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Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which radiation has the least ionizing power and greatest penetrating ability?

a)

alpha particles

b)

beta particles

c)

gamma emissions

d)

positron emissions

2.

An element that is very reactive metal likely has which atomic number characteristic?

a)

a transition metal atomic number

b)

a noble gas atomic number

c)

a halogen atomic number

d)

an alkali metal atomic number

3.

Which Lewis electron-dot diagram represents a nitrogen atom in the ground state?

a)

N with 5 valence electrons

b)

N with 4 dots total

c)

N with 2 valence electrons

d)

N with 6 paired electrons

4.

Which list contains only chemical compounds?

a)

H2, Ne, NaCl

b)

H2, N2, O2

c)

CO2, H2O, NH3

d)

MgO, NaCl, O2

5.

Iodine-131 has a half-life of 8.021 days. What fraction of an original sample remains unchanged after 24.063 days?

a)

1/4 of the original

b)

1/8 of the original

c)

1/2 of the original

d)

1/3 of the original

6.

Which statement best describes the charges and counts of protons and electrons in a neutral atom?

a)

opposite charges and unequal numbers

b)

opposite charges and equal numbers

c)

same charge and equal numbers

d)

same charge and unequal numbers

7.

The bright-line spectrum of an element is produced when excited-state electrons do what?

a)

absorb energy and move higher

b)

release energy and move higher

c)

release energy and move lower

d)

absorb energy and move lower

8.

Magnesium and calcium have similar chemical properties because atoms in their ground states have which configuration?

a)

two electrons in the outermost shell

b)

equal numbers of protons and neutrons

c)

two electrons in the first shell

d)

equal numbers of protons and electrons

9.

Which statement explains why alpha particles have low penetrating power compared with beta and gamma radiation?

a)

They are neutral and very light

b)

They are doubly charged and relatively massive

c)

They are photons with high energy

d)

They have single negative charge and small mass

10.

How many half-lives have elapsed after 24.063 days for iodine-131 with a half-life of 8.021 days, and what fraction remains?

a)

four half-lives; 1/16 remains

b)

three half-lives; 1/8 remains

c)

two half-lives; 1/4 remains

d)

one half-life; 1/2 remains

11.

Which properties of an object will determine if the object will sink or float in water?

a)

material and color

b)

material and shape

c)

length and color

d)

length and shape

12.

What is the total number of electrons in a Cr3+ ion?

a)

27

b)

24

c)

18

d)

21

13.

In the morning, a student observed a puddle of water on the school playground. At the end of the day, the puddle was gone. Which process most likely caused the puddle to disappear?

a)

erosion

b)

deposition

c)

condensation

d)

evaporation

14.

The discovery of the electron as a subatomic particle was a result of

a)

collision theory

b)

kinetic molecular theory

c)

the gold-foil experiment

d)

experiments with cathode ray tubes

15.

Two gaseous forms of oxygen are diatomic oxygen, O2, and ozone, O3. These two forms of oxygen have

a)

the same molecular structure and the same properties

b)

the same molecular structure and different properties

c)

different molecular structures and the same properties

d)

different molecular structures and different properties

16.

How many joules of heat are absorbed to raise the temperature of 435 grams of water at 1 atm from 25°C to its boiling point, 100°C?

a)

7.4 × 10^7 J

b)

2.5 × 10^7 J

c)

1.4 × 10^5 J

d)

4.5×1044.5 \times 10^4 J

17.

Which phrase describes two atoms that contain the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons?

a)

ions of the same element

b)

nuclides of different elements

c)

isotopes of the same element

d)

a mixture of different elements

18.

Using equal masses of reactants, which statement describes the relative amounts of energy released during a chemical reaction and a nuclear reaction?

a)

The chemical and nuclear reactions release equal amounts of energy.

b)

The nuclear reaction releases half the amount of energy of the chemical reaction.

c)

The chemical reaction releases more energy than the nuclear reaction.

d)

The nuclear reaction releases more energy than the chemical reaction.

19.

Based on Table S, which general trend is observed as the elements in Group 17 are considered in order of increasing atomic number from fluorine to iodine?

a)

increase in boiling point

b)

increase in first ionization energy

c)

decrease in density

d)

decrease in melting point

20.

Which evidence best supports that a potassium ion (K+) has the same electron configuration as a noble gas?

a)

Potassium loses one electron, leaving a full second shell

b)

Potassium gains one electron to match neon

c)

Potassium has 19 protons, qualifying it as noble

d)

Potassium shares electrons to become stable with chlorine

21.

Which sample can be classified as a substance?

a)

Seawater from the shoreline

b)

Topsoil from a garden bed

c)

Argon gas in a sealed cylinder

d)

Air mixture in the troposphere

22.

Which formula represents an isotope of 16 8 O?

a)

16 7 O

b)

15 7 O

c)

16 9 O

d)

18 8 O

23.

When the nucleus of neon-19 decays, which particle is emitted?

a)

4 2 He

b)

0 -1 e

c)

0 +1 e

d)

1 0 n

24.

Which numerical setup correctly determines the atomic mass of boron from its two naturally occurring isotopes and abundances?

a)

(10.01 u)(19.9) + (11.01 u)(80.1) divided by 100

b)

(10.01 u)(0.199) + (11.01 u)(0.801)

c)

10.01 u + 11.01 u over 2

d)

19.9% + 80.1% over 2

25.

In analyzing chemical properties for sustainable road treatment, which factor is most directly related to predicting compound behavior in freezing conditions?

a)

Reference table atomic masses only

b)

Color of the compound in solid form

c)

Molecular charge distributions in solutions

d)

Lab data of proton counts per element

26.

For winter road treatment, why is hydrogen sulfide (H2S) not suitable as a de-icing salt compared to sodium chloride (NaCl)?

a)

H2S is denser than NaCl at room temperature

b)

H2S has a higher melting point than NaCl

c)

H2S has more neutrons than NaCl

d)

H2S is a covalent gas, NaCl is an ionic solid

27.

Which statement about isotopes is correct when comparing B-10 and B-11?

a)

They have different atomic numbers and identical masses

b)

They have the same atomic number but different mass numbers

c)

They have equal mass numbers but different charges

d)

They are different elements with the same electrons

28.

What property makes argon useful for classifying as a substance in the context of samples like air, soil, and seawater?

a)

It is a pure element with consistent composition

b)

It dissolves salts uniformly in water

c)

It forms compounds that vary in soil

d)

It reacts vigorously with oxygen gas

29.

Which reasoning supports matching K+ to the electron configuration of argon rather than neon?

a)

K loses two electrons to reach 2-8-7

b)

K shares electrons to reach 2-8-7

c)

K gains two electrons to reach 2-8-8-2

d)

K loses one electron to reach 2-8-8

30.

Uranium-238 undergoes a series of spontaneous decays in Earth’s crust. Which nuclide is produced directly after uranium-238 in this decay chain?

a)

thorium-234

b)

lead-206

c)

polonium-218

d)

radon-222

31.

Radon-222 decays to polonium-218. Which statement correctly describes the half-life of radon-222?

a)

It is 3.04 hours

b)

It is 3.04 days

c)

It is 3.04 seconds

d)

It is 3.04 minutes

32.

Eventually, a stable nuclide is formed after alpha decay steps in the uranium-238 series. Which stable nuclide is produced?

a)

polonium-206

b)

mercury-206

c)

lead-207

d)

lead-206

33.

Complete the nuclear equation for the decay that produces Pb-206 by choosing the missing nuclide: ____ → 4He + 20682Pb

a)

20284Po

b)

21084Po

c)

21080Hg

d)

20280Hg

34.

Which phrase describes a factor that determines the physical state of a molecular substance?

a)

arrangement of the molecules

b)

decay mode of the molecules

c)

solubility of the molecules

d)

conductivity of the molecules

35.

A scientist tested a colorless gas with density at 20°C between 1.30 and 1.60 g/L and a boiling point near −190 to −180°C. The gas reacted with sodium metal very rapidly. Which identity is most likely?

a)

oxygen (O2)

b)

argon (Ar)

c)

fluorine (F2)

d)

hydrochloric acid (HCl)

36.

Why does alpha decay decrease both mass number and atomic number of a nuclide?

a)

Alpha particle increases neutron count

b)

Alpha particle carries two protons

c)

Alpha particle removes only electrons

d)

Alpha particle carries two neutrons

37.

Which observation best distinguishes argon from oxygen among colorless gases at room temperature?

a)

argon has acidic behavior in water

b)

argon has greater electrical conductivity

c)

argon has higher solubility in water

d)

argon is nonreactive with sodium

38.

If radon-222 has a half-life of 3.04 minutes, how much of a 100 g sample remains after approximately 9.12 minutes?

a)

50.0 grams

b)

25.0 grams

c)

12.5 grams

d)

33.3 grams

39.

In a decay series, the term “spontaneous decay” most directly implies which characteristic of the process?

a)

It occurs without external trigger

b)

It requires continuous heating

c)

It depends on molecular state

d)

It is controlled by catalysts

40.

Which particle diagram best represents neon gas at 35 K and 1.0 atm? The key shows each circle is one atom of neon. Pick the diagram with widely spaced single atoms.

a)

Clusters of atoms with short range order

b)

Widely spaced single atoms randomly distributed

c)

Closely packed spheres in a fixed array

d)

Pairs of atoms moving together throughout

41.

Which proposal came earliest in developing the modern atomic model?

a)

Electrons in atoms have wavelike properties

b)

Atoms contain internal structure with negative particles

c)

Atoms are mostly empty space with a dense nucleus

d)

Atoms are hard, indivisible spheres of different sizes

42.

Which statement describes a chemical property of an element?

a)

Melts at 933 K under standard pressure

b)

Reddish appearance when freshly polished

c)

Has a density of 0.89 g/cm³ at room temperature

d)

Reacts with hydrogen sulfide to form a compound

43.

A large sample of solid calcium sulfate is crushed into smaller pieces. Which pair of physical properties remains the same for both samples?

a)

Mass and volume stay unchanged

b)

Solubility and density stay unchanged

c)

Mass and density stay unchanged

d)

Solubility and volume stay unchanged

44.

Determining the age of a wooden beam from a sunken ship is an example of a beneficial use of what?

a)

Homogeneous mixtures in sediments

b)

Lewis structures of organic compounds

c)

Polyatomic ions in seawater

d)

Radioactive nuclides for dating

45.

Which element is a brittle solid with low electrical conductivity at STP?

a)

Sulfur

b)

Sodium

c)

Aluminum

d)

Argon

46.

Why is neon represented by single, separate atoms in a gas diagram rather than diatomic pairs?

a)

Neon is a noble gas that is monatomic

b)

Neon bonds to itself weakly in liquid state

c)

Neon becomes ionic under standard conditions

d)

Neon forms stable diatomic molecules at low temperature

47.

Which change indicates a physical property rather than a chemical property?

a)

Copper forms green patina over time

b)

Silver tarnishes with hydrogen sulfide

c)

Aluminum melting at high temperature

d)

Potassium reacts violently with water

48.

When a sample is subdivided, which type of property remains constant regardless of sample size?

a)

Intensive properties like density

b)

Extensive properties like energy content

c)

Extensive properties like volume

d)

Extensive properties like mass

49.

Radiocarbon dating of wood relies primarily on measuring what?

a)

The solubility of carbon compounds in water

b)

The melting point shift due to impurities

c)

The density change of carbon over time

d)

The ratio of C-14 to C-12 in the sample

50.

Diamond and graphite are two forms of solid carbon. These two forms of carbon have what relationship between crystal structures and properties?

a)

different crystal structures and the same properties

b)

different crystal structures and different properties

c)

the same crystal structure and the same properties

d)

the same crystal structure and different properties

51.

What is the amount of heat absorbed when the temperature of 75 grams of water increases from 20.0°C to 35°C? Use q = mcΔT and c = 4.18 J/g·°C.

a)

11 000 J

b)

4700 J

c)

6300 J

d)

1100 J

52.

Compared to the charge of a proton, the charge of an electron has which magnitude and sign?

a)

the same magnitude and the opposite sign

b)

a greater magnitude and the same sign

c)

a greater magnitude and the opposite sign

d)

the same magnitude and the same sign

53.

Which ion in the ground state has the same electron configuration as an atom of neon in the ground state?

a)

Cl⁻

b)

F⁻

c)

Li⁺

d)

K⁺

54.

Which Group 15 element is classified as a metal?

a)

P

b)

Bi

c)

N

d)

As

55.

Which statement describes the relationship between two electrons in an atom of magnesium in the ground state?

a)

An electron in the second shell has the same amount of energy as an electron in the third shell.

b)

An electron in the first shell has a greater amount of energy than an electron in the second shell.

c)

An electron in the first shell has the same amount of energy as an electron in the second shell.

d)

An electron in the third shell has a greater amount of energy than an electron in the second shell.

56.

The difference in which property allows the separation of a sample of water and sand by using filter paper and a funnel?

a)

boiling point

b)

melting point

c)

sample volume

d)

particle size

57.

What is the number of electrons in an atom of scandium?

a)

45

b)

66

c)

24

d)

21

58.

Which electron configuration represents the electrons in an atom of sodium in the ground state at STP?

a)

2-7-7

b)

2-8-6

c)

2-7-2

d)

2-8-1

59.

A student claims that electrons in different shells of the same atom always have the same energy. Which evidence-based correction should be made to this claim?

a)

Electrons in higher shells have greater energy than lower shells.

b)

Electrons in the second and third shells have equal energy.

c)

Electrons in all shells have identical energy levels.

d)

Electrons in the first shell have greater energy than second shell.

60.

Which notations represent atoms that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons?

a)

Ga-70 and Ge-73

b)

H-3 and He-3

c)

S-32 and S-32

d)

Cl-35 and Cl-37

61.

In the diagrams of a hydrogen atom, which option best describes diagram 2 showing the electron farther from the nucleus?

a)

an atom of hydrogen in the ground state

b)

an atom of hydrogen in an excited state

c)

a negative ion of hydrogen

d)

a positive ion of hydrogen

62.

Which description of the atom aligns with conclusions from the gold foil experiment conducted in the early 1900s?

a)

Atoms are small, dense, indivisible spheres.

b)

Atoms are composed of protons, electrons, and neutrons.

c)

Atoms have small, dense, positively charged nuclei.

d)

Atoms have electrons with wavelike properties.

63.

An atom in the ground state has two electrons in its first shell and six electrons in its second shell. What is the total number of protons in the nucleus of this atom?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

2

d)

7

64.

Which electron configuration represents the electrons in a neon atom in an excited state?

a)

2-6-1

b)

2-7-1

c)

2-8

d)

2-7

65.

Which electron configuration represents the electrons of an atom in an excited state?

a)

2-8-8-1

b)

2-8-9-2

c)

2-8-2

d)

2-7-3

66.

As elements in Period 2 of the Periodic Table are considered from left to right, which property generally decreases?

a)

atomic radius

b)

electronegativity

c)

ionization energy

d)

nuclear charge

67.

Given the classification diagram of matter with X containing Fe(s) and CaCO3(s), and Z containing air and NaCl(aq), which types do X and Z represent?

a)

X is mixture, and Z is substance.

b)

X is substance, and Z is mixture.

c)

X is element, and Z is compound.

d)

X is compound, and Z is element.

68.

Which statement explains why the gold foil experiment implied a concentrated positive charge in atoms?

a)

Some alpha particles were deflected at large angles.

b)

Electrons were found evenly spread in the atom.

c)

Neutrons caused minor scattering effects.

d)

Alpha particles all passed straight through the foil.

69.

For a neutral atom with electron configuration 2-8-1, what is the atomic number?

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

70.

Which sequence shows a correct historical development toward the modern atomic model?

a)

Empty space then orbitals then hard sphere

b)

Hard sphere then orbitals then empty space

c)

Hard sphere then empty space then orbitals

d)

Empty space then hard sphere then orbitals

71.

The table lists protons, neutrons, and electrons for ions A, E, G, and J. Which ion has a charge of −2?

a)

A with 8p,10n,10e

b)

E with 9p,10n,10e

c)

G with 11p,12n,10e

d)

J with 12p,12n,10e

72.

Which element has chemical properties most similar to sodium because it has the same number of valence electrons?

a)

Magnesium in Group 2 metal

b)

Phosphorus in Group 15 nonmetal

c)

Oxygen in Group 16 nonmetal

d)

Rubidium in Group 1 alkali metal

73.

Which substance can be broken down by a chemical change because it is a compound?

a)

Ethane, a covalent compound

b)

Krypton, a noble gas element

c)

Manganese, a transition element

d)

Cobalt, a metallic element

74.

Which symbol represents a particle that has a total of 10 electrons?

a)

N3+ with 4e cation

b)

N with 7e neutral

c)

Al neutral with 13e

d)

Al3+ with 10e cation

75.

Which particle diagram best represents oxygen gas at STP as a diatomic molecule?

a)

Separate single O atoms

b)

Cluster of many unpaired atoms

c)

Paired atoms in twos evenly spaced

d)

Mixed single and paired atoms

76.

In all atoms of bismuth, the number of electrons must equal which quantity when neutral?

a)

Difference between neutrons and protons

b)

Number of neutrons in the nucleus

c)

Sum of neutrons and protons

d)

Number of protons in the nucleus

77.

An ion with 11 protons and 10 electrons has which overall charge and is an ion of which element?

a)

−1 charge, sodium

b)

+1 charge, sodium

c)

+1 charge, magnesium

d)

−1 charge, magnesium

78.

Which statement best explains why rubidium reacts similarly to sodium?

a)

Same mass number, similar nuclei

b)

Same period, equal atomic radii

c)

Same density, metallic bonding

d)

Same group, one valence electron

79.

Which change could break ethane into simpler substances?

a)

Chemical reaction like combustion

b)

Phase change like condensation

c)

Mechanical change like grinding

d)

Physical change like melting

80.

Given the cooling curve for a substance, during which intervals is the potential energy decreasing while the average kinetic energy remains constant?

a)

BC and DE

b)

EF and AB

c)

EF and DE

d)

BC and AB

81.

Which two particle diagrams represent two different phases of the same compound only?

a)

B and D

b)

A and C

c)

B and C

d)

A and B

82.

Which element reacts in a manner most similar to oxygen based on its placement in the periodic table portion shown?

a)

fluorine

b)

sulfur

c)

neon

d)

phosphorus

83.

Which formula represents chromium(III) oxide?

a)

CrO3

b)

Cr3O

c)

Cr2O3

d)

Cr3O2

84.

On a cooling curve, what does a flat (horizontal) segment indicate?

a)

Temperature rising steadily

b)

Instantaneous freezing point

c)

Decrease in kinetic energy only

d)

Phase change at constant temperature

85.

When converting chromium(III) oxide to its empirical formula, what charge balance is applied between Cr3+ and O2−?

a)

One Cr3+ with one O2−

b)

Two Cr3+ with one O2−

c)

Two Cr3+ with three O2−

d)

Three Cr3+ with two O2−

86.

Elements in the same group of the periodic table most likely share which property?

a)

Exactly equal atomic masses

b)

Similar valence electron patterns

c)

Same number of protons and neutrons

d)

Identical atomic numbers

87.

In particle diagrams of different phases of the same compound, which feature stays the same across phases?

a)

Arrangement rigidity

b)

Spacing between particles

c)

Type of atoms present

d)

Number of particles shown

88.

During the segment BC on a cooling curve, the average kinetic energy of particles typically does what?

a)

Increases rapidly

b)

Remains constant

c)

Decreases to zero

d)

Oscillates unpredictably

89.

Which nonmetal, placed directly below oxygen in the periodic table shown, would display the most similar chemical reactivity?

a)

Neon in Group 18

b)

Phosphorus in Group 15

c)

Fluorine in Group 17

d)

Sulfur in Group 16

90.

What is the correct formula for iron(II) oxide?

a)

FeO2

b)

Fe2O

c)

Fe2O3

d)

FeO

91.

Which Lewis electron-dot diagram best represents potassium iodide?

a)

K: :I:

b)

K+ :I: :I:

c)

K: I

d)

K: :I: :I:

92.

What is the IUPAC name for ZnO?

a)

zinc oxide

b)

zinc oxalate

c)

zinc peroxide

d)

zinc hydroxide

93.

How many atoms are present in one formula unit of Ca3(PO4)2?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

13

d)

10

94.

What is the correct formula for lead(IV) oxide?

a)

Pb4O

b)

Pb2O

c)

PbO4

d)

PbO2

95.

Which pair is most likely to form an ionic bond by transfer of valence electrons?

a)

O and Se

b)

O and Sr

c)

O and H

d)

O and P

96.

Which is the correct name for CuS?

a)

copper(I) sulfate

b)

copper(I) sulfide

c)

copper(II) sulfate

d)

copper(II) sulfide

97.

A 50.0 g sample of a molecular compound requires heat to completely melt at its melting point. The heat of fusion is 127 J/g. What amount of heat is needed?

a)

254 J

b)

50.0 J

c)

6350 J

d)

127 J

98.

Which statement explains why FeO is the formula for iron(II) oxide?

a)

O2− requires two Fe2+ ions

b)

Fe3+ balances O2− in 1:1 ratio

c)

Fe2+ requires two O2− ions

d)

Fe2+ balances O2− in 1:1 ratio

99.

Counting subscripts, how many oxygen atoms are in Ca3(PO4)2?

a)

8

b)

4

c)

6

d)

2

100.

Equation 1 shows 58Fe bombarded by a neutron to become 59Fe. What process is represented in this step?

a)

Alpha emission from iron

b)

Electron capture by a nucleus

c)

Positron emission from iron

d)

Neutron capture in a nucleus

101.

Equation 2 converts 59Fe to 59Co + e−. Which decay type is shown?

a)

Beta minus emission from iron

b)

Gamma emission without charge

c)

Alpha emission from iron

d)

Beta plus emission from iron

102.

In nuclear terms, why is Equation 2 called a transmutation reaction?

a)

It compresses the nucleus uniformly

b)

It changes one element to another

c)

It heats the sample without change

d)

It rearranges electrons only

103.

Co-60 has a half-life of 5.271 years. After 15.813 years, what fraction of the original sample remains undecayed?

a)

One quarter of the original

b)

Three eighths of the original

c)

One half of the original

d)

One eighth of the original

104.

In the fission equation for 235U + n producing Kr, Ba, and 3n, what major output besides particles is shown?

a)

Purely thermal neutrons

b)

Significant energy release

c)

Strong magnetic fields

d)

Stable gamma-free photons

105.

Barium-141 from the fission chain has a half-life of 18.3 minutes and decays by beta emission. What particle is emitted in beta minus decay?

a)

A high-energy photon

b)

An alpha particle

c)

A positron from the nucleus

d)

An electron from the nucleus

106.

Which statement best describes nuclear fission in power plants as shown?

a)

Protons fuse into a single nucleus

b)

Electrons combine to form neutrons

c)

A light nucleus absorbs gamma rays

d)

A heavy nucleus splits into smaller nuclei

107.

In the depicted reaction series, what role do incident neutrons play?

a)

They reduce mass without reactions

b)

They cool the reactor core

c)

They neutralize electron charge

d)

They initiate nuclear transformations

108.

Based on standard decay data tables, what is a common decay mode for 235U?

a)

Alpha decay of the nucleus

b)

Spontaneous positron capture

c)

Beta plus decay of the nucleus

d)

Gamma-only de-excitation

109.

During beta minus transmutation of 59Fe to 59Co, what change occurs in the nucleus?

a)

A neutron converts into a proton

b)

A proton converts into a neutron

c)

Two protons are ejected

d)

Mass number decreases by two

110.

In beta decay of Ba-141 to La, which particle is emitted to conserve charge and mass numbers?

a)

Alpha particle from nucleus

b)

Beta-minus electron emitted

c)

Gamma photon release

d)

Positron emission

e)

Neutron ejection

111.

Which equality must hold on both sides of a nuclear equation during decay?

a)

Half-life values equal

b)

Total binding energy equal

c)

Electron counts equal

d)

Sum of atomic numbers equal

e)

Neutron counts equal

112.

Which Period 2 element requires the least energy to remove a loosely held electron from a gaseous atom in its ground state?

a)

Lithium, lowest ionization

b)

Boron, small radius

c)

Carbon, mid-row trend

d)

Fluorine, highest affinity

e)

Neon, full octet

113.

Across a period, how does first ionization energy generally change from left to right?

a)

Decreases due to added shells

b)

Drops sharply at noble gases

c)

Increases due to stronger Z_eff

d)

Stays constant across row

e)

Oscillates unpredictably

114.

Calcium has a greater atomic radius than magnesium in the ground state primarily because calcium has what?

a)

Fewer electron-electron repulsions

b)

More compact 3p orbitals

c)

Greater electronegativity

d)

Lower nuclear charge

e)

More filled shells overall

115.

Elements beryllium through barium are placed in Group 2. What classification do these elements share?

a)

Transition metals group

b)

Alkali earth metals group

c)

Noble gas inert group

d)

Lanthanide series group

e)

Halogen reactive group

116.

Which statement best explains why Li has a lower first ionization energy than Be?

a)

Li has a larger radius and weaker attraction

b)

Li has more protons and stronger pull

c)

Be has fewer shielding electrons

d)

Be has higher electron affinity value

e)

Li has filled subshell stability

117.

When balancing nuclear equations, what two quantities must be conserved?

a)

Electron affinity and electronegativity

b)

Charge density and spin

c)

Half-life and decay constant

d)

Isotope abundance and energy

e)

Mass number and atomic number

118.

Which particle is produced alongside the beta-minus electron to conserve lepton number?

a)

Tau neutrino emitted

b)

Muon neutrino emitted

c)

Proton produced

d)

Electron neutrino emitted

e)

Photon produced

119.

Moving down Group 2 from Mg to Ca, which trend is most accurate?

a)

Atomic radius increases overall

b)

Ionization energy increases overall

c)

Electronegativity increases overall

d)

Shielding decreases overall

e)

Effective nuclear charge increases overall

120.

A 64.0 g sample of a liquid with heat of fusion 148 J/g solidifies at its freezing point. What heat is released?

a)

9.47×10^2 J released

b)

9.47×10^3 J released

c)

1.48×10^3 J released

d)

1.48×10^4 J released

121.

On a cooling curve, which section most likely represents the phase change from liquid to solid?

a)

Horizontal plateau segment

b)

Steep rising segment

c)

Gentle upward slope

d)

Sudden downward spike

122.

At 1 atm, a molecular substance starts at 97°C and cools for 10 minutes. What property determines energy release during freezing?

a)

Specific heat capacity

b)

Thermal conductivity

c)

Heat of fusion per gram

d)

Heat of vaporization

123.

Which statement best explains why halide ions (Group 17) have larger radii than their neutral atoms?

a)

Stronger nuclear charge

b)

Fewer occupied energy levels

c)

More proton attraction

d)

More electron–electron repulsion

124.

Which ion in Group 17 has the smallest ionic radius according to the table?

a)

Br− at 196 pm

b)

I− at 220 pm

c)

F− at 133 pm

d)

Cl− at 181 pm

125.

What trend is shown for ionic radius down Group 17 (F− to I−)?

a)

Fluctuates without pattern

b)

Decreases down the group

c)

Increases down the group

d)

Remains nearly constant

126.

If 32.0 g of the same substance freezes, how much heat is released?

a)

2.37×10^3 J released

b)

9.47×10^3 J released

c)

1.48×10^3 J released

d)

4.74×10^3 J released

127.

During the plateau on the cooling curve, the temperature remains constant. What process is occurring?

a)

Phase change with latent heat

b)

Decrease in pressure of the system

c)

Rapid heat loss without change

d)

Increase in kinetic energy

128.

Compared to Cl−, which statement about Br− radius is correct?

a)

Br− varies with temperature

b)

Br− has a larger radius

c)

Br− has a smaller radius

d)

Br− and Cl− are equal

129.

Which calculation correctly uses q = mHf for the 64.0 g sample?

a)

q = (64.0 g)(148 J/g)

b)

q = (64.0 g)(97 J/g)

c)

q = (64.0 g)(148 J/kg)

d)

q = (64.0 kg)(148 J/g)

130.

Which trend in atomic radius is observed for halogens when ordered by increasing atomic number from fluorine to iodine?

a)

The radius fluctuates randomly

b)

The radius decreases steadily

c)

The radius increases steadily

d)

The radius remains constant

131.

A neutral atom of oxygen-18 contains how many electrons relative to its number of protons?

a)

Variable electrons depending on isotope

b)

Equal electrons and protons

c)

More electrons than protons

d)

Fewer electrons than protons

132.

Which statement correctly compares water containing oxygen-16 to water containing oxygen-18 during evaporation?

a)

Oxygen-16 water evaporates slightly faster

b)

Both evaporate at identical rates

c)

Evaporation depends only on temperature

d)

Oxygen-18 water evaporates slightly faster

133.

The three naturally occurring isotopes of oxygen have which set of mass numbers?

a)

18, 19, 20

b)

16, 17, 18

c)

12, 14, 16

d)

14, 15, 16

134.

Which relationship correctly defines the number of neutrons in an atom?

a)

Neutrons equal electrons plus protons

b)

Neutrons equal atomic number minus mass number

c)

Neutrons equal mass number minus atomic number

d)

Neutrons equal mass number plus atomic number

135.

Americium-241 has atomic number 95. How many neutrons are in a neutral atom of Am-241?

a)

146 protons

b)

241 neutrons

c)

146 neutrons

d)

95 neutrons

136.

Which radioactive isotope is listed as being used for anemia diagnosis?

a)

Fe-59

b)

I-131

c)

U-238

d)

Am-241

137.

Which isotope in the table is associated with dating geological formations?

a)

Fe-59

b)

I-131

c)

U-238

d)

Am-241

138.

Which pair correctly matches the isotope with its listed use for smoke detectors?

a)

Am-241—smoke detectors

b)

U-238—smoke detectors

c)

I-131—smoke detectors

d)

Fe-59—smoke detectors

139.

Across the halogens from fluorine to iodine, which explanation best supports the observed increase in atomic radius?

a)

Covalent radii collapse at high mass

b)

More electron shells are added

c)

Protons are removed from the nucleus

d)

Electron shielding decreases substantially

140.

Which statement best compares the penetrating power of alpha and beta particles?

a)

Neither alpha nor beta particles can penetrate paper

b)

Alpha and beta particles have equal penetrating ability

c)

Beta particles penetrate more than alpha particles

d)

Alpha particles penetrate more than beta particles

141.

Rubidium is silvery-white solid, while iodine is bluish-black lustrous solid. What type of property is this description?

a)

Chemical property of elements

b)

Physical property of elements

c)

Nuclear property of isotopes

d)

Electrostatic property of ions

142.

According to the properties listed, which is a chemical property of iodine?

a)

Specific heat equals 0.214 J/gK

b)

Bluish-black lustrous solid

c)

Forms ionic bonds with active metals

d)

Sublimes at room temperature

143.

Bk-249 has a half-life of 320 days and decays by beta emission with gamma rays. What does beta emission do to the atomic number?

a)

Decreases atomic number by 2

b)

Increases atomic number by 1

c)

Decreases atomic number by 1

d)

Leaves atomic number unchanged

144.

In the synthesis reaction, Ca-48 + Bk-249 → Uus-293 + 4₁⁰n. What is conserved across the nuclear equation?

a)

Only the number of neutrons is conserved

b)

Both mass number and charge are conserved

c)

Mass number only is conserved

d)

Atomic number only is conserved

145.

Which statement correctly describes gamma rays mentioned with Bk-249 decay?

a)

Gamma rays always change atomic number

b)

Gamma rays have large mass

c)

Gamma rays are high-energy photons

d)

Gamma rays are charged particles

146.

Complete the alpha decay: 294₁₁₇Uus → 4₂He + _____. What is the missing product?

a)

290₁₁₅Up

b)

290₁₁₆Up

c)

290₁₁₇Uus

d)

292₁₁₅Up

147.

Which change occurs to a nucleus during alpha decay?

a)

Neutron number increases by two

b)

Atomic number increases by one

c)

Atomic number decreases by two

d)

Mass number increases by four

148.

Rubidium reacts with oxygen in the air. This behavior is classified as which property?

a)

Electromagnetic property of rubidium

b)

Nuclear property of rubidium

c)

Chemical property of rubidium

d)

Physical property of rubidium

149.

Iodine sublimates at room temperature. What does this mean?

a)

Solid iodine dissolves in water

b)

Solid iodine becomes gas directly

c)

Iodine gas condenses to liquid

d)

Liquid iodine freezes to solid

150.

A radioisotope has a half-life of 320 days. What fraction of the original sample remains after 960 days?

a)

One-eighth of the original sample

b)

One-fourth of the original sample

c)

One-sixteenth of the original sample

d)

One-half of the original sample