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PTA 1800 Chap 5

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term best describes increased resistance to passive movement that is velocity-independent and affects agonist and antagonist muscles equally?

a)

Action potential with depolarization

b)

Spasticity with clasp-knife pattern

c)

Rigidity with lead-pipe quality

d)

Flaccidity with absent reflexes

2.

A patient shows velocity-dependent increase in muscle tone, most prominent in antigravity muscles. Which term fits this presentation?

a)

Synapse involving chemical junction

b)

Flaccidity involving muscle hyperlength

c)

Spasticity involving stretch reflex

d)

Rigidity involving both muscle groups

3.

Which term denotes markedly reduced muscle tone with decreased resistance to passive movement and diminished reflexes?

a)

Spasticity with velocity dependence

b)

Rigidity with cogwheel pattern

c)

Flaccidity with hypotonia signs

d)

Motor unit with recruitment

4.

What is the rapid electrical signal that propagates along a neuron to trigger neurotransmitter release?

a)

Rigidity sustained tonic contraction

b)

Action potential along axolemma

c)

Motor unit end-plate field

d)

Synapse structural cleft membrane

5.

Which option best defines a motor unit?

a)

A synaptic cleft between neurons

b)

A motor neuron and its fibers

c)

A neurotransmitter storage pool

d)

A peripheral reflex receptor

6.

Which statement correctly describes a synapse?

a)

Passive stretch resistance

b)

Bundle of motor units

c)

Junction where cells communicate

d)

Electrical signal itself

7.

Neurotransmitters are best described as which of the following?

a)

Structures that store synapses

b)

Ions that form action potentials

c)

Chemicals that transmit signals

d)

Muscle units that contract fibers

8.

Which statement best defines muscle tone in a resting muscle?

a)

Electrical activity recorded by EMG only

b)

Endurance capacity during repeated use

c)

Active force generated during contraction

d)

Passive resistance to stretch at rest

9.

Which challenge most directly affects accurate assessment of muscle tone during examination?

a)

Patient must provide no active resistance

b)

Examiner must measure joint angles only

c)

Patient must maximally contract the muscle

d)

Testing must occur after vigorous exercise

10.

Hypotonicity is best described as

a)

Decreased resistance to stretch compared to normal

b)

Increased resistance to stretch compared to normal

c)

Velocity-dependent resistance at high speeds only

d)

Sustained involuntary co-contraction of agonists

11.

Flaccidity is most accurately characterized as

a)

Total absence of resistance to passive stretch

b)

Mildly increased resistance to quick stretch

c)

Intermittent beats following a sudden stretch

d)

Sustained tremor with small amplitude

12.

Which feature distinguishes spasticity from general hypertonia?

a)

Resistance increases with higher stretch velocities

b)

Muscle is weak only during voluntary effort

c)

Resistance is constant across all stretch speeds

d)

Tone decreases during quick passive stretch

13.

Clonus is best defined as

a)

Multiple rhythmic oscillations after quick stretch

b)

Sustained rigidity throughout the entire range

c)

Low-amplitude high-frequency tremor at rest

d)

Random dance-like jerky movements of limbs

14.

Which description matches dystonia?

a)

Involuntary sustained contractions causing abnormal postures

b)

Brief ballistic movements throwing the limb outward

c)

Totally absent resistance with flaccid positioning

d)

Velocity-dependent catch during rapid stretch

15.

A patient shows large throwing-type limb movements. This pattern is most consistent with

a)

Ballismus, a subtype of dyskinesia

b)

Chorea, a subtype of rigidity

c)

Tremor, a form of hypotonia

d)

Clonus, a type of dystonia

16.

Which statement about dyskinesia is accurate?

a)

It is a descriptive term for involuntary abnormal movement

b)

It is synonymous with paralysis of voluntary muscles

c)

It is defined as constant muscle stiffness at rest

d)

It is another name for muscle strength assessment

17.

Which pair correctly links abnormal movement subtype with its description?

a)

Ballismus – sustained postures from co-contraction

b)

Chorea – dance-like sharp jerky motions

c)

Tremor – large ballistic throwing movements

d)

Athetoid – high-frequency small oscillations

18.

Which statement about rigidity in hypertonicity is most appropriate?

a)

It represents a total absence of passive resistance

b)

Muscles are stiff or immovable and resistant to stretch

c)

Resistance appears only at very high velocities of stretch

d)

Tone fluctuates dramatically from moment to moment

19.

When tone fluctuates, the clinician should primarily

a)

Describe the type of involuntary movement observed

b)

Rely only on strength testing and ignore tone

c)

Classify the patient as flaccid without further tests

d)

Measure tone solely with a handheld dynamometer

20.

Which statement best defines how fluctuating muscle tone is documented during examination?

a)

Average several tone readings across sessions

b)

Record the observed dyskinesia rather than the tone

c)

Report tone only during voluntary contractions

d)

Label it as variable spasticity across muscle groups

e)

Describe it as alternating hypertonia and hypotonia

21.

Which measure is considered quantitative for assessing muscle tone in clinical practice?

a)

Ashworth scale rating resistance during movement

b)

Electromyography measuring electrical muscle activity

c)

Clinical tone scale scoring from zero to four

d)

Muscle stretch reflex hammer testing to grade reflexes

e)

Observation of passive limb movement quality

22.

In the pendulum test for spasticity, which observation most indicates increased tone?

a)

Limb stops quickly due to stretch resistance

b)

Limb accelerates to greater terminal velocity

c)

Limb shows delayed drop but prolonged swing

d)

Limb swings freely through full range repeatedly

e)

Limb oscillates symmetrically without damping

23.

Which device directly quantifies force or torque when measuring tone?

a)

Palpation of muscle bulk

b)

Dynamometer or myometer instruments

c)

Reflex hammer and ruler

d)

Manual muscle testing only

e)

Goniometer for joint angles

24.

Which best matches the Modified Ashworth Scale grade 0 description?

a)

Slight catch and minimal end-range resistance

b)

Marked increase through most of the range

c)

Rigid affected part in flexion or extension

d)

Considerable increase making passive movement hard

e)

No increase in muscle tone detected

25.

On the Modified Ashworth Scale, which description corresponds to grade 1+?

a)

More marked tone increase through most of ROM

b)

Catch followed by minimal resistance through less than half ROM

c)

Catch and release at end range only

d)

Rigid limb held in flexion or extension throughout

e)

Considerable tone increase with difficult passive movement

26.

Which clinical approach is primarily qualitative rather than quantitative?

a)

Isokinetic dynamometry torque curves

b)

Surface EMG amplitude analysis

c)

Pendulum kinematic angle traces

d)

Load-cell based myometry

e)

Clinical tone scale scoring 0–4

27.

Which Modified Ashworth grade best fits: passive movement difficult due to high resistance?

a)

Grade 3

b)

Grade 1

c)

Grade 2

d)

Grade 1+

e)

Grade 4

28.

During midrange measurement of tone, the clinician emphasizes which movement region?

a)

Terminal range to provoke stretch reflex

b)

Full range repeated to average tone

c)

Middle of range to reduce length-dependent effects

d)

Beginning range near resting position

e)

End range where tissue slack is minimal

29.

Which scenario best differentiates spasticity using a quick stretch during assessment?

a)

Eccentric load showing delayed onset fatigue

b)

Sustained stretch producing gradual yielding over minutes

c)

Rapid stretch causing a catch and release response

d)

Slow passive movement with no change in resistance

e)

Active contraction increasing resistance uniformly

30.

Which structure is the final common pathway that directly stimulates skeletal muscle contraction?

a)

Golgi tendon organ in the tendon

b)

Sensory neuron from peripheral skin

c)

Muscle spindle within the muscle belly

d)

Alpha motor neuron in the spinal cord

31.

Muscle tone is most accurately assessed at which muscle length position during clinical examination?

a)

Fully shortened length of the muscle

b)

Midrange length of the tested muscle

c)

Maximally stretched muscle length

d)

Random length determined by comfort

32.

Which cellular event immediately enables actin–myosin cross-bridge formation during activation?

a)

Neural stimulation triggers calcium release

b)

Temperature decreases within the tissue

c)

Myelin thickening around the axon

d)

ATP is stored without hydrolysis occurring

33.

What is the principal role of myelin on peripheral motor axons regarding action potentials?

a)

Generate muscle force directly

b)

Increase conduction speed of signals

c)

Store calcium for release

d)

Initiate synaptic neurotransmitter production

34.

Which sensor primarily detects changes in muscle length to help regulate tone via stretch reflexes?

a)

Cutaneous pressure receptors

b)

Muscle spindle intrafusal fibers

c)

Golgi tendon organ receptors

d)

Joint capsular Ruffini endings

35.

During which condition would action potential transmission along a motor nerve most likely slow down?

a)

Increased ATP availability

b)

Exposure to cold temperature

c)

Greater actin–myosin overlap

d)

Mild tissue warming

36.

The length–tension relationship predicts maximal cross-bridge formation at which approximate sarcomere state?

a)

Midrange overlap of actin and myosin

b)

No overlap between thin and thick

c)

Complete compression without space

d)

Random alignment of filaments

37.

Which statement best differentiates muscle spindles from Golgi tendon organs?

a)

Spindles produce myelin; GTOs release calcium

b)

Spindles sense stretch; GTOs sense tension

c)

Spindles sense tension; GTOs sense heat

d)

Spindles generate force; GTOs store ATP

38.

What ionic mechanism initiates the wave of depolarization in a motor neuron during an action potential?

a)

Osmotic movement of water across myelin

b)

Na+/K+ pump–driven changes in membrane potential

c)

Passive diffusion of chloride through dendrites

d)

Calcium buffering inside the sarcoplasmic reticulum

39.

When standardizing manual muscle tone assessment, which practice improves reliability across sessions?

a)

Consistent limb and body positions relative to gravity

b)

Varying touch and pressure between trials

c)

Testing only at end-range flexion or extension

d)

Ignoring underlying muscle strength differences

40.

Which receptor detects muscle stretch and sends signals into the spinal cord?

a)

Golgi tendon organ

b)

Basal ganglia loop

c)

Muscle spindle

d)

Nociceptor unit

41.

Golgi tendon organs primarily monitor which variable during movement?

a)

Blood glucose

b)

Muscle contraction

c)

Joint vibration

d)

Skin temperature

42.

Cutaneous receptors can change muscle tone because they transmit which types of stimuli?

a)

Equilibrium, rotation, acceleration, tilt

b)

pH, osmolarity, hormones, gases

c)

Light, sound, smell, taste

d)

Temperature, pressure, texture, stretch

43.

Low muscle tone is also known by which term?

a)

Hypotonicity

b)

Dyssynergia

c)

Hypertonicity

d)

Anisotropy

44.

A common functional consequence of low muscle tone is most accurately described as

a)

Increased tendon reflexes with clonus

b)

Difficulty generating force to maintain posture

c)

Inability to relax after maximal effort

d)

Rapid alternating movements becoming faster

45.

Which clinical example is linked to low muscle tone in post-stroke patients?

a)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

b)

Patellar dislocation

c)

Shoulder subluxation

d)

Achilles tendinopathy

46.

Damage to which neuron type most directly causes low muscle tone from denervation?

a)

Somatosensory neuron

b)

Alpha motor neuron

c)

Gamma interneuron

d)

Upper motor neuron

47.

Which rehabilitation modality is listed for alpha motor neuron damage?

a)

Electrical stimulation

b)

Ballistic plyometrics

c)

Whole-body vibration

d)

High-load eccentric lifting

48.

High muscle tone results from abnormally high excitatory input to an intact alpha motor neuron, often due to lesions in which system?

a)

Pulmonary vascular system

b)

Central nervous system

c)

Peripheral endocrine system

d)

Autonomic enteric system

49.

Which associated effect is specifically linked with high muscle tone?

a)

Contractures

b)

Joint laxity

c)

Osteopenia

d)

Hyposensitivity

50.

Spinal cord injury often evolves from initial flaccidity to which condition?

a)

Areflexia

b)

Ataxia

c)

Bradykinesia

d)

Spasticity

51.

Which strategy is appropriate for managing high tone from cerebral lesions?

a)

Prolonged stretch with positioning or orthotics

b)

Maximal resistance with ballistic speed training

c)

Heat avoidance and immobilization without ROM

d)

Hyperventilation to reduce intracranial pressure

52.

Which statement best defines muscle tone in clinical practice?

a)

Passive resistance of a muscle to stretch

b)

Active force produced during maximal contraction

c)

Neural drive required to initiate movement

d)

Elastic recoil of tendons after loading

53.

Normal muscle tone and activation depend primarily on the integrated function of which systems?

a)

Skeletal muscles, PNS, and CNS

b)

Endocrine glands, liver, and kidneys

c)

Respiratory system and heart

d)

Skin, fascia, and lymphatics

54.

Abnormal inhibitory or excitatory input to which neuron most directly contributes to hypo- and hypertonicity?

a)

Sensory ganglion cell

b)

Gamma interneuron

c)

Alpha motor neuron

d)

Purkinje neuron

55.

Which intervention is most appropriate to decrease excessively high muscle tone?

a)

Ballistic stretching before activity

b)

High-frequency e-stim for activation

c)

Quick icing with tapping facilitation

d)

Prolonged stretch with relaxation techniques

56.

Which set of modalities is commonly used to facilitate low muscle tone for easier activation?

a)

Neutral warmth, prolonged cold, desensitization

b)

Compression garments, casting, sustained positioning

c)

Hydrotherapy, quick icing, e-stim, tapping, ROM

d)

Prolonged heat, prolonged stretch, relaxation

57.

A client exhibits fluctuating muscle tone that varies across sessions. What is the primary rehabilitation aim?

a)

Maintain current tone to avoid fatigue

b)

Eliminate reflexes without task practice

c)

Normalize tone while maximizing function

d)

Focus only on strengthening weak muscles

58.

Which approach is listed as helpful for managing high tone by reducing spasticity triggers?

a)

Eliminate pain and apply neutral warmth

b)

Perform plyometrics with resistance

c)

Apply quick ice and vigorous tapping

d)

Use cold spray with fast stretching

59.

In a therapy plan, physical agents such as electrical stimulation, hydrotherapy, and quick ice are best described as what?

a)

Adjuncts to exercise, orthotics, and functional training

b)

Replacements for therapeutic exercise altogether

c)

Primary treatments independent of any exercise

d)

Methods used only in acute surgical recovery