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NCM109 - Lesson 7

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines post-partum hemorrhage in clinical terms?

a)

Any genital tract bleeding after six weeks postpartum

b)

Bleeding exceeding 500 ml within 24 hours after birth

c)

Any postpartum spotting within the first two weeks

d)

Bleeding exceeding 250 ml during the second stage of labor

2.

Fill in the blank: Severe post-partum hemorrhage is blood loss greater than or equal to (a)   within 24 hours.

3.

Which timing correctly classifies primary post-partum hemorrhage?

a)

Only during the first stage of labor

b)

Between 24 hours and 6 weeks postpartum

c)

Any bleeding beyond six weeks postpartum

d)

During third stage and within 24 hours of delivery

4.

Which change in vital signs commonly indicates deterioration in a mother with post-partum hemorrhage?

a)

Falling pulse with rising blood pressure

b)

Stable pulse with stable blood pressure

c)

Stable pulse with rising blood pressure

d)

Rising pulse with falling blood pressure

5.

Secondary post-partum hemorrhage is also referred to as (a)   hemorrhage.

6.

A patient bleeds 600 ml within 12 hours after delivery. How should this be classified?

a)

Primary post-partum hemorrhage

b)

Non-obstetric uterine bleeding

c)

Secondary post-partum hemorrhage

d)

Physiologic postpartum lochia

7.

Which primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage is due to failure of uterine muscle contraction after delivery?

a)

Uterine inversion with fundal collapse

b)

Atonic uterus lacking contraction

c)

Retained placental tissue fragments

d)

Uterine rupture through myometrium

8.

Identify the condition where the uterus turns inside out during or after delivery.

a)

Endometritis causing late bleeding

b)

Subinvolution of placental site

c)

Atonic uterus after placental delivery

d)

Uterine inversion during expulsion

9.

Which item is NOT listed as a primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Cervico-vaginal laceration trauma

b)

Uterine rupture leading bleeding

c)

Blood coagulopathy affecting clotting

d)

Retained product of conception

10.

Name the cause of secondary postpartum hemorrhage characterized by delayed healing at the placental attachment site.

(a)  

11.

Which is a recognized cause of secondary postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Uterine rupture during second stage

b)

Blood coagulopathy post-delivery

c)

Retained bits of cotyledon or membranes

d)

Atonic uterus causing immediate bleed

12.

Select the rare cause linked with secondary postpartum hemorrhage.

a)

Atonic uterus with poor tone

b)

Primary uterine inversion event

c)

Fibroid polyp causing delayed bleeding

d)

Trauma mixed with atony

13.

Which maternal factor increases risk for postpartum hemorrhage due to overdistended uterus?

a)

Prolonged third stage of labor

b)

Grandmultiparity with many births

c)

Multiple delivery causing distension

d)

Placenta previa near cervical os

14.

A patient has a history of postpartum hemorrhage. How does this history affect current risk?

a)

Indicates only secondary PPH risk

b)

No impact on current risk profile

c)

Moderately increases current PPH risk

d)

Eliminates risk with preventive care

15.

Which risk factor is most associated with surgical delivery–related bleeding in the late postpartum period?

a)

Placental abruption before delivery

b)

Episiotomy fetal macrosomia

c)

Pregnancy induced hypertension

d)

Secondary hemorrhage from caesarean section

16.

Prioritize initial suspected cause in immediate heavy bleeding postpartum when uterus is soft and boggy.

a)

Endometritis causing infectious bleeding

b)

Retained membranes causing delayed bleeding

c)

Atonic uterus causing inadequate contraction

d)

Uterine rupture causing concealed bleeding

17.

Which finding best differentiates secondary from primary postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Timing after 24 hours postpartum

b)

Presence of uterine inversion

c)

Association with macrosomic fetus

d)

Evidence of blood coagulopathy

18.

Which clinical sign most directly indicates hemodynamic compromise in postpartum hemorrhage, as shown in the symptoms diagram?

a)

Mild breast tenderness

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Improved skin warmth

d)

Normal urine output

19.

In the 4 Ts framework, which category corresponds to uterine atony in postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Clotting

b)

Tissue

c)

Tone

d)

Trauma

20.

A patient passes large clots and reports dizziness after delivery. Which immediate vital sign change is most consistent with postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Decreased respiratory rate

b)

Increased oxygen saturation

c)

Decreased blood pressure

d)

Stable heart rhythm

21.

Match each 'T' of postpartum hemorrhage with its example etiology.

a)

Tone → Uterine atony; Tissue → Retained placenta

b)

Clotting → Uterine rupture; Trauma → Coagulopathy

c)

Tone → Retained placenta; Trauma → Uterine atony

d)

Tone → Lacerations; Tissue → Coagulopathy

22.

Which presentation most suggests perineal trauma contributing to postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Swelling and pain in vaginal and perineal tissues

b)

Improved uterine tone on palpation

c)

Warm, dry skin without tenderness

d)

Clear urine with steady output

23.

In the 4 Ts framework, retained placenta is classified under which category?

a)

Trauma

b)

Tone

c)

Clotting

d)

Tissue

24.

Which etiology aligns with the 'Clotting' category in postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Uterine rupture

b)

Uterine atony

c)

Retained placenta

d)

Coagulopathy

25.

A patient has decreased blood pressure and lightheadedness after delivery. Which step best prioritizes early recognition of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario?

a)

Delay assessment until the next scheduled round

b)

Encourage early ambulation and stretching

c)

Administer routine postpartum vaccinations

d)

Identify symptoms consistent with acute blood loss

26.

Which first-line action helps control postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony?

a)

Routine antibiotic prophylaxis alone

b)

Rapid hysterectomy without stabilization

c)

Immediate uterine massage with firm pressure

d)

Delayed oxytocin hours after delivery

27.

Which uterotonic is appropriate for persistent uterine atony when oxytocin is insufficient?

a)

Progesterone oral supplementation

b)

Heparin intravenous bolus

c)

Magnesium sulfate infusion

d)

Carboprost intramuscular administration

28.

A patient with heavy bleeding after delivery has a boggy uterus and no retained tissue on ultrasound. Which escalation is most appropriate after uterine massage and oxytocin fail?

a)

Carboprost administration for uterine contraction

b)

Immediate D&C to clear the uterine cavity

c)

Observation with serial hemoglobin checks

d)

Start prophylactic broad-spectrum antibiotics

29.

In surgical management of refractory uterine atony, which option aims to reduce uterine blood flow?

a)

Endometrial ablation for menstrual control

b)

Tubal ligation for contraception only

c)

Uterine artery ligation by experienced surgeon

d)

Cervical cerclage during pregnancy

30.

Which intervention is routinely given alongside D&C for retained products to reduce infection risk?

a)

High-dose oxytocin infusion only

b)

Carboprost repeated every fifteen minutes

c)

Gauze packing without medications

d)

Prophylactic antibiotics before and after

31.

Place the following steps in order for managing retained placental fragments with bleeding: confirm retention, uterotonic therapy, perform D&C, administer prophylactic antibiotics. Which step should occur second?

a)

Uterotonic therapy for contraction

b)

Administer prophylactic antibiotics

c)

Perform D&C procedure

d)

Confirm retention by evaluation

32.

Which postpartum complication is depicted by palpable fetal parts and a tear along a uterine scar?

a)

Uterine rupture with scar dehiscence

b)

Placental abruption with concealed bleed

c)

Uterine atony without structural tear

d)

Cervical laceration with minor bleeding

33.

What is the immediate priority when trauma causes significant blood loss after birth?

a)

Identify and treat the trauma source quickly

b)

Administer oral iron supplementation first

c)

Schedule elective imaging within 24 hours

d)

Observe without intervention for six hours

34.

Vaginal bleeding after delivery may be concealed, leading most commonly to what complication?

a)

Hematoma in surrounding tissue space

b)

Endometritis with fever and pain

c)

Uterine atony causing slow trickle

d)

Retained placenta causing clots

35.

Which supportive measure accompanies surgical control of traumatic postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Topical estrogen to the cervix

b)

Resuscitation with fluids and blood

c)

Immediate discharge to the ward

d)

Routine diuretics for edema

36.

After delivery, observation for approximately two hours ensures which finding before ward transfer?

a)

Uterus is hard and well contracted

b)

Perineum is entirely pain free

c)

Lochia is completely absent

d)

Hemoglobin level is above baseline

37.

Any derangement of hemostasis in postpartum hemorrhage is most typically defined as what?

a)

Enhanced thrombin generation always

b)

Hyperfibrinolysis without bleeding risk

c)

Excessive platelet production occurs

d)

Impaired clot formation predominates

38.

Which of the following is a recognized cause of hemostasis derangement in obstetrics?

a)

Mild dehydration from breastfeeding

b)

Amniotic fluid embolism leading coagulopathy

c)

Benign uterine fibroid regression

d)

Physiologic leukocytosis after labor

39.

Which antenatal measure most directly reduces modifiable risk for post-partum hemorrhage?

a)

Routine blood group documentation and crossmatch readiness

b)

Universal prophylactic antibiotics throughout pregnancy

c)

General improvement of maternal health status through optimization

d)

Identification and scheduling of high-risk patients for elective delivery

40.

During cesarean section, which intranatal practice helps prevent excessive bleeding?

a)

Continuous uterotonic infusion before fetal delivery

b)

Delayed uterine closure to promote drainage

c)

Spontaneous separation and delivery of the placenta

d)

Manual rapid extraction of placenta without traction

41.

Active management of the third stage of labor typically includes the use of (a)   .

42.

Which action best describes active management of the third stage to reduce PPH?

a)

Expectant observation until placenta expels spontaneously

b)

Prophylactic transfusion for all postpartum patients

c)

Controlled cord traction with timely uterotonics administration

d)

Routine uterine packing immediately after delivery

43.

A patient is categorized as high risk for PPH antenatally. Which planning step improves safety intrapartum?

a)

Avoiding oxytocin to prevent uterine tachysystole

b)

Ensuring an expert obstetric anesthetist is present

c)

Scheduling slow delivery regardless of fetal status

d)

Skipping placental examination to shorten third stage

44.

Immediately after birth, which sequence best minimizes missed bleeding sources?

a)

Give antibiotics, discharge early, schedule clinic follow-up

b)

Apply fundal pressure, discharge after one hour observation

c)

Examine placenta, explore utero-vaginal canal, observe two hours

d)

Observe two hours, then examine placenta and canal

45.

Which uterotonic agent and dose is recommended during active management of the third stage of labor when available?

a)

Oxytocin 10 IU IM routinely

b)

Oxytocin 5 IU slow IV

c)

Carbetocin 100 µg IV push

d)

Misoprostol 400 µg orally

46.

When oxytocin is not available or feasible, what is the recommended alternative and dose for prevention of postpartum hemorrhage?

(a)  

47.

Which blood loss threshold defines postpartum hemorrhage after cesarean delivery?

a)

Greater than 1 liter of loss

b)

Greater than 500 milliliters

c)

Any visible bleeding at perineum

d)

More than 250 milliliters

48.

A patient has ongoing bleeding after delivery. What is the immediate priority in initial resuscitation?

a)

Secure IV access promptly

b)

Begin uterine tamponade

c)

Order coagulation studies

d)

Administer blood products

49.

Fill in the blank: For fluid resuscitation in ongoing bleeding, aim to keep blood pressure above (a)   mm Hg systolic.

50.

Which oxytocin infusion dose range is recommended during ongoing bleeding management?

a)

5–10 IU per liter IV

b)

1–2 IU per hour IV

c)

50–80 IU per liter IV

d)

20–40 IU per liter IV

51.

Which bedside maneuver is indicated to reduce pelvic arterial flow during uncontrolled PPH prior to definitive measures?

a)

Bladder catheter clamping

b)

Uterine inversion reduction

c)

Manual placental removal

d)

Aortic compression technique

52.

Which step helps identify multifactorial causes when bleeding persists despite initial measures?

a)

Examine to determine causes

b)

Increase oxytocin concentration

c)

Start prophylactic antibiotics

d)

Apply fundal pressure continuously

53.

Which cause category in the PPH algorithm is addressed by removing retained tissue with curettage or manual extraction?

a)

Tissue etiology management

b)

Trauma source control

c)

Thrombin pathway correction

d)

Tone restoration approach

54.

Which component of the ‘4 Ts’ corresponds to uterine atony?

(a)  

55.

Which product combination is appropriate for coagulopathy management during PPH?

a)

FFP, RBC, cryoprecipitate

b)

Tranexamic acid exclusively

c)

Platelets only, no plasma

d)

Normal saline boluses alone

56.

Which prostaglandin is recommended for refractory atony, including dose and route options?

a)

Misoprostol 200 µg sublingual

b)

Carboprost 250 µg IV bolus

c)

15‑methyl PGF2α 0.25–1 mg IM or intramyometrial

d)

Dinoprostone 3 mg vaginal insert

57.

What should be done immediately for uterine inversion identified postpartum?

a)

Delay reinversion, observe closely

b)

Immediate reinversion and consult

c)

Start oxytocin and wait

d)

Apply fundal massage vigorously

58.

Which advanced interventions are listed when hemorrhage is still not controlled?

a)

Bed rest and serial vitals in recovery

b)

Operating room for arterial ligation or hysterectomy

c)

Increase oxytocin to 100 IU/L on ward

d)

Prolonged external uterine massage only

59.

Which trauma-related sources should be considered and may require surgical repair during PPH?

a)

Ureteral injury primarily

b)

Ovarian torsion assessment

c)

Placenta accreta exclusively

d)

Episiotomy, hematoma, ruptured uterus

60.

During severe hypotension with unstable vitals, which escalation step is appropriate?

a)

Delay surgery preparations

b)

Avoid transfusion products

c)

Switch to oral fluids only

d)

Place central IV line promptly

61.

Which intramuscular dose of ergometrine is recommended during active management of post‑partum hemorrhage?

a)

0.1 mg intramuscularly

b)

0.2 mg intramuscularly

c)

0.5 mg intramuscularly

d)

1.0 mg intramuscularly

62.

Which combination drug can be given intramuscularly as an alternative to ergometrine during active management of bleeding?

a)

Misoprostol 400 micrograms

b)

Syntometrine 1 milliliter

c)

Carbetocin 100 micrograms

d)

Methylergometrine 5 milligrams

63.

During active management, what simple physical maneuver helps stimulate uterine contraction and retraction?

a)

Suprapubic compression

b)

Fundal pressure only

c)

Bimanual uterine massage

d)

Controlled cord traction

64.

When should the placenta be expelled during active management to reduce bleeding?

a)

Following bladder catheterization

b)

After oxytocin infusion starts

c)

With the next uterine contraction

d)

Immediately after delivery

65.

What technique may be used to assist placental expulsion during active management when the uterus contracts?

a)

Vacuum extraction of placenta

b)

Manual removal without traction

c)

Fundal pressure or controlled cord traction

d)

Rapid cord traction

66.

What immediate step helps uterine contraction by removing a factor that impedes it in active management of bleeding?

a)

Apply external aortic compression

b)

Administer tranexamic acid

c)

Empty the urinary bladder by catheterization

d)

Start high‑rate oxytocin infusion

67.

If bleeding persists ten minutes after the first dose, what is the recommended next action regarding ergometrine or syntometrine?

a)

Switch to misoprostol

b)

Stop uterotonics

c)

Repeat a second dose

d)

Increase oxytocin rate

68.

Fill in the blank: An intramuscular alternative to ergometrine during active management is (a)   .

69.

Which uterotonic regimen is most appropriate to initiate for true postpartum hemorrhage requiring continuous contraction support?

a)

Oxytocin infusion at titrated rates

b)

Single dose ergometrine only

c)

Prostaglandin gel intrauterine

d)

No uterotonic, just massage

70.

Which statement best represents a reasoned sequence for initial management when heavy bleeding continues after delivery?

a)

Delay uterotonics until hemorrhage stops

b)

Start prostaglandins, ignore massage

c)

Massage uterus, give uterotonic, assist placenta

d)

Catheterize bladder after placenta delivers

71.

Which maneuver correctly describes bimanual uterine massage for an atonic uterus during postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

Both hands on abdomen compressing the fundus

b)

One vaginal hand pushing uterus, other compresses fundus

c)

Abdominal hand pulls fundus upward without vaginal support

d)

Two vaginal hands elevating cervix toward fundus

72.

During bimanual uterine massage, which aspect is massaged by the abdominal hand?

a)

Posterior aspect of uterus

b)

Anterior aspect of uterus

c)

Lateral aspect of uterus

d)

Cervical aspect of uterus

73.

Select the typical intramuscular dose of oxytocin for treating postpartum hemorrhage.

a)

5 IU intramuscularly

b)

10 IU intramuscularly

c)

40 IU intramuscularly

d)

20 IU intramuscularly

74.

What is a recommended oxytocin infusion rate when diluting 20 IU in 1 L normal saline?

a)

500 mL per hour

b)

400 mL per hour

c)

250 mL per hour

d)

100 mL per hour

75.

How much oxytocin-containing fluid can be safely infused rapidly over 10 minutes without complications?

a)

750 mL over 10 minutes

b)

500 mL over 10 minutes

c)

250 mL over 10 minutes

d)

400 mL over 10 minutes

76.

Identify the typical dose and route for methylergonovine used in postpartum hemorrhage.

a)

0.1 mg orally once

b)

0.2 mg intramuscularly, repeat in 2–4 hours

c)

1 mg subcutaneously, repeat every hour

d)

0.5 mg intravenously, continuous infusion

77.

Carboprost for refractory postpartum hemorrhage is given at what dose and interval?

a)

1 mg single dose

b)

0.5 mg every 60 minutes

c)

0.25 mg every 15 minutes

d)

0.1 mg every 30 minutes

78.

What is the maximum total cumulative dose of carboprost typically used?

a)

1 mg total dose

b)

2 mg total dose

c)

3 mg total dose

d)

4 mg total dose

79.

Which route and dose align with FIGO’s recommendation for misoprostol in postpartum hemorrhage?

a)

600 mcg sublingual dose

b)

400 mcg oral dose

c)

800 mcg vaginal dose

d)

1,000 mcg rectal dose

80.

Beyond uterotonics, which procedure addresses bleeding from genital tract lacerations during postpartum hemorrhage management?

a)

External uterine compression only

b)

Expectant management without intervention

c)

Prompt laceration repair with suturing

d)

Immediate hysterectomy without assessment

81.

Which statement best describes the goal when managing lacerations and hematomas from birth trauma during postpartum care?

a)

Delay repair until edema fully resolves

b)

Prioritize cosmetic outcome over hemostasis

c)

Achieve hemostasis and perform timely repair

d)

Observe only if bleeding appears minimal

82.

Fill in the blank with the precise term: (a)   is rare in the context of postpartum complications mentioned.

83.

Which statement accurately defines hysterectomy in the context of life‑threatening gynecologic conditions?

a)

Endometrial ablation for heavy periods

b)

Excision of fallopian tubes for menorrhagia

c)

Removal of ovaries during menopause only

d)

Partial or total removal of the uterus surgically

84.

A patient with refractory postpartum hemorrhage and suspected uterine rupture is unstable. Which plan reflects appropriate DoK 3 reasoning for operative management?

a)

Initiate psychotherapy before any surgery

b)

Schedule elective repair after 48 hours

c)

Proceed to surgical repair or hysterectomy urgently

d)

Administer oral iron and discharge home

85.

Which definition of dystocia is correct within labor management?

a)

Postpartum recovery without complications

b)

Long, difficult, or abnormal labor pattern

c)

Elective induction with minimal contractions

d)

Normal labor with rapid progression

86.

Identify the three major components of the labor process used to analyze causes of dystocia.

a)

Provider, protocol, environment

b)

Hormones, nutrition, hydration

c)

Powers, passenger, passageway

d)

Placenta, cervix, perineum

87.

A fetus in malpresentation with narrow maternal pelvis causes slow labor despite adequate contractions. Which component primarily explains the difficulty?

a)

Placental component mainly

b)

Passenger and passageway components

c)

Maternal psychology component

d)

Powers component only

88.

Which factor most directly increases risk for uterine dystocia by causing excessive uterine volume?

a)

Multiple gestation causing overdistention

b)

Electrolyte imbalance causing cramping

c)

Maternal dehydration causing hypoperfusion

d)

Short maternal stature limiting outlet

89.

Cephalopelvic disproportion primarily reflects a mismatch between which two structures?

a)

Fetal head and maternal pelvis

b)

Uterine fundus and lower segment

c)

Placenta and uterine wall

d)

Cervix and amniotic membranes

90.

Which scenario best illustrates pelvic dystocia?

a)

Midpelvis contracture reducing capacity

b)

Overdistended uterus from hydramnios

c)

Uterine overstimulation with oxytocin

d)

Placenta previa obstructing the passage

91.

A primigravid adolescent presents in labor with poor engagement at the inlet. Which pelvic factor increases her risk of dystocia?

a)

Pelvic immaturity with smaller diameters

b)

Uterine fibroid causing obstruction

c)

Maternal fear increasing catecholamines

d)

Ovarian tumor compressing the outlet

92.

Which soft tissue condition most likely prevents the fetal head from entering the bony pelvis?

a)

Oxytocin overstimulation tachysystole

b)

Placenta previa covering the os

c)

Cephalopelvic disproportion mismatch

d)

Maternal short stature alone

93.

Identify a modifiable contributor to uterine dystocia during labor management.

a)

Adolescent pelvic immaturity

b)

Inappropriate timing of analgesic agents

c)

Congenital uterine malformation

d)

Maternal short stature trait

94.

During prolonged labor with a visible abdominal ridge and severe pain, what complication related to a Bandl ring is of greatest concern?

a)

Development of cord prolapse

b)

Increased risk of uterine rupture

c)

Progression to placental abruption

d)

Onset of shoulder dystocia

95.

Which combination best groups soft tissue dystocia causes?

a)

Fibroids, ovarian tumors, full bladder

b)

Hydramnios, multiple gestation, CPD

c)

Fear, fatigue, electrolyte imbalance

d)

Short stature, dehydration, malpresentation

96.

Which anatomical structure most commonly impedes delivery in shoulder dystocia as shown in the diagram?

a)

Ischial spine trapping the posterior arm

b)

Iliac crest compressing the fetal thorax

c)

Pubic bone obstructing the anterior shoulder

d)

Sacral promontory obstructing the fetal head

97.

In the diagram comparing nerve bundles, what injury mechanism to the brachial plexus is depicted in shoulder dystocia?

a)

Stretch causing neuropraxia or axon damage

b)

Ischemia causing nerve infarction

c)

Transection of the upper trunks

d)

Compression leading to demyelination

98.

Which immediate fetal risk is increased when the anterior shoulder is wedged under the pubic bone during delivery?

a)

Umbilical cord compression reducing oxygenation

b)

Rectal laceration increasing infection

c)

Placental abruption causing maternal shock

d)

Uterine rupture causing hemorrhage

99.

Identify the maternal pelvic region highlighted in the small inset that relates to the site of shoulder impaction.

a)

Anterior pelvis near pubic symphysis

b)

Posterior pelvis near sacrum

c)

Lateral pelvis near iliac wings

d)

Pelvic floor near perineum