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Project Cash Flow and Financial Perspectives Worksheet

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
  1. Incremental cash flow is defined as:

a)

All of the above

b)

The investor’s cash flow with a replacement investment project compared to without a replacement project

c)

The investor’s cash flow with an expansion project compared to without an expansion project

d)

The investor’s cash flow with a new project compared to without a new project

2.

Cash flows from which of the following perspectives can be prepared using the indirect method?

a)

Net cash flow from the Equity Perspective (EPV)

b)

Net cash flow from the All Equity Perspective (AEPV)

c)

All of the above

d)

Net cash flow from the Total Investment Perspective (TIPV)

3.

The timing of project cash flows is:

a)

None of the above

b)

At the beginning of the period

c)

At any point during the period

d)

At the end of the period

4.

Cash flows from which of the following perspectives can be prepared using the direct method?

a)

Net cash flow from the All Equity Perspective (AEPV)

b)

All of the above

c)

Net cash flow from the Total Investment Perspective (TIPV)

d)

Net cash flow from the Equity Perspective (EPV)

5.

Characteristics of profit flow include:

a)

All of the above

b)

Nominal profit recorded in accounting books

c)

Actual profits attracted by investors

d)

Accurately measures the project’s debt repayment ability

6.

The time interval of project cash flows is usually:

a)

Month

b)

Year

c)

Day

d)

Quarter

7.

Characteristics of project cash flows include:

a)

Accurately assesses the project’s ability to meet debt obligations

b)

Shows the actual cash held or shortfall of the project investors

c)

Accurately measures the timing of cash outflows and inflows

d)

All of the above

8.

Which of the following is a financial appraisal perspective?

a)

All Equity Perspective (AEPV)

b)

Equity Perspective (EPV)

c)

All of the above

d)

Total Investment Perspective (TIPV)

9.

The salvage value of factories and equipment is determined based on:

a)

Market value at liquidation estimated by experts, if market valuation is possible

b)

Remaining value of factories and equipment at the end of the final operating year, if market valuation is not possible

c)

All of the above

d)

Remaining value of factories and equipment at the beginning of the liquidation year, if market valuation is not possible

10.

If EBIT is earnings before interest and taxes; NOPAT is net operating profit after tax; EAT is net income after tax; Dep is depreciation; Int is interest expense; TS is tax shield from borrowing; and ΔWC is change in working capital, which of the following formulas determines project operating cash flow (without tax shield) from interest?

a)

EBIT × (1 − t%) + Dep + TS + Int − ΔWC

b)

EAT + Dep + Int − ΔWC

c)

NOPAT + Dep − ΔWC

d)

All of the above

11.

The purpose of preparing project cash flow planning tables is to:

a)

Assess the project’s debt repayment capacity

b)

Calculate annual income tax

c)

Estimate the project’s working capital requirements

d)

Establish the project’s cash flows

12.

The purpose of project cash flow planning is to determine:

a)

The project’s capital needs and funding sources

b)

The financial efficiency of the project

c)

All of the above

d)

The debt repayment ability and loan repayment schedule of the project

13.

Why should the project’s construction completion date be used as the starting point for dividing project cash flows?

a)

Both A and B are incorrect

b)

To conveniently determine annual expenditures and revenues

c)

To separate investment cash flows from project operation cash flows

d)

Both A and B are correct

14.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about project cash flows?

a)

Calculation of the project’s incremental cash flows

b)

Including sunk costs

c)

Including side effects from undertaking or not undertaking other projects

d)

Including opportunity costs

15.

Which item in the project’s working capital needs is current assets?

a)

All of the above

b)

Minimum required cash balances

c)

Minimum raw materials, fuel, and spare parts inventory

d)

Finished goods inventory

16.

Changes in depreciation time and method will:

a)

Indirectly affect project cash flows

b)

Directly and indirectly affect project cash flows

c)

Directly affect project cash flows

d)

Not directly or indirectly affect project cash flows

17.

The liquidation value of fixed assets is determined as:

a)

All of the above

b)

Operating cash flow

c)

Investment cash flow

d)

Financing cash flow

18.

Consider the following items: i. Project construction costs ii. Workers’ wages during production iii. Depreciation expenses iv. Sales revenue v. Construction expenses of project works Which of these are not included in the project’s cash inflows and outflows?

a)

ii, iii, v

b)

i, ii, iii, v

c)

iii, iv, v

d)

i, iii, v

19.

Equity contributions to the project are considered as which type of cash flow?

a)

Investment cash flow

b)

Financing cash flow

c)

Operating cash flow

d)

All of the above are incorrect

20.

If EBIT is earnings before interest and taxes; NOPAT is net operating profit after tax; EAT is net income after tax; Dep is depreciation; Int is interest expense; TS is tax shield from borrowing; and ΔWC is change in working capital, which of the following formulas determines project operating cash flow (with tax shield) from interest?

a)

EBIT × (1 − t%) + Dep + TS + Int − ΔWC

b)

NOPAT + Dep − ΔWC

c)

EAT + Dep + Int − ΔWC

d)

All of the above are incorrect

21.

Project cash flow from the Equity Perspective (EPV) is defined as project cash flow in the case of:

a)

The project has capital and uses it effectively

b)

All of the above

c)

The project has no debt

d)

After subtracting debt repayment and adding financing

22.

Which of the following changes will reduce the project’s net operating cash flow?

a)

Increase in minimum cash balance

b)

Decrease in inventory

c)

Decrease in accounts receivable

d)

Increase in accounts payable

23.

Choose the correct statement:

a)

Cash flow (AEPV) includes the tax shield benefit from interest, while cash flow (TIPV) does not

b)

Cash flow (AEPV) does not include the tax shield benefit from interest, while cash flow (TIPV) does

c)

Both cash flows (AEPV) and (TIPV) exclude the tax shield benefit from interest

d)

Both cash flows (AEPV) and (TIPV) include the tax shield benefit from interest

24.

Project cash flow from the Equity Perspective (EPV) measures the financial return to:

a)

Shareholders

b)

Investors

c)

Shareholders and banks

d)

Banks

25.

Investment cash flow consists of inflows and outflows for:

a)

The project’s fixed asset investment activities

b)

The project’s asset investment activities

c)

The project’s tangible asset investment activities

d)

The project’s financial asset investment activities

26.

Which type of cash flow can be prepared using the indirect method?

a)

Investment cash flow

b)

All of the above

c)

Operating cash flow

d)

Financing cash flow

27.

Project cash flow from the All Equity Perspective (AEPV) represents the project’s cash flow in the case of:

a)

The project has no debt

b)

The project has debt and equity

c)

The project after repaying debt to lenders

d)

All of the above are incorrect

28.

Project financing cash flow includes inflows and outflows for:

a)

Raising project equity capital

b)

Raising project debt capital

c)

Raising internal funds for the project

d)

Raising external funds for the project

29.

Project cash flow from the Total Investment Perspective (TIPV) represents the project’s cash flow in the case of:

a)

The project after repaying debt to lenders

b)

All of the above are incorrect

c)

The project has debt and equity

d)

The project has no debt

30.

What is the effect of depreciation expense on the project’s cash flow or income?

a)

Decreases project cash flow by the amount of annual depreciation

b)

Increases taxable income by the amount of annual depreciation

c)

Increases project cash flow by the amount of annual depreciation

d)

D. Decreases taxable income by the amount of annual depreciation

31.

Which type of cash flow can be prepared using the direct method?

a)

Investment cash flow

b)

All of the above

c)

Operating cash flow

d)

Financing cash flow

32.

Net cash flow from the All Equity Perspective (AEPV) is determined as:

a)

Operating cash flow (without tax shield) + Investment cash flow

b)

Net cash flow from TIPV − Tax savings from interest

c)

Net cash flow from EPV + Tax savings from interest − Financing cash flow

d)

All of the above

33.

Net cash flow from the Total Investment Perspective (TIPV) is determined as:

a)

Operating cash flow (with tax shield) + Investment cash flow

b)

All of the above

c)

Net cash flow from AEPV + Tax savings from interest

d)

Net cash flow from EPV − Financing cash flow

34.

Which of the following items is included in project cash flow under the Equity Perspective (EPV)?

a)

Equity issuance

b)

Dividend payments

c)

Project preparation and appraisal costs

d)

Land opportunity cost

35.

Project cash flows include:

a)

Investment cash flow

b)

Financing cash flow

c)

Operating cash flow

d)

All of the above

36.

Operating cash flow consists of inflows and outflows from:

a)

Production and supply of project outputs

b)

The project's investment activities

c)

The project's capital-raising activities

d)

The project's financing activities

37.

Payments to suppliers of raw materials are included in:

a)

None of the above

b)

Financing cash flow

c)

Operating cash flow

d)

Investment cash flow

38.

Net cash flow from the Equity Perspective (EPV) is determined as:

a)

Operating cash flow (with tax shield) + Investment cash flow + Financing cash flow

b)

All of the above

c)

Net cash flow from TIPV + Financing cash flow

d)

Operating cash flow (without tax shield) + Investment cash flow + Tax shield + Financing cash flow

39.

Project cash flow from the All Equity Perspective (AEPV) measures the financial return to:

a)

Investors

b)

Banks

c)

Shareholders and banks

d)

Shareholders

40.

Project cash flow from the Total Investment Perspective (TIPV) measures the financial return to:

a)

Shareholders and banks

b)

Banks

c)

Shareholders

d)

Investors

41.

Incremental cash flow is defined as:

a)

The investor's cash flow in the case of an expansion project compared to without an expansion project

b)

The investor's cash flow in the case of a replacement project compared to without a replacement project

c)

The investor's cash flow in the case of a new project compared to without a new project

d)

All of the above are correct

42.

Which of the following items is included in project cash flow under the Equity Perspective (EPV)?

a)

Land opportunity cost

b)

Equity issuance

c)

Project preparation and appraisal costs

d)

Dividend payments

43.

Characteristics of profit streams include:

a)

Nominal profit recorded in accounting books

b)

Accurately measures the project's debt repayment ability

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Actual profit earned by investors

44.

Characteristics of project cash flows include:

a)

Accurately measures the timing of cash outflows and inflows

b)

Accurately assesses the project's ability to meet debt obligations

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Shows the actual cash held or deficit of project investors

45.

Cash flow from which of the following perspectives can be prepared using the direct method?

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Net cash flow from the Total Investment Perspective (TIPV)

c)

Net cash flow from the All Equity Perspective (AEPV)

d)

Net cash flow from the Equity Perspective (EPV)

46.

Cash flow from which of the following perspectives can be prepared using the indirect method?

a)

Net cash flow from EPV

b)

Net cash flow from TIPV

c)

Net cash flow from AEPV

d)

All of the above are correct

47.

Which of the following is considered a sunk cost of the project?

a)

Project preparation costs

b)

Project company establishment costs

c)

Design and construction costs

d)

Groundbreaking costs

48.

When preparing project operating cash flows, opportunity costs at market rental rates will:

a)

Be recorded as an outflow under the direct method and adjusted upward in net income under the indirect method

b)

Not be recorded under the direct method and adjusted downward in net income under the indirect method

c)

Not be recorded under the direct method and adjusted upward in net income under the indirect method

d)

Be recorded as an outflow under the direct method and adjusted downward in net income under the indirect method

49.

Choose the correct statement:

a)

If the land is leased with annual rent, the project has no salvage value from land

b)

If the land is purchased, its salvage value is the market price at the year of purchase

c)

If land use rights (long-term) are contributed as capital, the salvage value is treated the same as purchased land

d)

All of the above are correct

50.

When a project incurs opportunity costs at market rental rates, these costs will:

a)

Not be recorded as outflows and not recorded in project operating costs

b)

Recorded as outflows and recorded in project operating costs

c)

Recorded as outflows

d)

Recorded as project operating costs

51.

Which of the following can be considered sunk costs of the project?

a)

Expenditures during the investment preparation stage

b)

Costs not relevant to the investment decision

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Non-recoverable costs if the project is not undertaken

52.

Which depreciation method increases project operating cash flows if tax effects are excluded?

a)

Straight-line

b)

Declining balance

c)

Units-of-production

d)

None of the above

53.

Which of the following are positive side effects that increase cash flows of other projects?

a)

Yogurt project and fermented yogurt drink project

b)

Oral medicine project and injectable medicine project

c)

Coffee shop & billiards project and office lunch project

d)

Gas stove project and electric stove project

54.

When should sunk costs be included in project cash flows?

a)

When sunk costs are borne by the investor

b)

When sunk costs are relatively large

c)

Sunk costs should not be included in project cash flows

d)

When sunk costs are project preparation and appraisal costs

55.

Which of the following costs is considered a sunk cost of the project?

a)

Project preparation costs

b)

Project company establishment costs

c)

Design and construction costs

d)

Groundbreaking costs

56.

Which depreciation method increases project operating cash flows if tax effects are excluded?

a)

Straight-line

b)

Declining balance

c)

Units-of-production

d)

None of the above

57.

Which of the following are positive side effects that increase cash flows of other projects?

a)

Yogurt project and fermented yogurt drink project

b)

Oral medicine project and injectable medicine project

c)

Coffee shop & billiards project and office lunch project

d)

Gas stove project and electric stove project

58.

When should sunk costs be considered in project cash flows?

a)

When sunk costs are borne by the investor

b)

When sunk costs are relatively large

c)

Sunk costs should not be included in project cash flows

d)

When sunk costs are project preparation and appraisal costs

59.

A company is considering a new project. It currently owns a piece of land that can be used for the project, but the existing building on the land must be demolished. Which of the following costs should NOT be included in the project's cash flows?

a)

Demolition and site clearance costs

b)

Road construction costs incurred last year

c)

Opportunity cost of reallocating equipment from another project

d)

Market value of the existing building

60.

A company is considering investing in an expansion project. It currently owns a piece of land with a market value of VND 120 billion and intends to use it for the project. If the project is implemented, the land cost is:

a)

Zero because the project does not need to purchase land

b)

Historical purchase price of the land

c)

Current market value of the land (VND 120 billion)

d)

Book value of the land on the balance sheet

61.

Opportunity cost is defined as:

a)

The lowest next-best return forgone

b)

The best return forgone

c)

The lowest return forgone

d)

The next-best return forgone

62.

The cost of preparing the project's environmental impact assessment report:

a)

Is considered a pre-operating expense

b)

Is considered an opportunity cost

c)

Is recorded in the project's investment cash flows

d)

Is included in the total investment but not in the project's investment cash flows

63.

The principle of recognizing sunk costs of the project is:

a)

Considered a cash operating expense of the project

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Included in the project's total investment

d)

Counted as part of the project's initial investment outflows

64.

The opportunity cost of land used in the project is determined by:

a)

Government rental price

b)

Market rental price

c)

Valuation agreed upon by capital contributors

d)

Market transfer price

65.

Which of the following are negative side effects that reduce the cash flows of other projects?

a)

Pig farming project and catfish farming project

b)

Apple Watch project and iPhone project

c)

Gas station project and rest-stop project

d)

Walking shoes project and running shoes project

66.

Which of the following statements about the salvage value of land is correct?

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

The value at the beginning of liquidation always equals the market value at the year of liquidation

c)

All gains or losses related to land are recorded as cash inflows from project liquidation

d)

The value at the beginning of liquidation always equals the original purchase cost

67.

Which of the following statements about NPV is correct?

a)

Choosing projects based on the NPV criterion gives better results than other criteria when projects are mutually exclusive with the same lifespan

b)

NPV > 0 means the project's annual net cash flows are all > 0

c)

NPV > 0 means the project's annual net profit is all > 0

d)

NPV is not affected by the project's discount rate

68.

Which of the following criteria does not take into account the time value of money?

a)

IRR

b)

NPV

c)

PI

d)

PP (Payback Period)

69.

Which of the following is correct about the payback period (PP) criterion?

a)

Payback period accounts for all cash flows over the project's life

b)

Payback period accounts for all cash flows before the payback time

c)

Payback period accounts for the time value of money

d)

Payback period accounts for all cash flows after the payback time

70.

The total present value of project operating cash flows in the PI (Profitability Index) criterion:

a)

Cannot be determined

b)

Always positive

c)

Always negative

d)

May be positive or negative

71.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

If project A has a higher IRR than project B, then project A has a higher NPV than B

b)

All of the above statements are incorrect

c)

For two mutually exclusive projects, investors should choose the one with the highest IRR

d)

If project A has a higher IRR than project B, then project A has a lower NPV than B

72.

If the NPV of a project is greater than zero, which of the following is true?

a)

PP < DPP < Project life

b)

DPP > PP > Project life

c)

PP > DPP > Project life

d)

DPP < PP < Project life

73.

If an investment project has NPV = 0, this means:

a)

The project breaks even

b)

The present value of total income equals the present value of total investment costs

c)

The project's rate of return equals its cost of capital

d)

All of the above are correct

74.

What is the implication if two projects both have the same positive NPV value?

a)

Both projects increase the investor's value by the same amount

b)

Both projects have the same internal rate of return (IRR)

c)

Both projects have equal profitability

d)

Both projects have the same payback period

75.

In which case will the project be accepted?

a)

NPV = 0 at the discount rate equal to the expected rate of return

b)

NPV = 50 at the discount rate equal to the loan interest rate

c)

NPV = 100 at the discount rate equal to the 12-month savings rate

d)

All of the above cases are accepted

76.

Given a certain cash flow stream, how does MIRR compare to IRR?

a)

It depends on the discount rate and the project's internal rate of return

b)

MIRR = IRR

c)

MIRR < IRR

d)

MIRR > IRR

77.

Which of the following statements about the payback period (PP) is incorrect?

a)

Payback period does not consider cash flows after payback is reached

b)

The payback criterion usually provides an accurate conclusion about the project's financial efficiency

c)

Investors should accept projects with a payback period shorter than the one they set

d)

Payback period does not consider the time value of money

78.

The principle of using IRR to evaluate a project: A project is only accepted when IRR:

a)

≥ Term deposit interest rate plus risk premium

b)

≥ Medium- and long-term lending rate

c)

≥ ROE

d)

≥ WACC

79.

Which of the following statements about payback period is incorrect?

a)

Payback period does not consider cash flows after payback is reached

b)

Investors should accept projects with a payback period shorter than their expected payback period

c)

Payback period criterion usually provides accurate conclusions

d)

Payback period does not account for the time value of money

80.

If two projects A and B have the same lifespan and project A's annual cash flow is twice that of project B, which of the following is correct?

a)

PP(A) = 2 × PP(B)

b)

NPV(A) = 2 × NPV(B)

c)

IRR(A) = 2 × IRR(B)

d)

MIRR(A) = 2 × MIRR(B)

81.

The NPV of an investment project is $1,000, discounted at a rate of 15%. This can be interpreted as:

a)

The project yields 15% return on total invested capital

b)

The project increases the company's value by $1,000

c)

The project yields 15% per year plus $1,000 in present terms

d)

The project earns exactly $1,000

82.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

NPV is a multivalued function of the discount rate

b)

NPV is positively correlated with the discount rate

c)

NPV depends on the project's lifespan

d)

NPV always has a unique value

83.

NPV is defined as:

a)

All of the above definitions are correct

b)

Net Present Value

c)

Present value of operating cash flows minus present value of initial investment costs

d)

Present value of discounted cash flows after the payback period

84.

A project has a lifespan of 10 years and a non-discounted payback period of 10 years. Which of the following is correct?

a)

DPP < 10 years

b)

IRR < r

c)

PI > 1

d)

NPV < 0

85.

Given 0 < r1 < r2 and the project's NPV values as follows: NPV(r1) > 0 > NPV(r2). Which expression is correct?

a)

IRR > r1 > r2

b)

r1 < IRR < r2

c)

IRR < r1 < r2

d)

r1 < r2 < IRR

86.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the NPV criterion?

a)

Sensitive to the discount rate

b)

A project may have multiple NPVs or no NPV at all

c)

All of the above are disadvantages of NPV

d)

NPV can only be calculated if net cash flows have at least one negative value

87.

When choosing mutually exclusive projects with different lifespans, which criterion should be used?

a)

Individual project IRR

b)

Individual project EAA (Equivalent Annual Annuity)

c)

Individual project NPV

d)

Individual project PP or DPP

88.

For a project whose NPV is inversely related to the discount rate, what happens if the project's IRR is 15%?

a)

NPV is negative if the discount rate is 20%

b)

NPV is negative if the discount rate is 10%

c)

NPV is positive if the discount rate is 15%

d)

NPV is positive if the discount rate is 20%

89.

The discount rate at which the project's NPV equals zero is:

a)

Re

b)

IRR

c)

WACC

d)

MIRR

90.

A project with NPV = 0 at a discount rate equal to the expected rate of return will not be accepted because:

a)

The project only just covers its cost of capital

b)

The project does not increase net assets

c)

None of the above reasons is correct

d)

The project only just achieves the expected return

91.

For a project to be accepted, the IRR of net cash flows (EPV) must be:

a)

≥ the minimum expected return on equity (ROE)

b)

≥ the maximum expected return on equity (ROE)

c)

≥ 12-month savings deposit rate

d)

≥ average long-term market lending rate

92.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

NPV and IRR may give conflicting decisions when choosing independent projects

b)

All else equal, projects with shorter payback periods are less risky than those with longer payback periods

c)

To reflect the project’s financial feasibility, land must be liquidated at market value in the year of liquidation

d)

One disadvantage of NPV is that it depends on the chosen discount rate

93.

The Profitability Index (PI) explains:

a)

None of the above is correct

b)

How many units of income are obtained per unit of initial capital after deducting cost of capital

c)

How many units of present income are obtained per unit of initial capital after deducting cost of capital

d)

How many units of income are obtained per unit of initial capital

94.

A project has IRR = 20% and cost of capital = 15%. This can be interpreted as:

a)

The project’s return is higher than its required rate of return

b)

The project yields 20% on total invested capital

c)

The project covers its cost of capital

d)

All of the above interpretations are correct

95.

Project A has NPV(A) = 389 and IRR(A) = 25%. Project B has the same lifespan as Project A and has annual cash flows double those of Project A. The NPV and IRR of Project B are:

a)

NPV(B) = 778 and IRR(B) = 50%

b)

NPV(B) = 389 and IRR(B) = 25%

c)

NPV(B) = 389 and IRR(B) = 50%

d)

NPV(B) = 778 and IRR(B) = 25%

96.

Which of the following changes will increase the NPV of a project, assuming other factors remain constant?

a)

Annual operating net cash flows decrease

b)

Discount rate decreases

c)

Project lifespan increases

d)

Initial investment increases

97.

A project has a negative net cash flow in year 0 and positive net cash flows in subsequent years. Given that the project’s DPP is 3 years and 6 months, which expression is correct?

a)

DPP ≥ PP

b)

DPP < Project lifespan

c)

All of the above expressions are correct

d)

NPV ≥ 0

98.

A project has two internal rates of return: IRR1 = 20% and IRR2 = 30%. If the project’s cost of capital is 25%, the evaluator will:

a)

Use the MIRR criterion to evaluate the project

b)

Never be able to evaluate the project

c)

Accept the project

d)

Reject the project

99.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

A project with a 1-year payback period always has NPV > 0

b)

NPV > 0 indicates that the project generates profit every year

c)

NPV and IRR may give conflicting decisions when selecting mutually exclusive projects

d)

If IRR < WACC, then NPV > 0

100.

MIRR is used to overcome which of the following shortcomings of IRR?

a)

IRR assumes cash flows generated annually are reinvested at the IRR

b)

Multiple IRRs may exist

c)

No IRR exists in some cases

d)

To overcome all three shortcomings of IRR

101.

For a project to be accepted, the IRR of net cash flows (AEPV) must be:

a)

≥ WACCAT

b)

≥ WACCBT

c)

≥ Average market lending rate

d)

= Savings deposit rate

102.

The difference between the present value of cash inflows and the present value of cash outflows throughout the project is:

a)

IRR

b)

NPV

c)

PP/DPP

d)

B/C

103.

For a project to be accepted, the IRR of net cash flows (TIPV) must be:

a)

≥ Average market lending rate

b)

≥ WACCBT

c)

≥ Savings deposit rate

d)

≥ WACCAT

104.

Company X is considering two investment projects. Both projects require the same capital outlay and have similar cash flow patterns. The first project has a lifespan of 10 years, the second 20 years. Which criterion is most appropriate for ranking these projects?

a)

Net Present Value (NPV)

b)

None of the above criteria is correct

c)

Profitability Index (PI)

d)

Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

105.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

When the lifespan of a project increases, NPV always increases

b)

B/C is calculated by comparing benefits with investment and operating costs

c)

DPP is positively correlated with the discount rate

d)

IRR is the project’s minimum rate of return

106.

A project has a negative net cash flow in year 0 and positive net cash flows in subsequent years. If the project cannot achieve discounted payback (DPP), then the project has:

a)

PP > DPP

b)

IRR > r

c)

NPV < 0

d)

PI > 1

107.

Regarding construction-period interest, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Construction-period interest is the interest payable on construction financing

b)

Deferred construction-period interest is not included in total investment

c)

Deferred construction-period interest is not capitalized into the initial cost of fixed assets formed after investment

d)

Construction-period interest is not included in investment cash flows

108.

The ability of a project to repay debt is assessed based on:

a)

Changes in project working capital

b)

Annual after-tax profit of the project

c)

Annual depreciation expense of the project

d)

Net operating cash flows of the project

109.

A project has pre-tax debt cost of 10% and cost of equity 15%. Its capital structure is 60% debt and 40% equity. Corporate tax rate is 20%. The project’s discount rate for AEPV cash flows is:

a)

12%

b)

All of the above are incorrect

c)

10.8% = 40% × 15% + 60% × 10% × (1 − 20%)

d)

15%

110.

If WACCBT denotes pre-tax cost of capital, WACCAT post-tax cost of capital, kd the borrowing rate, ke the expected return on equity, %D the weight of debt, %E the weight of equity, and t the corporate income tax rate, then the discount rate for EPV cash flows is:

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

WACCBT = %D·kd + %E·ke + …

c)

ke

d)

WACCAT = %D·kd(1 − t) + %E·ke + …

111.

Compared to debt cost, the cost of preferred equity is:

a)

Depends on the project

b)

Equivalent

c)

Lower

d)

Higher

112.

If WACCBT denotes pre-tax cost of capital, WACCAT post-tax cost of capital, kd the borrowing rate, ke the expected return on equity, %D the weight of debt, %E the weight of equity, and t the corporate income tax rate, then the discount rate for TIPV cash flows is:

a)

WACCAT = %D·kd(1 − t) + %E·ke + …

b)

WACCBT = %D·kd + %E·ke + …

c)

All of the above are incorrect

d)

ke

113.

A project has pre-tax debt cost of 10% and cost of equity 15%. Its capital structure is 60% debt and 40% equity. Corporate tax rate is 20%. The project’s discount rate for TIPV cash flows is:

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

12% = 40% × 15% + 60% × 10%

c)

10.8%

d)

15%

114.

A project has pre-tax debt cost of 10% and cost of equity 15%. Its capital structure is 60% debt and 40% equity. Corporate tax rate is 20%. The project’s discount rate for EPV cash flows is:

a)

12%

b)

All of the above are incorrect

c)

10.8%

d)

15%

115.

A company plans to use debt financing for a project. The current long-term borrowing rate is 12% per year, with interest calculated on the outstanding loan balance. Loan interest is tax-deductible at a tax rate of 20%. The loan issuance cost is 2% of the loan amount. The cost of debt capital is:

a)

9.8%

b)

12.24%

c)

All of the above are incorrect

d)

12%

116.

A company issues bonds to finance a project. The bonds have a maturity of 3 years, issued at face value of 1,000,000 VND. The nominal coupon rate is 12% per year, with annual interest payments. The tax rate is 20%. Issuance costs are 6% of the total proceeds. The cost of debt capital from bonds is:

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

11.69%

c)

12%

d)

14.61%

117.

Estimating the cost of equity capital of the project using the CAPM model, the market risk premium is measured by:

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

The timing difference between the average return of the market portfolio and the average return of Treasury bonds

c)

The expected difference between the average return of the market portfolio and the average return of Treasury bonds

d)

The present difference between the average return of the market portfolio and the average return of Treasury bonds

118.

CAPM = Rf + β(Rm − Rf). Market risk premium = E(Rm) − Rf. A company plans to invest in a new project to expand its market share. The company finds two comparable firms in the same industry, with unlevered betas of 0.6 and 0.8. The project's unlevered beta is

a)

0.8

b)

0.7

c)

0.6

d)

All of the above are incorrect β_asset = (0.6 + 0.8) / 2 = 0.7

119.

Estimating the cost of equity capital of the project using CAPM, the risk-free rate is represented by the parameter

a)

βi (Rm − Rf)

b)

βi

c)

Rf

d)

(Rm − Rf)

120.

Which of the following statements is correct when referring to WACCAT

a)

Increasing the level of debt usage always reduces the project's WACCAT

b)

The higher the project risk, the higher the project's WACCAT

c)

The level of debt usage does not affect the project's WACCAT in a taxable environment

d)

The WACCAT function is not a linear function

121.

In the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), the project's risk relative to the market portfolio is expressed in the parameter

a)

Rf

b)

Rm

c)

βi

d)

(Rm − Rf)

122.

Estimating the cost of equity capital of the project using CAPM, the asset beta is estimated by calculating

a)

The beta of a comparable single-industry firm

b)

The average beta of comparable single-industry firms

c)

The beta of a comparable multi-industry firm

d)

The average beta of comparable multi-industry firms

123.

If WACCBT denotes the pre-tax cost of capital; WACCAT denotes the after-tax cost of capital; and ke denotes the cost of equity, which of the following expressions is correct

a)

ke ≥ WACCAT ≥ WACCBT

b)

ke ≥ WACCBT ≥ WACCAT

c)

WACCAT ≥ WACCBT ≥ ke

d)

WACCBT ≥ WACCAT ≥ ke

124.

If WACCBT denotes the pre-tax cost of capital; WACCAT denotes the after-tax cost of capital; kd is the borrowing rate; ke is the expected return on equity; %D is the weight of debt and %E is the weight of equity; and t is the corporate income tax rate, then the net cash flow under the All Equity Perspective (AEPV) will be discounted at the rate

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

ke

c)

WACCAT = %D·kd(1 − t) + %E·ke + …

d)

WACCBT = %D·kd + %E·ke + …

125.

The expected return of project owners is always higher than the required return of creditors because

a)

The proportion of owners' equity is higher than that of borrowed capital

b)

Owners bear higher risk compared to creditors

c)

Owners receive the tax shield benefit from debt

d)

The impact of inflation

126.

Estimating the cost of equity capital of the project using CAPM, the market risk premium is represented by the parameter

a)

Rf

b)

(Rm − Rf)

c)

βi

d)

βi (Rm − Rf)

127.

Estimating the cost of equity capital of the project using CAPM, the asset risk premium is represented by the parameter

a)

βi (Rm − Rf)

b)

(Rm − Rf)

c)

βi

d)

Rf + βi (Rm − Rf)

128.

Which of the following statements is correct about the project's discount rate

a)

All are correct

b)

The discount rate is adjusted according to project risk

c)

The discount rate is the opportunity cost of financial resources funding the project

d)

The discount rate is a rate used to convert future project cash flows into present value

129.

The difference between the cost of retained earnings and the cost of newly issued common stock is

a)

Tax deduction

b)

All are incorrect

c)

Issuance cost and tax deduction

d)

Issuance cost

130.

The cost of capital of a project depends on

a)

The risk of other projects of the company implementing the project

b)

The risk of similar projects in the market

c)

The risk of the assets being financed

d)

The risk of the company implementing the project

131.

The cost of preferred equity

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

Is tax-deductible

c)

Is not tax-deductible

d)

Has no specific regulation

132.

The expected return of investors reflects the factor

a)

Real interest rate

b)

Expected inflation

c)

Risk premium

d)

All are correct

133.

The cost of equity capital of the project includes

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

The cost of preferred stock

c)

The cost of common stock

d)

The cost of retained earnings

134.

The capital structure of the project includes

a)

Short-term and long-term interest-bearing sources of funds used in the project

b)

All of the above are incorrect

c)

Long-term interest-bearing sources of funds used in the project

d)

Interest-bearing sources of funds and non-interest-bearing sources used in the project

135.

The asset beta when there is a tax shield on interest is calculated using the formula

a)

βe[1+(1·t)D/E]

b)

βe(1+D/E)

c)

βe/[1+(1·t)D/E]

d)

βe/(1+D/E)

136.

The cost of capital of the project is also called

a)

The discount rate of the project

b)

The hurdle rate of the project

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

The expected rate of return of the project's capital providers

137.

The cost of any source of capital used in the project will be

a)

The required rate of return of investors

b)

The required rate of return of investors adjusted for issuance cost

c)

The required rate of return of investors adjusted for issuance cost and income tax

d)

All of the above are correct

138.

When applying CAPM to estimate the expected return on equity in underdeveloped financial markets, it may

a)

Not be possible to find a company operating in the same sector

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Data is short and incomplete

d)

The selected stock portfolio does not reflect the market fluctuations

139.

A company plans to use retained earnings to carry out an expansion investment project. The yield to maturity of treasury bonds is 6% per year, the equity beta is 1.5, and the market risk premium is 7%. The cost of equity capital of this project is

a)

10.5%

b)

14.5%

c)

7.5%

d)

16.5% (6% + 1.5*7%)

140.

A company plans to use retained earnings to carry out an expansion investment project. This project has a risk level similar to that of a company in the same industry with an asset beta (no debt) of 1.2. The debt-to-equity structure of the project is 6:4. If the income tax rate is 20%, then the equity beta of the project is

a)

0.78

b)

2.64 (1.2*[1+(1-20%)*6/4])

c)

1.84

d)

0.55

141.

When applying the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to estimate the expected return on equity in projects, the risk-free bond yield should be chosen as

a)

The yield to maturity of newly issued government bonds

b)

The average yield to maturity of treasury bonds with the same maturity as the project

c)

The average yield to maturity of currently circulating treasury bonds

d)

The historical average yield to maturity of government bonds

142.

The debt cost of the project includes

a)

Both A and B are correct

b)

The cost of debt from bond issuance

c)

The cost of debt from bank loans

d)

Both A and B are incorrect

143.

The cost of equity is 13% for the oil project and 14% for the gas project. The after-tax cost of debt for both units is 10%. The capital structure of the gas project is 60% debt and 40% equity, and the capital structure of the oil project is 80% debt and 20% equity. The WACC of these two business units is

a)

10.6% and 10.8%

b)

10.6% and 11.6% (10%*80%+13%*20% and 10%*60%+14%*40%)

c)

10.6% and 11.2%

d)

All of the above are incorrect

144.

Point out the disadvantage of using the industry average return to estimate the expected return on equity for the project

a)

It does not reflect the risk from the company’s capital structure

b)

It can only be used in a limited number of important industries

c)

The data is fragmented and difficult to compile over the years

d)

All of the above are correct

145.

The cost of capital of the project consists of

a)

The cost of debt

b)

The cost of equity

c)

The cost of debt and equity

d)

All of the above are correct

146.

The reason why project cash flows must be discounted with the cost of capital is

a)

Due to the impact of inflation

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Due to the uncertainty of cash flows

d)

Because money has a time value

147.

The equity beta of the project when there is a tax shield on interest is calculated using the formula

a)

βa[1+(1t)D/E]\beta_a[1+(1-t)D/E]

b)

βa(1+D/E)\beta_a(1+D/E)

c)

βa/[1+(1t)D/E]\beta_a/[1+(1-t)D/E]

d)

βa/(1+D/E)\beta_a/(1+D/E)

148.

Point out the disadvantage of sensitivity analysis

a)

It does not identify which variable is the main one

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

It does not consider the change of each variable

d)

It does not consider the probability distribution of each variable

149.

Choose the correct statements

a)

Scenario analysis cannot compare the risk of two different projects

b)

Sensitivity analysis evaluates the importance of variables to project performance

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Simulation analysis reflects the potential of high-risk projects

150.

When analyzing risk using simulation, the deviation of the probability of NPV ≥ 0 between two trials of 10,000 runs is +/- 10%. The analyst considers this deviation too large and wants to reduce it. The most reasonable option is

a)

Increase the number of trials to 1,000,000

b)

Reduce the number of trials to 1,000

c)

Change the declared probability distribution of the input variable

d)

Increase the number of trials to 100,000