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Grade 8 NDEA Review Quiz

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. Which organ is mainly responsible for the absorption of nutrients in the digestive system?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Large intestine

c)

Small intestine

d)

Stomach

2.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. The chewing of food in the mouth is an example of which digestive process?

a)

Absorption

b)

Elimination

c)

Mechanical digestion

d)

Secretion

3.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. Which substance is secreted by the stomach to help digest proteins?

a)

Bile

b)

Hydrochloric acid

c)

Insulin

d)

Saliva

4.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. Which body system works closely with the digestive system to remove waste products from the body?

a)

Excretory system

b)

Muscular system

c)

Nervous system

d)

Skeletal system

5.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. Which structure in plants transports water and minerals from the roots to the leaves?

a)

Cortex

b)

Phloem

c)

Stomata

d)

Xylem

6.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. The leaves of plants are mainly responsible for which function?

a)

Absorption of minerals

b)

Anchoring the plant

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Transport of food

7.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. Which diagram is MOST useful in showing how different body systems interact?

a)

Bar graph

b)

Flow chart

c)

Table

d)

Timeline

8.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. In a simple dominant–recessive trait, which allele is expressed in the phenotype?

a)

Both alleles equally

b)

Dominant only

c)

Neither allele

d)

Recessive only

9.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. What is the genotype of an organism that is heterozygous for a dominant trait?

a)

AA

b)

aa

c)

Aa

d)

aA only

10.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. In a cross between two heterozygous parents (Aa × Aa), what is the expected phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

3:1

d)

4:0

11.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. Which system of classification divides organisms into Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya?

a)

Two-kingdom system

b)

Three-domain system

c)

Five-kingdom system

d)

Six-kingdom system

12.

Direction: Read and analyze each item carefully. Answer the given items by providing the necessary information asked for. Why is the six kingdom system important?

a)

It groups organisms by size.

b)

It ignores microscopic organisms.

c)

It separates plants and animals only.

d)

It recognizes major differences among groups such as Archaea, Bacteria, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.

13.

Humans are classified as mammals because they:

a)

Lay eggs

b)

Have scales

c)

Have cold-blooded bodies

d)

Produce milk for their young

14.

Humans belong to the Order Primates because they have:

a)

Fins

b)

Hooves

c)

Opposable thumbs

d)

Wings

15.

Which cycle shows the movement of water through evaporation, condensation, and precipitation?

a)

Carbon cycle

b)

Nitrogen cycle

c)

Oxygen cycle

d)

Water cycle

16.

Plants play an important role in the carbon cycle by:

a)

Producing fossil fuels

b)

Breaking down dead animals

c)

Absorbing carbon dioxide during photosynthesis

d)

Releasing carbon dioxide during photosynthesis

17.

Which raw materials are needed for photosynthesis?

a)

Carbon dioxide and water

b)

Glucose and oxygen

c)

Nitrogen and minerals

d)

Oxygen and glucose

18.

What are the main products of photosynthesis?

a)

Energy and heat

b)

Water and minerals

c)

Oxygen and glucose

d)

Carbon dioxide and water

19.

In which part of the cell does photosynthesis occur?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosome

20.

Which investigation would BEST verify that light is needed for photosynthesis?

a)

Watering a plant daily

b)

Removing soil nutrients

c)

Placing a plant in complete darkness

d)

Covering part of a leaf and exposing it to sunlight

21.

Which digestive process involves enzymes breaking down food into simpler substances?

a)

Absorption

b)

Chemical digestion

c)

Elimination

d)

Mechanical digestion

22.

Where does most water absorption occur in the digestive system?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Large intestine

c)

Small intestine

d)

Stomach

23.

Which pair of plant organs works together to transport food made during photosynthesis?

a)

Leaves and phloem

b)

Roots and leaves

c)

Stem and roots

d)

Stem and xylem

24.

Which tool is MOST appropriate for showing the step-by-step movement of materials between body systems?

a)

Flow chart

b)

Histogram

c)

Pie chart

d)

Venn diagram

25.

If a recessive trait is expressed in an offspring, what can be inferred about its genotype?

a)

It has no alleles

b)

It has three alleles

c)

It has two recessive alleles

d)

It has at least one dominant allele

26.

In a Punnett square, what does each box represent?

a)

A gene mutation

b)

A phenotype ratio

c)

A parent organism

d)

A possible offspring genotype

27.

Which kingdom includes multicellular organisms that perform photosynthesis?

a)

Animalia

b)

Fungi

c)

Plantae

d)

Protista

28.

Animals help maintain the oxygen cycle by:

a)

Producing glucose

b)

Absorbing carbon dioxide only

c)

Producing oxygen through photosynthesis

d)

Absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide

29.

Cellular respiration occurs mainly in the:

a)

Cell wall

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Ribosome

30.

Which step is MOST important when planning a scientific investigation on photosynthesis?

a)

Guessing the result

b)

Copying results from books

c)

Identifying variables and materials

d)

Changing the procedure during the experiment

31.

Who first proposed that matter is made up of tiny, indivisible particles called atoms?

a)

Democritus

b)

Ernest Rutherford

c)

J.J. Thomson

d)

John Dalton

32.

Which atomic model introduced the idea of electrons embedded in a positively charged sphere?

a)

Bohr Model

b)

Dalton’s Atomic Model

c)

Rutherford’s Nuclear Model

d)

Thomson’s Plum Pudding Model

33.

Which scientist’s experiment led to the discovery of the nucleus?

a)

Ernest Rutherford

b)

Niels Bohr

c)

J.J. Thomson

d)

John Dalton

34.

The Bohr model of the atom is best described as having:

a)

No nucleus

b)

Randomly moving electrons

c)

Electrons embedded in positive charge

d)

Electrons orbiting the nucleus in fixed energy levels

35.

Which part of the atom contains protons and neutrons?

a)

Electron cloud

b)

Electron shell

c)

Nucleus

d)

Valence shell

36.

Which electron configuration correctly follows the Aufbau Principle?

a)

1s2  2p6  2s21s^2\;2p^6\;2s^2

b)

1s2  2s2  2p61s^2\;2s^2\;2p^6

c)

2s2  1s2  2p62s^2\;1s^2\;2p^6

d)

1s1  2s2  2p31s^1\;2s^2\;2p^3

37.

Hund’s Rule explains why electrons in the same sublevel:

a)

Pair up immediately

b)

Stay close to the nucleus

c)

Fill empty orbitals first before pairing

d)

Have opposite spins in different orbitals

38.

Which rule explains the order 1s2s2p3s1s \rightarrow 2s \rightarrow 2p \rightarrow 3s in electron filling?

a)

Hund’s Rule

b)

Aufbau Principle

c)

Pauli Exclusion Principle

d)

Law of Conservation of Energy

39.

Which pair of electrons violates the Pauli Exclusion Principle?

a)

Two electrons in different orbitals

b)

Two electrons in different energy levels

c)

Two electrons with the same spin in the same orbital

d)

Two electrons with opposite spins in the same orbital

40.

Where are electrons located in an atom?

a)

In the protons

b)

Inside the nucleus

c)

In the neutron cloud

d)

In shells surrounding the nucleus

41.

A pure substance is best described as one that:

a)

Has uniform composition and consistent properties throughout

b)

Consists of two or more substances physically mixed

c)

Can be separated by filtration into different components

d)

Changes composition depending on the sample taken

42.

Which of the following is an example of an element?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Salt

c)

Sodium

d)

Water

43.

Which statement is true about the atoms of an element?

a)

They contain no neutrons

b)

They have different masses only

c)

They differ in number of protons

d)

They have the same number of protons

44.

The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of:

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Nucleons

d)

Protons

45.

What is the correct electron configuration for neon (atomic number 10)?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p61s^2\ 2s^2\ 2p^6

b)

1s2 2p81s^2\ 2p^8

c)

1s2 2s3 2p51s^2\ 2s^3\ 2p^5

d)

2s2 2p62s^2\ 2p^6

46.

Who developed the first periodic table based on increasing atomic mass?

a)

Dmitri Mendeleev

b)

Henry Moseley

c)

John Dalton

d)

Water

47.

What was significant about Mendeleev’s periodic table?

a)

It had 18 groups

b)

It included only metals

c)

It was arranged by atomic number

d)

It predicted undiscovered elements

48.

Who improved the periodic table by arranging elements according to atomic number?

a)

Dalton

b)

Mendeleev

c)

Moseley

d)

Rutherford

49.

How many periods are there in the modern periodic table?

a)

7

b)

8

c)

10

d)

18

50.

How many groups are found in the periodic table?

a)

7

b)

8

c)

10

d)

18

51.

Elements in the same group generally have the same:

a)

Atomic mass

b)

Atomic number

c)

Number of shells

d)

Number of valence electrons

52.

Which element is among the first 20 elements of the periodic table?

a)

Calcium

b)

Gold

c)

Silver

d)

Uranium

53.

Why is the electron configuration 2s2 1s2 2p62s^2\ 1s^2\ 2p^6 incorrect?

a)

The 2p2p orbital should be filled before 2s2s

b)

The 1s1s orbital must be filled first

c)

Electrons cannot occupy the 2p2p orbital

d)

The configuration exceeds the maximum number of electrons

54.

Which element has the symbol Mg?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Manganese

c)

Mercury

d)

Molybdenum

55.

What determines the position of an element in the periodic table?

a)

Atomic size

b)

Color

c)

Electron structure

d)

Physical state

56.

The valence electrons of an atom are found in the:

a)

Innermost shell

b)

Middle shell

c)

Nucleus

d)

Outermost shell

57.

An aluminum atom has an atomic number of 13. How many protons does it have?

a)

10

b)

13

c)

14

d)

27

58.

A neutral aluminum atom has how many electrons?

a)

10

b)

13

c)

14

d)

27

59.

If aluminum has a mass number of 27, how many neutrons does it have?

a)

10

b)

13

c)

14

d)

27

60.

Why do elements in the same group show similar chemical properties?

a)

They are in the same period

b)

They have the same atomic mass

c)

They have the same number of protons

d)

They have the same number of valence electrons

61.

Approximately what percentage of the Earth's surface is covered by water?

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

70%

d)

80%

62.

Which statement correctly compares water and land coverage on Earth?

a)

Earth has more land than water

b)

Earth has more water than land

c)

Water and land cover equal areas

d)

Land covers most of the Southern Hemisphere

63.

Which layer is considered the uppermost solid layer of the Earth?

a)

Crust

b)

Inner core

c)

Mantle

d)

Outer core

64.

The continental crust is generally:

a)

Made only of basalt

b)

Found only under oceans

c)

Thinner and denser than oceanic crust

d)

Thicker and less dense than oceanic crust

65.

Which type of volcano is currently erupting or shows signs of eruption?

a)

Active

b)

Dormant

c)

Extinct

d)

Shield

66.

Which volcano type is characterized by gentle slopes and fluid lava flows?

a)

Caldera

b)

Cinder cone

c)

Composite volcano

d)

Shield volcano

67.

Explosive volcanic eruptions are commonly associated with which magma type?

a)

Andesitic to rhyolitic

b)

Basaltic

c)

Liquid magma

d)

Low-silica magma

68.

Which volcano is commonly found along convergent plate boundaries?

a)

Cinder cone

b)

Composite volcano

c)

Fissure volcano

d)

Shield volcano

69.

The steep shape of a composite volcano is mainly due to its:

a)

Thin magma

b)

High water content

c)

Location near oceans

d)

Alternating layers of lava and ash

70.

Which feature best shows the relationship between volcanoes and plate boundaries?

a)

Deserts

b)

Mountain belts

c)

Polar ice caps

d)

River basins

71.

Most active volcanoes and earthquake epicenters are found:

a)

In flat plains

b)

Near the poles

c)

Along plate boundaries

d)

In the middle of continents

72.

Oceanic crust is mainly associated with which type of lithospheric plate?

a)

Atmospheric plates

b)

Continental plates only

c)

Mantle plates

d)

Oceanic plates

73.

Which statement correctly describes lithospheric plates?

a)

They are stationary

b)

They include only land areas

c)

They move over the asthenosphere

d)

They are found only underwater

74.

The Philippines is located in a region characterized by:

a)

Few earthquakes

b)

Absence of volcanoes

c)

Stable continental crust

d)

Active plate boundaries

75.

A typhoon develops when warm ocean water provides:

a)

Dry air

b)

Weak winds

c)

Cold air pressure

d)

Heat and moisture

76.

Why is the Philippines prone to typhoons?

a)

It has wide deserts

b)

It is far from oceans

c)

It has many mountains

d)

It is near the equator and warm oceans

77.

Which agency in the Philippines monitors and tracks typhoons?

a)

PAGASA

b)

DENR

c)

DOST-SEI

d)

PHIVOLCS

78.

The Philippine Area of Responsibility (PAR) is important because it:

a)

Prevents typhoons

b)

Controls wind direction

c)

Stops heavy rainfall

d)

Tracks typhoons affecting the country

79.

What tool is MOST useful in tracing the path of a typhoon?

a)

Bar graph

b)

Flow chart

c)

Pie chart

d)

Weather map with tracking data

80.

How do large bodies of water affect typhoons?

a)

They prevent formation

b)

They block wind movement

c)

They supply heat and moisture

d)

They weaken typhoons immediately

81.

Mountain ranges can affect typhoons by:

a)

Creating new storms

b)

Strengthening wind speed

c)

Increasing ocean temperature

d)

Blocking and weakening the storm

82.

Which government action helps communities affected by typhoons?

a)

Forest clearing

b)

Mining operations

c)

Issuing storm warnings

d)

Conducting space research

83.

Information from DOST and other agencies helps communities by:

a)

Increasing rainfall

b)

Changing climate patterns

c)

Preventing plate movement

d)

Improving disaster preparedness

84.

Tides are mainly caused by the gravitational pull of the:

a)

Earth only

b)

Moon only

c)

Moon and Sun

d)

Sun only

85.

High tides occur when the Earth, Moon, and Sun are:

a)

Aligned

b)

Far apart

c)

At right angles

d)

Randomly positioned

86.

Which type of tide has the greatest difference between high and low tide?

a)

Neap tide

b)

Ocean tide

c)

Regular tide

d)

Spring tide

87.

Neap tides occur when the Sun and Moon are:

a)

Aligned

b)

Closest to Earth

c)

Farthest from Earth

d)

At right angles to Earth

88.

Tidal energy can be generated by using:

a)

Fossil fuels

b)

Solar panels

c)

Wind turbines

d)

Moving seawater due to tides

89.

Which location is MOST suitable for tidal energy generation?

a)

Deserts

b)

Forest interiors

c)

Mountain peaks

d)

Coastal areas with large tidal ranges

90.

Tidal energy is considered renewable because it:

a)

Uses coal

b)

Produces pollution

c)

Is available only once

d)

Depends on Earth’s rotation and gravity

91.

What causes an object to accelerate?

a)

Force

b)

Mass alone

c)

Shape

d)

Size

92.

Acceleration is best described as the:

a)

Speed of an object

b)

Direction of motion only

c)

Rate of change of velocity

d)

Distance traveled by an object

93.

Which of the following is an example of acceleration?

a)

A parked bicycle

b)

A book lying on a table

c)

A ball slowing down as it rolls on the ground

d)

A car moving at constant speed in a straight line

94.

Which situation shows uniform circular motion?

a)

A falling apple

b)

A ball thrown upward

c)

A car moving straight on a road

d)

A fan blade rotating at constant speed

95.

Which quantity changes when an object moves in a circular path at constant speed?

a)

Distance

b)

Direction of velocity

c)

Mass

d)

Speed

96.

In a distance–time graph, a straight line with constant slope represents:

a)

Decreasing speed

b)

No motion

c)

Uniform speed

d)

Uniform acceleration

97.

A curved line on a distance–time graph indicates:

a)

Constant velocity

b)

Non-uniform motion

c)

Uniform motion

d)

Zero acceleration

98.

In a velocity–time graph, the slope of the graph represents:

a)

Acceleration

b)

Distance

c)

Speed

d)

Time

99.

A horizontal line in a velocity–time graph shows that the object is:

a)

At rest

b)

Accelerating

c)

Slowing down

d)

Moving at constant velocity

100.

Which graph best represents an object that is speeding up?

a)

Flat distance–time graph

b)

Horizontal velocity–time graph

c)

Straight-line distance–time graph

d)

Upward-sloping velocity–time graph

101.

Kinetic energy is the energy of:

a)

Heat

b)

Motion

c)

Sound

d)

Stored objects

102.

Potential energy is best described as energy:

a)

Due to motion

b)

From friction

c)

Released as light

d)

Stored because of position

103.

Which situation shows kinetic energy being converted to potential energy?

a)

A ball falling to the ground

b)

A car moving on a flat road

c)

A moving swing going upward

d)

A stretched rubber band released

104.

Which example shows potential energy changing into kinetic energy?

a)

A falling object

b)

A book on a shelf

c)

A compressed spring

d)

Water stored in a dam

105.

Which object has the greatest kinetic energy?

a)

A stationary truck

b)

A book on a table

c)

A slow-moving bicycle

d)

A fast-moving motorcycle

106.

Work is done when a force:

a)

Increases temperature only

b)

Changes the color of an object

c)

Causes displacement of an object

d)

Acts on an object without movement

107.

Two people lift the same box to the same height. One lifts it faster. Who does more power?

a)

The one who lifts slower

b)

The one who lifts faster

108.

Which mirror is commonly used as a security mirror in stores?

a)

Plane mirror

b)

Concave mirror

c)

Convex mirror

d)

Flat glass

109.

Refraction of light happens when light:

a)

Produces a shadow

b)

Reflects from a mirror

c)

Passes through the same medium

d)

Bends as it enters a different medium

110.

In hydroelectric power plants, water stored in dams has:

a)

Chemical energy

b)

Electrical energy

c)

Potential energy

d)

Sunglasses

111.

Which everyday object demonstrates refraction of light?

a)

Flat mirror

b)

Periscope

c)

Prism

d)

Sound energy

112.

Hydroelectric energy is considered renewable because it:

a)

Uses fossil fuels

b)

Produces smoke

c)

Cannot be reused

d)

Relies on the water cycle

113.

Which object has the greatest kinetic energy?

a)

A stationary truck

b)

A book on a table

c)

A slow-moving bicycle

d)

A fast-moving motorcycle

114.

Work is done when a force:

a)

Increases temperature only

b)

Changes the color of an object

c)

Causes displacement of an object

d)

Acts on an object without movement

115.

As water flows down from a dam, its energy changes into:

a)

Kinetic energy

b)

Light energy

c)

Nuclear energy

d)

Magnetic energy

116.

Reflection of light occurs when light:

a)

Changes into heat

b)

Bounces off a surface

c)

Is absorbed by an object

d)

Bends as it passes through a medium