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Virology MCQs and MSQs (Grade 12)

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which one of the following diseases has not been established to be caused by parvovirus B19?

a)

Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)

b)

Transient aplastic crisis

c)

Hydrops fetalis

d)

Fulminant hepatitis

2.

The Herpesviridae can be subdivided into three ______ based on the type of cells most often infected and the site of ______. Choose the option that correctly completes both blanks.

a)

species; persistence

b)

genera; size of virion

c)

subfamilies; latency

d)

subfamilies; persistence

3.

A 20-year-old female college student presents with fever, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy, accompanied by lymphocytosis featuring atypical cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Infectious hepatitis

b)

Infectious mononucleosis

c)

Chickenpox

d)

Herpes simplex infection

e)

Viral meningitis

4.

Women with genital herpes reactivated in the last weeks of pregnancy can most likely avoid passing HSV-2 to their newborns if she undergoes cesarian section.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Which of the following best describes the currently licensed smallpox vaccines?

a)

Live attenuated smallpox virus

b)

Inactivated smallpox virus

c)

Live vaccinia virus

d)

Inactivated vaccinia virus

e)

Reassortant vaccine containing both vaccinia and smallpox viruses

6.

Which 3 of the following poxviruses can infect humans? Select all that apply.

a)

Monkeypox

b)

Smallpox

c)

Tanapox

d)

Cowpox

e)

Yaba tumor virus

7.

Smallpox vaccination is not protective in case of a monkeypox infection outbreak.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

How did Jenner use cowpox to defend against smallpox?

a)

By giving material to people that was contaminated with cowpox, people developed an immunity against smallpox, which is similar.

b)

By discovering a vaccine for cowpox, which he altered so that it could defend against smallpox as well.

c)

By performing most of his scientific tests on the safer cowpox so that he wouldn't endanger himself during experiments.

d)

By performing most of his scientific tests on the safer cowpox so that he wouldn't endanger his subjects during experiments.

9.

Smallpox virus is a potential biothreat agent because the human population today has little or no immunity.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Poxviruses are like other DNA viruses in that the entire multiplication cycle takes place in the cytoplasm of infected cells; however, nuclear factors may be involved in transcription and virion assembly.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Herpesviruses are large viruses with a double-stranded DNA genome. Which genome size range is correct?

a)

25-35 kbp

b)

70-80 kbp

c)

100-135 kbp

d)

125-250 kbp

12.

About 50 different herpesviruses are known to infect various animals.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Based on sequence analysis and serologic assays, the most likely origin of the SARS coronavirus is which of the following?

a)

Recombination between a human and an animal coronavirus that created a new virus

b)

Mutation of a human coronavirus that resulted in increased virulence

c)

Acquisition of human cellular genes by a human coronavirus that allowed viral evasion of the host immune response

d)

Jump of an animal coronavirus into humans

14.

Which 2 of the following statements reflect the pathogenesis of influenza? Select all that apply.

a)

The virus enters the host in airborne droplets.

b)

Viremia is common.

c)

The virus frequently establishes persistent infections in the lungs.

d)

Pneumonia is often associated with secondary bacterial infections.

e)

Viral infection does not kill cells in the respiratory tract.

15.

Coronavirus infections in humans usually cause a common cold syndrome. However, the outbreak of SARS in 2002–03 was characterized by pneumonia and progressive respiratory failure. The control of this disease was achieved primarily due to

a)

A live-attenuated vaccine for coronaviruses

b)

The antiviral drug amantadine

c)

Infection control measures, including isolation and wearing of personal protective equipment (PPE)

d)

The antiviral drug acyclovir

e)

Influenza drug Tamiflu

16.

The antigenic drifts of influenza A virus cause worldwide epidemics.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Influenza virus A neuraminidase forms a spike structure composed of 6 identical monomers, each with enzyme activity.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

The following are common characteristics of coronaviruses, except for one. Which is NOT correct?

a)

Possess cross-reactive antigens with influenza viruses

b)

Contain the largest genomes among RNA viruses

c)

Can cause gastroenteritis

d)

Are distributed worldwide

19.

What is the primary route of transmission for the majority of human coronaviruses?

a)

Fecal-oral

b)

Respiratory

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Perinatal mother-to-infant

e)

Surgical manipulations

20.

There is currently an approved antiviral treatment for COVID-19 coronaviruses, but no vaccine yet.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

The type-specific antigen (A, B, or C) of influenza viruses is found on the viral nucleocapsid.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Diagnosis of an influenza virus infection can be made through various methods, including isolating the virus.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Which 2 of the following statements regarding the prevention and treatment of influenza are correct? Select all that apply.

a)

Booster doses of vaccine are not recommended.

b)

Drugs that inhibit neuraminidase are active only against influenza A.

c)

As with some other live vaccines, the attenuated influenza vaccine should not be given to pregnant women.

d)

The influenza vaccine contains several serotypes of virus.

e)

The virus strains in the influenza vaccine vary from year to year.

24.

The amount of HIV in the blood (viral load) measured by Western Blot assay is of prognostic value and is crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of drug therapy.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The member of the Lentivirus genus (classified in the Retroviridae family) HIV-1 is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Contain a DNA genome

b)

Cause tumors in mice

c)

Infect cells of the immune system

d)

Have related sequences endogenous in normal cells

e)

Cause rapidly progressive neurologic disease

26.

HAART treatment results in long-term suppression of HIV in the body, even during the period when (and if) the drugs are stopped.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

A practitioner nurse had an accident with an inserted needlestick with blood from an HIV-positive patient. Six months later, the nurse's serum was positive in 2 repeated EIA tests but negative by Western blot. What suggestion would be more correct about the nurse's condition?

a)

Is probably infected with HIV

b)

Is in the window between acute infection with HIV and seroconversion

c)

Is probably not infected with HIV

d)

May be infected with a drug-resistant strain of HIV

e)

May be a long-term progressor

28.

The following statements concerning HIV infection are correct except which two? Select the two incorrect statements.

a)

Screening tests for antibodies and nucleic acid are useful to prevent transmission of HIV through transfused blood.

b)

Zidovudine (azidothymidine) is widely used in AIDS treatment as a protease inhibitor.

c)

There is evidence that an individual is protected against HIV by application of the HTLV vaccine.

d)

The opportunistic infections seen in AIDS are primarily the result of a loss of cell-mediated immunity.

e)

Fever and malaise are the most common symptoms of acute HIV infection.

29.

Vertical transmission may mainly occur through the transplacental route and also during the birth process. The role of postnatal transmission through breast milk can be excluded.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The treatment of HIV infection using HAART usually includes a protease inhibitor. Which feature of such protease inhibitors is correct?

a)

Seldom gives rise to resistant mutants of HIV

b)

Inhibits a late step in virus replication

31.

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) develops many years after a mumps infection contracted in childhood.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

In hosts with prion diseases, no innate immune response, such as the induction of interferons, has been registered.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Hepatitis A virus is assigned to the genus Hepatovirus in the family Hepadnaviridae; only one serotype is known for HAV.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

In the nucleus, the partially double-stranded HBV viral genome is converted to covalently closed circular double-stranded DNA (CCCDNA), which serves as a template for all viral transcripts.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Which antigenic type of hepatitis B virus is present in the envelope?

a)

HBsAg

b)

HBcAg

c)

HBeAg

d)

HBxAg

36.

All of the following persons are recommended to receive hepatitis B vaccine because they have a risk factor for HBV infection except:

a)

Sexually active persons who are not in long-term, mutually monogamous relationships

b)

Injection drug users

c)

Pregnant women

d)

Persons who live in a household with a person who is HBsAg positive

37.

The diagnosis of hepatitis A virus infection is primarily based on which of the following?

a)

Aminotransferase levels

b)

Detection of faecal HAV by immunoelectron microscopy

c)

Both (a) and (b)

38.

Which two of the following statements about HBV are false?

a)

Replication involves reverse transcriptase.

b)

Infected persons may have large numbers of noninfectious viral particles circulating in their bloodstream.

c)

Infection can result in cirrhosis.

39.

The majority of HCV infections lead to chronic infections when infected early in childhood.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which of the following specimens contain hepatitis B virus in an infected person?

a)

Blood

b)

Semen

c)

Saliva

41.

Which of the following viral infections can result in a chronic carrier state?

a)

HBV

b)

HCV

42.

What is the main clinical picture of hepatitis A?

a)

Rash

b)

Limb paralysis

c)

Jaundice and abdominal discomfort

43.

HCV-associated liver disease is the major cause for liver transplantation.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Sandfly fever virus, which belongs to the Phleboviridae family, causes infection with fever, headache and photophobia.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Following statements are true regarding Yellow Fever (YF) disease except which two:

a)

YF occurs primarily in the tropical areas of Africa and South America.

b)

Causative agent of YF is a Flavivirus.

46.

West Nile virus and Japanese encephalitis virus both cause initially flu-like syndrome followed by hepatitis and hemorrhages.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Dengue hemorrhagic fever occurs as a secondary infection in the presence of preexisting antibodies from a primary infection by a different viral serotype.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Transmission of Marburg virus between humans does not occur.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Dengue virus is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito, which is also the vector of yellow fever virus.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Arboviral diseases occur primarily in the tropics and have been found in northern temperate zones such as Alaska and Siberia.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

West Nile virus disease may be transmitted from an infected bird to a person by a mosquito. This is an example of (select two answers):

a)

Endogenous infection

b)

Fomite-borne disease

52.

Which statement about Hantaviruses is not correct?

a)

Rodents are the natural hosts for hantaviruses.

b)

Two main manifestations are HFRS and HCPS.

53.

The group name Arboviruses highlights the fact that these viruses are transmitted by arthropods, primarily by mosquitoes, ticks and human lice.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Togaviruses are characterized by the following properties except:

a)

Icosahedral nucleocapsid surrounded by an envelope

b)

Single-stranded, positive-polarity RNA genome

55.

In arbovirus infections, only the female individuals serve as the vector of the virus because they require a blood meal in order for progeny to be produced.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Tumor viruses may have the following characteristics:

a)

No special shape, chemical composition or size

b)

Large, enveloped viruses

57.

Which statement regarding viral carcinogenesis is not correct?

a)

Viruses can cause cancer in animals and humans.

b)

Tumor viruses frequently establish persistent infections in natural hosts.

58.

No association of adenoviruses with human neoplasms has been found.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Following DNA-containing viruses have proved potential in development of human malignancies except which two:

a)

Epstein-Barr virus (human)

b)

Papillomavirus

60.

Genital warts can be routinely treated by application of the following except:

a)

Cryotherapy

b)

Laser therapy

61.

Human cancer viruses include the following viruses or virus groups except:

a)

Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C viruses

b)

Papillomaviruses

62.

HIV is also considered a cancer agent because virus-associated immune suppression supports cancer development.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Tumor viruses establish persistent infections in hosts, with up to several months latent between initial infection and tumor appearance.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer. This cancer is common worldwide and has a sexually transmitted viral etiology. The causative agent of human cervical cancer is

a)

Hepatitis C virus

b)

Hepatitis B virus

c)

Human papillomaviruses, high-risk types

d)

Polyomaviruses

e)

Herpesviruses

65.

No association of adenoviruses with human neoplasms has been found

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Which statement regarding HTLV-1 virus is not correct?

a)

Transmission occurs primarily by breastfeeding

b)

The source of virus is contaminated blood used for transfusions

c)

Virus can be spread between intravenous drug users

d)

Virus can be acquired by sexual contact

e)

All of the above is correct

67.

Retroviruses that contain oncogenes are slower transforming viruses, while the viruses with oncogenes that are highly oncogenic.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Which of the following is not characteristic of paramyxoviruses?

a)

Genome is negative-sense RNA

b)

Envelope contains a glycoprotein with fusion activity

c)

Paramyxoviruses do not undergo genetic reassortment

d)

Replication cycle occurs in cytoplasm of susceptible cell

e)

Genome is segmented

69.

Which statement about parainfluenza viruses is not correct?

a)

Replication of parainfluenza viruses is limited to respiratory epithelium

b)

Reinfection with parainfluenza viruses is common

c)

Type 3 parainfluenza virus causes bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants

d)

Viremia is developed in all parainfluenza infections

70.

Serious bronchiolitis or pneumonia related to respiratory syncytial virus occurs most often in children under 2 years of age.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

For rabies, there can be a long incubation period (months to years) from time of exposure to appearance of symptoms

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Domestic animals are the source of most human rabies in the United States

a)

True

b)

False

73.

For which of the following paramyxoviruses is an effective vaccine available?

a)

Parainfluenza virus type 1

b)

Measles virus

c)

Respiratory syncytial virus

d)

Mumps virus

e)

Metapneumovirus

74.

Which of the following statements is more likely to be true of measles (rubeola) than German measles (rubella)?

a)

Koplik spots are present

b)

It causes birth defects

c)

It causes only a mild illness

d)

Human beings are the only natural host

e)

Attenuated virus vaccine is available for prevention

75.

Which of the following paramyxoviruses has an HN surface glycoprotein lacking hemagglutinin activity?

a)

Measles virus

b)

Mumps virus

c)

Parainfluenza virus type 1

d)

Respiratory syncytial virus

e)

Rubella virus

76.

Which of the following statements about the congenital rubella syndrome is correct?

a)

The disease can be prevented by vaccination of school-age children with measles vaccine

b)

A woman can be infected at any time during pregnancy

c)

Deafness is a common defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome

d)

Only rare strains of the rubella virus are teratogenic

e)

None of the above

77.

The measles virus gains access to the human body via the respiratory tract, where it multiplies locally. No systemic spread occurs

a)

True

b)

False

78.

A runner reports an "unprovoked bite" from a neighborhood dog. The dog was captured by local animal control authorities, and it appears healthy. What is the appropriate action?

a)

Confine and observe the dog for 10 days for signs suggestive of rabies

b)

Begin postexposure prophylaxis of the bitten person

c)

Immediately euthanize the dog

d)

Because canine rabies has been eliminated in the United States, dog bites are no longer an indication for postexposure prophylaxis, and no further action is needed

e)

Test the dog for rabies antibody

79.

A 30-year-old man who is HIV-antibody positive with a CD4 count of 100 has a diagnosis of disseminated histoplasmosis. Which one of the following is the best choice of drug to treat his disseminated histoplasmosis?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Caspofungin

c)

Clotrimazole

d)

Flucytosine

e)

Terbinafine

80.

Arthrospores of Coccidioides are very light and are easily carried by the wind

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Subcutaneous mycosis is caused by endogenous fungi that are part of the normal human microbiota.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Most fungi grow well in acidic culture conditions and tolerate low moisture conditions

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Which of the following fungi is most likely to be found within reticuloendothelial cells?

a)

Histoplasma capsulatum

b)

Sporothrix schenckii

c)

Cryptococcus neoformans

d)

Candida albicans

84.

Molds are routinely speciated by a battery of physiologic tests, such as the ability to assimilate various sugars

a)

True

b)

False

85.

All the statements regarding the dermatophytes are correct except which 2

a)

Dermatophytes utilize keratin as a nutrient and energy source

b)

Dermatophytes infect the keratinized outer layer of the scalp, glabrous skin, and nails

c)

Dermatophyte infections do not induce an allergic and inflammatory eczematous response in the host

d)

Characteristic lesions on skin and nails are formed in a circular pattern

e)

Dermatophytes can grow well at human body temperature

86.

What term refers to fungal infections deep within the body?

a)

Systemic mycoses

b)

Cutaneous mycoses

c)

Subcutaneous mycoses

d)

Superficial mycoses

87.

Regarding Blastomyces dermatitidis, which one of the following is most accurate?

a)

It forms a mycelium in culture at 3737^\circ C in the clinical lab

b)

Humoral immunity is the main host defense against this organism

c)

The most important virulence factor of this organism is endotoxin in its cell wall

d)

It is a dimorphic fungus that exists as a mold in the soil and a yeast in the body

88.

Which statement regarding fungi is correct?

a)

All fungi are able to grow as yeasts

b)

Although fungi are eukaryotes, they lack mitochondria

c)

Fungi are photosynthetic

d)

Fungi have one or more nuclei and chromosomes

e)

Few fungi possess cell membranes

89.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a)

Teleomorph—produces both sexual and asexual spores

b)

Dermatomycosis—fungal infection of the skin

c)

Dimorphic fungus—grows as a yeast or a mold

d)

Systemic mycosis—fungal infection of body organs

e)

Coenocytic hyphae—hyphae without cross-walls

90.

Cryptosporidium parvum is one of the major causes of epidemic diarrhea, with domestic animals as reservoirs. It manifests as short-term mild diarrhea in AIDS patients.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Balantidium coli is primarily a zoonotic intestinal parasite that infects farmers through contact with horses, cows, and pigs. It causes diseases similar to amebiasis, including the formation of extra-intestinal abscesses.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Which of the following parasites is transmitted by sandflies?

a)

Leishmania donovani

b)

Wuchereria bancrofti

c)

Plasmodium falciparum

d)

Plasmodium vivax

93.

In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is

a)

Hypnozoite

b)

Merozoite

c)

Gametocyte

d)

Sporozoite

94.

Laboratory microbiological diagnosis of a patient with a suspected liver abscess due to Entamoeba histolytica primarily should include

a)

Indirect hemagglutination test and skin test

b)

Culture for intestinal bacteria

c)

Stool examination and blood smear

d)

Stool examination and serological test for amebic antibodies in the blood

95.

Which statement regarding T. solium is not correct?

a)

Adult worm size is 2–4 meters long

b)

Scolex armed with six suckers and a circle of hooks

96.

Regarding Toxoplasma gondii, which one of the following is most accurate?

a)

To prevent this infection, pregnant women are advised not to drink pasteurized milk.

b)

The most important definitive host (the host in which the sexual cycle occurs) for Toxoplasma is the domestic cat.

c)

Infection in people with reduced cell‑mediated immunity, such as AIDS patients, is characterized by persistent watery (nonbloody) diarrhea.

97.

Ascaris lumbricoides is the longest and largest roundworm.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Hookworm disease is expressed as anemia with iron deficiency (malabsorption syndrome).

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Each of the following parasites is transmitted by insects EXCEPT:

a)

Trypanosoma gambiense

b)

Trypanosoma cruzi

c)

Leishmania donovani

100.

Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they

a)

are motile.

b)

lack mitochondria.

c)

do produce cysts.

101.

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) develops many years after a measles infection contracted yearly in childhood.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

HIV uses the CD4 receptor expressed on macrophages and T lymphocytes. Coreceptors include the chemokine receptors CXCR4 (for macrophage-tropic strains of HIV-1) and CCR5 (for lymphocyte-tropic strains of the virus).

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Which of the following factors can be involved in the development of slow virus diseases and most clearly has immunosuppression in its pathogenesis?

a)

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

b)

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

c)

Creutzfeldt‑Jakob disease

104.

Regarding the structure and replication of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which two of the following is most accurate?

a)

Viral mRNA is the template for the synthesis of the genome RNA.

b)

During entry of HIV into the cell, the viral p24 protein interacts with the CD4 protein on the cell surface.

105.

The initial symptom of HIV infection is

a)

loss of T cells.

b)

lymphadenopathy.

106.

Which 2 of the following statements reflect the pathogenesis of influenza? Select two.

a)

The virus enters the host in airborne droplets.

b)

Viremia is common.

c)

The virus frequently establishes persistent infections in the lungs.

d)

Pneumonia is often associated with secondary bacterial infections.

e)

Viral infection does not kill cells in the respiratory tract.

107.

The following are common characteristics of coronaviruses, except for one. Which is NOT correct?

a)

Possess cross-reactive antigens with influenza viruses

b)

Contain the largest genomes among RNA viruses

c)

Can cause gastroenteritis

d)

Are distributed worldwide

108.

There is currently an approved antiviral treatment for Covid-19 coronaviruses, but no vaccine yet.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

The type-specific antigen (A B, or C) of influenza is found on the viral nucleocapsid.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Influenza virus A neuraminidase forms a spike structure composed of 6 identical monomers, each with enzyme activity.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

What is the primary route of transmission for the majority of human coronaviruses?

a)

Fecal-oral

b)

Respiratory

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Perinatal mother-to-infant

e)

Surgical manipulations

112.

The antigenic drifts of influenza A virus cause worldwide epidemics.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

Which 2 of the following statements regarding the prevention and treatment of influenza are correct? Select two.

a)

Booster doses of vaccine are not recommended.

b)

Drugs that inhibit neuraminidase are active only against influenza A.

c)

As with some other live vaccines, the attenuated influenza vaccine should not be given to pregnant women.

d)

The influenza vaccine contains several serotypes of virus.

e)

The virus strains in the influenza vaccine vary from year to year.

114.

Diagnosis of flu can be easily done since clinical symptoms reliably distinguish influenza from other respiratory illnesses.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

"Solar corona" of Coronaviruses are formed by 8-nm-long club- or petal-shaped projections that are widely spaced on the outer surface of the envelope.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

An epidemic of severe acute respiratory virus infections occurred among the elderly residents of a nursing home. Influenza viruses A -B and/or COVID19 coronaviruses are suspected. The treatment and prevention of these diseases before the results of virology lab investigations are obtained can be accomplished by use of which 2 of the options below? Select two.

a)

An experimental subunit vaccine for coronavirus

b)

A live attenuated flu vaccine

c)

The antiviral drug amantadine

d)

Strict infection control measures including isolation and wearing of protective means

e)

The antiviral drug oseltamivir

117.

For COVID-19 infection, it usually takes 5–6 days from infection for symptoms to show; however, it can last up to 30 days.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

The neuraminidase of influenza viruses facilitates the release of virus particles from infected cells.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

The origin of the SARS coronavirus most likely is a mutation(s) of a human coronavirus that resulted in increased virulence.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?

a)

It is caused by genetic reassortment of genome segments

b)

It results in new subtypes over time

c)

It affects predominantly the matrix protein

d)

It results in major antigenic changes

e)

It is exhibited only by influenza A viruses

121.

The incidence of coronavirus infections varies markedly from year to year, although it is estimated that coronaviruses cause, on average, 50% of all infections.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

The type-specific antigen (A, B, or C) of influenza viruses is found on which viral constituent?

a)

Hemagglutinin

b)

Neuraminidase

c)

Nucleocapsid

d)

Polymerase complex

e)

Lipid in the viral envelope

123.

Each of the following statements concerning the prevention and treatment of influenza is correct except.

a)

The inactivated influenza vaccine contains H1N1 virus but the live attenuated influenza vaccine contains H3N2 virus.

b)

The flu vaccine is a cocktail of one or two type A viruses and one or two type B virus strains.

c)

The vaccine is recommended to be given each year because the permanent drifts of the virus drifts.

d)

Oseltamivir is effective against both influenza A and B viruses influenza.

e)

The main antigen in the vaccine that induces protective antibody is the hemagglutinin.

124.

Risk factors for severe MERS coronavirus infection include which of the following?

a)

Recent camel exposure

b)

Prior coronavirus infection

c)

Seasonal allergies

d)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

125.

Influenza C causes mild, sporadic respiratory disease but sometimes can reach epidemic spread levels.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

A woman with insulin-dependent diabetes occasionally broke the dorsal side of her right hand. After a month of treatment with penicillin the ulcer had not healed, and the doctor decided to culture a swab of the wound at 35°C on blood agar. In parallel a smear was made for Gram staining where large (10 μm) cells were shown. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures incubated at 25°C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is

a)

gram-negative bacterium

b)

dimorphic fungus

c)

parasitic algae

d)

yeast

e)

protozoan

127.

Which statement regarding fungal growth and morphology is correct?

a)

Pseudohyphae are produced by all yeasts.

b)

Molds produce hyphae that may or may not be partitioned with cross-walls or septa.

c)

Conidia are produced by sexual reproduction.

d)

Most yeasts reproduce by budding and lack cell walls.

e)

Most pathogenic dimorphic fungi produce hyphae in the host and yeasts at 30°C.

128.

Fungi are characterized by which 3 out of the properties listed below? Select three.

a)

are mainly aerobic or also facultatively anaerobic

b)

Fungal spores are used for reproduction

c)

prefer a neutral environment (pH 7)

d)

are chemoheterotrophs

e)

cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure

129.

Around 50 species are responsible for more than 90% of the fungal infections in humans and other animals.

a)

True

b)

False

130.

White piedra is often acquired by penetrating wounds sustained while gardening.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

Histoplasmosis occurs primarily in the tropical areas of Central and South America.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

Fungal cells that reproduce by budding are observed in the infected tissues of patients with which condition?

a)

Candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and sporotrichosis

b)

Mycetoma, candidiasis and mucormycosis

c)

Tinea corporis, tinea unguium, and tinea versicolor

133.

A pregnant woman in her third trimester of pregnancy, lives in the Central Valley of California. She complains of severe low back pain of several weeks in duration. An X-ray reveals a lesion in the fourth lumbar vertebra. Material from a needle biopsy of the lesion is examined by a pathologist who concluded that the patient has coccidioidomycosis. Of the following, which one did the pathologist see in the biopsy?

a)

Nonseptate hyphae

b)

Septate hyphae

c)

Spherules containing endospores

d)

Yeasts with a single bud

e)

Yeasts with multiple buds

134.

The patient, a young woman, applied to a physician complaining on a vaginal discharge. Which one of the following statements is LEAST accurate or appropriate?

a)

Antibiotics predispose to Candida vaginitis by killing the normal flora lactobacilli that keep the vaginal pH low.

b)

A Gram stain of the discharge should reveal budding yeasts.

c)

This is a normal flora of oral cavity, genitalia, large intestine or skin of 20% of humans.

d)

Culture of the discharge on Sabouraud's agar should produce a white mycelium with aerial conidia.

135.

What type of infection is caused by Malassezia furfur?

a)

Superficial

b)

Cutaneous

c)

Subcutaneous

d)

Systematic

e)

Opportunistic

136.

Chitin, a main component of fungal cell wall, is a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

Following statements regarding Retroviruses are true except.

a)

The viral genome consists of two identical molecules of positive strand

b)

Virion contains an enzyme reverse transcriptase

c)

Many vertebrates, including humans, possess multiple copies of endogenous reproviral RNA sequences