

33.

Which sequence best matches the major events of binary fission?

a)

Chromosome condensation, crossing over, cytokinesis

b)

DNA replication, chromosome segregation, cytokinesis

c)

Spindle assembly, metaphase alignment, telophase

d)

Gamete production, fertilization, zygote cleavage

34.

Which event defines the S phase of interphase?

a)

Cell copies its chromosomes

b)

Cell exits the cell cycle

c)

Cell grows and makes proteins

d)

Cell divides its cytoplasm

35.

What primary activity occurs during G1 of interphase?

a)

Cell grows and duplicates organelles

b)

Chromosomes align at the midline

c)

Nuclear envelope re-forms around DNA

d)

Sister chromatids separate to poles

36.

During G2, which checkpoint-related action is emphasized?

a)

DNA condenses into visible chromosomes

b)

Spindle fibers disassemble completely

c)

Cell checks duplicated chromosomes

d)

Centromeres split and chromatids move

37.

Why must chromosomes be copied before mitosis?

a)

To ensure each new cell has the same genetic information

b)

To allow cells to grow larger than normal size

c)

To create genetic diversity in daughter cells

d)

To reduce the number of chromosomes by half

38.

Which list shows the four main phases of mitosis in correct order?

a)

Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase

b)

Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase

c)

Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Anaphase

d)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

39.

Which phase is primarily responsible for splitting the cytoplasm into two cells?

a)

Telophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Prophase

40.

A drug prevents chromosome duplication but allows mitosis to proceed. Predict the most likely outcome.

a)

Daughter cells with incomplete genetic information

b)

Daughter cells with extra cytoplasm only

c)

Daughter cells with increased chromosome numbers

d)

Daughter cells identical and genetically stable

41.

A cell has just completed telophase with two nuclei formed. What event must occur to finish producing two separate daughter cells?

a)

S phase to copy chromosomes

b)

G1 to duplicate organelles

c)

Metaphase to align chromosomes

d)

Cytokinesis to divide the cytoplasm

42.

In the diagram of prophase, which event occurs first to make chromosomes visible?

a)

Chromatin coils into chromosomes

b)

Centrioles replicate at the poles

c)

Sister chromatids move to opposite poles

d)

Nuclear envelope reforms around DNA

43.

During prophase, what is the primary role of the centrioles shown near the cell edges?

a)

Organize spindle microtubule assembly

b)

Duplicate sister chromatids at centromeres

c)

Digest the nuclear envelope fragments

d)

Drive cytokinesis of the cytoplasm

44.

Which statement best describes metaphase as shown in the diagram?

a)

Chromosomes decondense into chromatin

b)

Nuclear envelope encloses the spindle

c)

Spindle fibers disassemble completely

d)

Chromosomes align at the cell equator

45.

In metaphase, how do spindle fibers interact with chromosomes in the diagram?

a)

Slide chromatids past each other

b)

Connect telomeres to opposite poles

c)

Bind randomly along chromatid arms

d)

Attach to centromeres via kinetochores

46.

A duplicated chromosome consists of what, as labeled in the inset diagram?

a)

Two identical sister chromatids

b)

Two different homologous chromosomes

c)

One chromatid and one centrosome

d)

One chromatid and its telomere

47.

If the spindle fibers failed to attach to one centromere in metaphase, which immediate outcome is most likely during the next phase?

a)

Non-disjunction of sister chromatids

b)

Premature nuclear envelope formation

c)

Instant chromosome decondensation

d)

Rapid cytokinesis without karyokinesis

48.

Which sequence correctly orders the events from prophase to metaphase in the diagrams?

a)

Spindle disassembles, chromatids pair, nuclear envelope forms, chromosomes align

b)

Nuclear envelope reforms, chromatin condenses, spindle collapses, chromosomes align

c)

Chromosomes align, spindle forms, nuclear envelope reforms, chromatids separate

d)

Chromatin condenses, spindle forms, nuclear envelope breaks down, chromosomes align

49.

In the diagram of anaphase, which event best explains why each future daughter cell will receive an identical set of chromosomes?

a)

Centromeres split and chromatids separate

b)

Spindle fibers assemble from tubulin

c)

Chromosomes condense into thick coils

d)

Nuclear envelope fragments into vesicles

50.

Which statement best matches the telophase diagram showing two nuclei forming?

a)

Centromeres split to free chromatids

b)

Chromosomes align at the cell equator

c)

Nuclear envelopes reform around chromosomes

d)

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores

51.

In the cytokinesis diagram, what structure divides the cytoplasm in plant cells?

a)

A cell plate grows inward

b)

A cleavage furrow pinches

c)

Centrioles constrict filaments

d)

Microtubules sever cytoplasm

52.

According to the anaphase image, what role do spindle fibers play at this stage?

a)

They anchor chromosomes at the metaphase plate

b)

They replicate DNA for chromatid doubling

c)

They pull sister chromatids to opposite poles

d)

They dissolve the nuclear envelope remnants

53.

Which feature distinguishes animal from plant cytokinesis as shown in the diagrams?

a)

Nuclear envelope breakdown versus spindle assembly

b)

Membrane pinching versus cell plate formation

c)

Chromatid cohesion versus kinetochore disassembly

d)

Centriole duplication versus chromosome condensation

54.

Which sequence of events is most consistent with the diagrams from anaphase to telophase?

a)

Cytokinesis starts → metaphase forms → genetic recombination

b)

Nuclear envelopes break → chromosomes pair → cytokinesis pauses

c)

Chromosomes condense → spindle forms → DNA replicates

d)

Centromeres split → chromatids separate → nuclei reform

55.

In telophase, why do spindle fibers disappear as shown in the diagram?

a)

Kinetochores are forming for metaphase

b)

DNA replication begins on spindle tracks

c)

Centromeres require free tubulin to divide

d)

Chromosome movement has finished at the poles

56.

Which observation would confirm a cell is in anaphase rather than telophase based on the diagrams?

a)

A deep cleavage furrow constricting the membrane

b)

Sister chromatids moving apart toward poles

c)

Chromosomes decondensed into diffuse chromatin

d)

Two distinct nuclear envelopes surrounding DNA

57.

During cytokinesis in animal cells, which structure creates the cleavage furrow illustrated?

a)

A cellulose-rich cell plate

b)

A kinetochore microtubule belt

c)

A centromere protein scaffold

d)

An actin–myosin contractile ring

58.

Two daughter cells appear with newly formed nuclei and separated cytoplasm. Which mitotic phase has just concluded according to the diagrams?

a)

S phase of interphase

b)

Anaphase before chromatid split

c)

Prophase before metaphase

d)

Cytokinesis completing telophase

59.

What is the immediate cellular outcome of mitosis in typical somatic cells?

a)

Two nonidentical gamete cells form

b)

Two identical daughter cells form

c)

Four unique daughter cells form

d)

One larger polyploid cell forms

60.

A parent cell with a diploid chromosome number undergoes mitosis. Which statement best describes the daughter cells?

a)

They are haploid and genetically identical

b)

They are diploid and genetically identical

c)

They are haploid and genetically variable

d)

They are diploid and genetically variable

61.

A researcher observes two daughter cells after mitosis that differ genetically from the parent cell. Which scenario most plausibly explains this observation?

a)

Independent assortment created new alleles

b)

Crossing over during metaphase occurred

c)

Reduction division halved chromosome number

d)

A replication error produced mutations