WorksheetsGenetics Final
Total questions: 110
Worksheet time: 2hrs 6mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Genes are the units of heredity.
a)
True
b)
False
2.
Brown fur is dominant to white fur in dogs. A homozygous dominant dog is crossed with a heterozygous dog. What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
3.
What law states that in Tt the person will only show the dominant allele
a)
law of segregation
b)
law of independent assortment
c)
law of dominance
d)
law of punnett squares
4.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
5.
Squidward has light blue skin, and his genotype for this trait is Bb. Would Squidward be considered a purebred or hybrid for light blue skin?
a)
Purebred
b)
Hybrid
6.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
7.
The passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring.
a)
heredity
b)
trait
c)
gene
d)
allele
8.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
9.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
10.
Having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
11.
Having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
12.
Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer. She has a scar on her right cheek. She is good at swimming. Which of her traits did Magda most likely inherit?
a)
height
b)
the scar
c)
ability to swim
d)
ability to play drums
13.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
14.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
15.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
16.
Two heterozygous (Tt) tall pea plants are crossed. Which describes their offspring?
a)
50% tall and 50% short
b)
75%tall and 25% short
c)
100%short
17.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous genes
d)
mutated DNA
18.
Who is considered the "father of genetics"?
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Reginald Punnett
c)
James Watson
d)
T.A Knight
19.
Lisa has two grandmothers in this picture.
a)
Mona and Jackie
b)
Marge and Mona
c)
Selma and Jackie
d)
Patty and Selma
20.
How many girls in this family express this recessive disorder?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
21.
Cells of organism must replicate for ?
a)
growth
b)
repair of damaged cells
c)
replacement of dying cells.
d)
All of the above
22.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
23.
The division of the nucleus is known as:
a)
Synthesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
G1
d)
G2
24.
Humans have ________ pairs of chromosomes.
a)
21
b)
23
c)
46
d)
None of the above
25.
Eukaryotic cells store their genetic information(DNA) in __________.
a)
Chromosomes
b)
Centromeres
c)
karyotypes
d)
Proteins
26.
Uncontrollable cell growth is known as _____
a)
obesity
b)
cancer
c)
diabetes
d)
hepatitis
27.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
28.
The cell spends most of it's life in ________________.
a)
mitosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
None of the above
29.
In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell
a)
Grows
b)
Matures
c)
Carries on normal activities
d)
All of the above
30.
In the S stage of interphase_______________
a)
the cell grows
b)
the nucleus divides
c)
the cell membrane divides
d)
the DNA is replicated
31.
When a plant cell goes through cell division, _____________.
a)
the 2 new nuclei are separated by the cell membrane pinching off.
b)
4 new cells are formed
c)
a cell plate forms, dividing the 2 new nuclei
d)
None of the above
32.
When an animal cell goes through cytokinesis,__________
a)
a cell plate forms dividing the 2 new nuclei.
b)
the cell membrane pinches off the 2 new cells.
c)
4 new cells are formed.
d)
None of the above
33.
A human cell has 46 chromosomes before mitotic division. How many chromosomes will the daughter cells after mitosis.
a)
12
b)
23
c)
46
d)
92
34.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
35.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
36.
How many chromosomes do humans have?
a)
46
b)
21
c)
10
37.
Where does a cell contain it's genetic material?
a)
nucleus
b)
nucleolus
c)
cytoskeleton
d)
golgi
38.
The time between cell divisions in the life cycle of the cell is called
a)
anaphase
b)
interphase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
39.
The purpose of meiosis is to form ________ cells.
a)
body
b)
sex
c)
somatic
d)
brain
40.
Why do we need meiosis?
a)
To double the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
b)
To halve the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
c)
To triple the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
d)
To not change the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
41.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
42.
A cell with only half the normal number of chromosomes is called a ___________ cell.
a)
haploid
b)
prokaryotic
c)
heterotrophic
d)
eubacterial
43.
What is the 2nd phase of mitosis?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
44.
What is the 3rd phase of mitosis?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
45.
What is the 4th phase of mitosis?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
46.
What is the 1st phase of mitosis?
a)
Anaphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
47.
What phase is this?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telephaseddddduuu
48.
What phases is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telephase
49.
What phase is this?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telephase
50.
What phase is this?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telephase
51.
What is the name of this phase?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
cytokinesis
d)
telphase
52.
In cats, coat color shows co-dominance. A calico (black & orange) cat mates with an orange cat. What is the genotype of the calico cat?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
53.
A woman with A blood has a child with B blood. What would the genotypes of the parents have to be to produce a child with O blood?
a)
AO & BO
b)
AA & BO
c)
AA & BB
d)
None of the above - it would be impossible to have a child with O blood
54.
1 BB : 1 Bb : 2 bb
a)
genotypic ratio
b)
phenotypic ratio
55.
If a person with A type blood has a child with O blood, what must their genotype be?
a)
Homozygous for the A allele
b)
Heterozygous for A type blood
56.
What genotype would go in box 1?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
57.
What genotype would go in box 2?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
58.
Which of the following complementary base pairs are correct?
a)
A - T
b)
A - G
c)
T - C
d)
G - U
59.
Before the cell divides, what process needs to happen?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Protein synthesis
60.
Replicate the following strand of DNA:
AATCATGGA
AATCATGGA
a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
61.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
62.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
63.
order of replication
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
64.
What is the correct complimentary strand for the following DNA? ATCGAG
a)
TACGAG
b)
ATCGAG
c)
TAGCTG
d)
TAGCTC
65.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
66.
The bonds that hold the two strands of DNA together come from...
a)
the attraction of phosphate groups
b)
strong bonds between bases and sugars
c)
carbon to carbon bonds in the sugar
d)
weak hydrogen bonds between the bases
67.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
68.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
69.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
70.
Describes the twisted ladder-like shape of a DNA molecule
a)
Nitrogen Base
b)
Hexagon
c)
Double Helix
71.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
72.
What mutation has occurred here?
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift
73.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
74.
What is a codon?
a)
It is a three letter section of bases that are read by ribosomes to stamp amino acids into a protein
b)
They are the codes on the DNA (hence "code-on"
c)
It is a type of mutation that occurs when there has been a substitution, deletion or insertion.
d)
It is a made up word for this quiz.
75.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
76.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
77.
Identify the SUBSTITUTION mutation from the following:
ATG CCA AAT
ATG CCA AAT
a)
ATG TCA AAT
b)
ATG CCT AAA T
c)
ATC CA AT
d)
ATG CCA AAT
78.
Identify the DELETION mutation form the following:
ATG CCA AAT
ATG CCA AAT
a)
ATG TCA AAT
b)
ATG CCT AAA T
c)
ATC CA AT
d)
ATG CCA AAT
79.
Which of these bases does not exist in RNA?
a)
C
b)
T
c)
U
d)
A
80.
True or false: RNA is double-stranded.
a)
true
b)
false
c)
it depends on the type
81.
what does mRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
82.
what does tRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
83.
what does rRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
84.
Which type of RNA contains the codons?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
aminoacyl-tRNA
d)
rRNA
85.
Which of these contains the anti-codon?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
Your little sister
86.
The codon is located on the
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
87.
Where does translation take place?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Golgi Body
d)
Cytoplasm
88.
RNA is different from DNA in ___
a)
RNA is single stranded
b)
RNA has uracil
c)
RNA has the sugar ribos
d)
All of these
89.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
DNA Replication
c)
Polymerase is unzipping the DNA
d)
Transcription
90.
which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
91.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein
d)
Your genome
92.
What are the building blocks of proteins called?
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Amino Acids
93.
What is the first step in protein synthesis?
DNA -> mRNA
DNA -> mRNA
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication
d)
mutation
94.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
95.
what does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
96.
what is an operon?
a)
a part of a ribsome
b)
a part of a Rna
c)
a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task
d)
needed for dna replication
97.
An operon consists of all the the following EXCEPT
a)
operator
b)
promoter
c)
regulatory gene
d)
genes of the operon
98.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
99.
How many cell divisions does meiosis have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
0
100.
A diploid cell of a normal male human contains
a)
22 autosomes and two Y-chromosomes.
b)
22 pairs of autosomes and two Y-chromosomes.
c)
22 pairs of autosomes, one X and one Y-chromosome
d)
22 autosomes and two X-chromosomes
101.
What chromosome is affected by Down's Syndrome?
a)
23
b)
18
c)
13
d)
21
102.
What is a picture used to examine chromosomes called?
a)
Sonogram
b)
Electrocardiogram
c)
X-Ray
d)
Karyotype
103.
Which would be considered a somatic cell?
a)
Sperm cell
b)
Egg Cell
c)
Skin Cell
d)
All of these
104.
What type of karyotype is shown here
a)
Normal Male
b)
Male with Down Syndrome
c)
Normal Female
d)
Female with Turner Syndrom
105.
What type of karyotype is this
a)
Female with Down Syndrome
b)
Male with Down Syndrome
c)
Male with Klinefelter Syndrome
d)
Female with Turner Syndrome
106.
What is genetic engineering?
a)
Manipulation/addition of genes
b)
Naturally breeding two animals with desired traits
c)
Cross-pollinating two crops
d)
Harvesting stem cells
107.
What is a vector in genetic engineering?
a)
The organism that carries the foreign gene
b)
Something that spreads disease
c)
An enzyme that cuts DNA in a specific place
d)
An object with direction & magnitude
108.
Restriction enzymes....
a)
Cut DNA at a specific site
b)
Can be used to isolate a gene of interest
c)
Can be used to cut vector DNA
d)
Do all of these things
109.
True or false: Identical twins are genetic clones
a)
True
b)
False
110.
True or false: Human tissues can be cloned in a Petri dish.
a)
True
b)
False
100 %
