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WorksheetsGeologic Time
Total questions: 138
Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
How much area does our solar system take up out of the universe?
a)
It takes up most of the universe
b)
It takes up a really tiny area
c)
It grows and shrinks so it varies
d)
It takes up a very large area
2.
According to the law of superposition, which layer is the youngest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
3.
Which division on the geologic time scale is the shortest?
a)
epoch
b)
era
c)
eon
d)
period
4.
If an index fossil is found in two rock layers that are separated by an ocean, what do you know about the relationship between the two rock layers?
a)
they are about the same age
b)
they used to be in the same area
c)
the are made of the same kind of rock
d)
the rock layers are unrelated
5.
Which of the following members of the solar system is the oldest?
a)
The moon
b)
The earth
c)
The sun
d)
Pluto
6.
Which type of dating method can be used on rock layers by applying the Law of Superposition?
a)
relative dating
b)
absolute dating
c)
radioactive dating
d)
radiometric dating
7.
If an index fossil is found in two rock layers that are separated by an ocean, what do you know about the relationship between the two rock layers?
a)
they are about the same age
b)
they used to be in the same area
c)
the are made of the same kind of rock
d)
the rock layers are unrelated
8.
Starting from the furthest away from us, which is the correct galactic address for our solar system?
a)
Virgo Supercluster: Local group: Milky Way
b)
Virgo Supercluster: Milky Way: Local Group
c)
Local Group: Milky Way: Virgo Supercluster
d)
Virgo Supercluster: Local Group: Andromeda
9.
Describe the movement of our solar system.
a)
It stays in one place but the planets rotate
b)
It stays in one place
c)
The entire solar system orbits the center of the milky way
d)
The solar system is moving out of the milky way
10.
Which nebula "birthed" our solar system?
a)
The ant nebula
b)
The pillars of creation
c)
The cat-eye nebula
d)
The solar nebula
11.
Our solar system was formed when...
a)
Two massive stars collided
b)
A black hole destroyed a nearby solar system
c)
A nebula collapsed
d)
Yoda said "The Solar System it will be"
12.
Which process is being shown?
a)
Decay
b)
Differentiation
c)
Accretion
d)
Supernova explosion
13.
What process is being demonstrated here?
a)
Accretion
b)
Decay
c)
Unconformities
d)
Differentiation
14.
Which of the following statements is true about water?
a)
When earth was just formed there was not water
b)
When earth just formed differentiation pushed lakes to the surface
c)
Water was spewed out of the early volcanoes
d)
Water came from Tatooine delievered by Chewbacca and Han Solo
15.
Living on earth when it was just formed would be like...
a)
Conditions similar to the north pole
b)
Conditions similar to living in volcano
c)
Conditions similar to living in the rainforest
d)
Conditions similar to living in the desert
16.
How old do Paleontologists believe the Earth is?
a)
2015 years old
b)
3.6 billion years old
c)
4.6 billion years old
d)
4.6 million years old
17.
Most events on the geologic timeline happened:
a)
a long time ago, near the beginning
b)
more recently, near the modern time
c)
evenly spread out
d)
right in the center of the timeline
18.
Which of the following questions can be answered by studying these fossil layers?
a)
What did the fish eat?
b)
Which organisms lived before/after/or at the same time?
c)
Why did dinosaurs become extinct?
d)
Are reptiles the ancestors to birds or fish?
19.
When scientists use logic to determine the age of one fossil compared to another, they use this type of dating.
a)
Relative
b)
Carbon
c)
Absolute
20.
Scientists chose where units of geologic time began and ended based on major changes in life forms at certain times.
a)
true
b)
false
21.
Relative age of a rock is the number of years that have passed since the rock formed?
a)
true
b)
false
22.
Radiometric dating is often referred to as
a)
total age.
b)
absolute dating.
c)
historic age.
d)
geologic age.
23.
gaps in rock layers caused by erosion are called
a)
law of superposition
b)
unconformities
c)
uniformitarianism
d)
relative dating
24.
the time it takes for half the atoms in an element to decay into something else is called
a)
absolute age dating
b)
relative age dating
c)
half-life
d)
extinct
25.
The ________ states that layers of sediment were originally deposited horizontally under the action of gravity.
a)
law of superposition
b)
law of horizontality
c)
uniformitarianism
d)
unconformities
26.
states that the geologic feature which cuts another is the younger of the two features
a)
law of horizontality
b)
cross cutting relationships
c)
law of superposition
d)
uniformitarianism
27.
Why is the fossil record incomplete?
a)
fossils get eroded away over time
b)
most organisms never became fossils
c)
scavengers and decomposers eat them too quickly
d)
all of the above
28.
The Geologic Time Scale is a record of what?
a)
old geologists
b)
sweet geology music
c)
the known history of rocks and fossils
d)
a list of every living thing ever
29.
What 2 things make a good index fossil?
a)
Good looks and a great smile
b)
widespread and on Earth of a short time
c)
widespread and on Earth for a long time
d)
only found in Clinton Twp and in every rock layer
30.
Which is the correct order of geologic time?
a)
Era >Eon >Period >Epoch
b)
Eon >Era >Period >Epoch
c)
Epoch >Period >Era >Eon
d)
Era >Eon > Epoch >Period
31.
Paleozoic, Mesozoic & Cenozoic are all
a)
Epochs
b)
Eras
c)
Periods
d)
Eons
32.
What was probably the first organism on Earth?
a)
Plants
b)
Alligators
c)
Bacteria
d)
Fish
33.
The ______________ era covers almost 90% of earth's history.
a)
Paleozoic
b)
Mesozoic
c)
Cenozoic
d)
Precambrian
34.
Which is the most recent era of time- the one that we are currently in?
a)
Mesozoic
b)
Paleozoic
c)
Cenozoic
d)
Precambrian
35.
What are the arrows pointing to?
a)
A layer of crushed mammals
b)
TK boundary
c)
KT boundary
d)
A layer of dinosaurs
36.
What is the importance of finding high amounts of iridium in the KT boundary?
a)
High amounts of iridium are toxic to dinosaurs
b)
High amounts of iridium are only found in the mountains
c)
The iridium doesn't tell us anything
d)
High amounts of iridium are only found in space rocks
37.
An index fossil can help you
a)
get to know new people
b)
plan your next vacation
c)
determine the relative age of a rock layer
d)
determine the absolute age of a rock layer
38.
a break in the Earths crust
a)
fault
b)
intrusion
c)
extrusion
d)
index fossil
39.
Which of the following is the youngest?
a)
Intrusion X
b)
Fault Y
c)
Layer Z
d)
Fossil W
40.
Which of the following is the oldest?
a)
Layer L
b)
Intrusion D
c)
Intrusion H
d)
Layer E
50.
Which statement best describes uniformitarianism?
a)
Older rocks lie at the bottom of younger rocks.
b)
The processes that act to change Earth's surface today are the same processes that acted upon Earth's surface in the past.
c)
The continents were once joined in a large land mass.
d)
Layers of sedimentary rock contain
48.
according to the law of ___________, the same geologic processes that occurs today, occurred in the past
a)
superposition
b)
unconformities
c)
uniformitarianism
d)
half-life
47.
True or False: Geologists subdivide periods into eras.
a)
False
b)
True
46.
The shortest units of time on the Geologic Time Scale are
a)
Periods
b)
Eons
c)
Eras
d)
Epochs
45.
Present day Earth is in the ____ era.
a)
Cenozoic
b)
Mesozoic
c)
Paleozoic
46.
The shortest units of time on the Geologic Time Scale are
a)
Periods
b)
Eons
c)
Eras
d)
Epochs
47.
True or False: Geologists subdivide periods into eras.
a)
False
b)
True
48.
according to the law of ___________, the same geologic processes that occurs today, occurred in the past
a)
superposition
b)
unconformities
c)
uniformitarianism
d)
half-life
50.
Which statement best describes uniformitarianism?
a)
Older rocks lie at the bottom of younger rocks.
b)
The processes that act to change Earth's surface today are the same processes that acted upon Earth's surface in the past.
c)
The continents were once joined in a large land mass.
d)
Layers of sedimentary rock contain
50.
Which statement best describes uniformitarianism?
a)
Older rocks lie at the bottom of younger rocks.
b)
The processes that act to change Earth's surface today are the same processes that acted upon Earth's surface in the past.
c)
The continents were once joined in a large land mass.
d)
Layers of sedimentary rock contain
51.
The ______________ era covers almost 90% of earth's history.
a)
Paleozoic
b)
Mesozoic
c)
Cenozoic
d)
Precambrian
52.
What was probably the first organism on Earth?
a)
Plants
b)
Alligators
c)
Bacteria
d)
Fish
53.
Scientists chose where units of geologic time began and ended based on major changes in life forms at certain times.
a)
true
b)
false
54.
What layer is beneath the lithosphere and has convection cells that move tectonic plates?
a)
Anthrosphere
b)
Asthenosphere
c)
Hydrosphere
d)
Geosphere
55.
Which geographical feature would be an example of a divergent plate boundary?
a)
Himalayans
b)
African Rift Valley
c)
Tibetan Plateau
d)
San Andreas Fault
56.
If an oceanic plate and a continental plate are crashing into one another, what type of features would you most likely see?
a)
Volcanoes
b)
Oceanic Trench
c)
Mountain Range on land
d)
All of the Above
57.
Which type of crust is denser?
a)
Oceanic Crust
b)
Continental Crust
c)
Alien Crust
d)
Pizza Crust
58.
Which layer of Earth is characterized by rock that is plastic, or soft enough to flow?
a)
asthenosphere
b)
crust
c)
lithosphere
d)
inner core
59.
If you traveled from the center of Earth to the surface, the pressure would...
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
stay the same
d)
unsure
61.
Geologists' main evidence about the structure of Earth's interior comes from
a)
temperature measurements in deep mines
b)
observations of other planets
c)
exploration of caves
d)
rock samples and seismic waves
61.
Geologists' main evidence about the structure of Earth's interior comes from
a)
temperature measurements in deep mines
b)
observations of other planets
c)
exploration of caves
d)
rock samples and seismic waves
62.
At which type of plate boundary does seafloor spreading occur?
a)
Tranform
b)
Convergent
c)
Divergent
d)
Subductive Zone
63.
Players may consult each other for an answer...
a)
on any question, as long as there is time on the clock
b)
never; only the player who buzzed in may answer questions
c)
only on bonus questions
d)
only on toss-up questions
64.
At which type of boundary are mountains formed?
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Subductive Zone
d)
Transform
65.
What are the two types of crust?
a)
top crust,bottom crust
b)
oceanic crust, continental crust
c)
water,land
d)
none of the above
66.
Which layer is made up of iron and nickel?
a)
Crust
b)
Mantle
c)
Inner Core
d)
Lithosphere
67.
What boundary type is depicted in this image?
a)
Divergent Boundary
b)
Convergent Boundary
c)
Transform Boundary
68.
When you have a convergent boundary such as pictured here what happens to the oceanic crust?
a)
Subduction
b)
Subtraction
c)
Convergent
d)
Creates oceanic rifts
69.
Convection currents in the mantle are thought to be the driving force behind tectonic movement. At which location do the convection currents cause the plates to diverge?
a)
strike-slip fault
b)
subduction zone
c)
mid oceanic ridges
d)
folded mountains.
70.
The diagram represents the movement of the mantle under the earth's crust. Which process is represented by the diagram?
a)
rotation
b)
conduction
c)
radiation
d)
convection
71.
The layer below lithosphere is known as the _____.
a)
Asthenosphere
b)
Mesosphere
c)
Outer Core
d)
None of the above
72.
When the Crust sinks down into the Mantle what happens to it?
a)
It becomes a tectonic plate
b)
It slowly floats up
c)
It sinks to the inner core
d)
It Melts
74.
What is the thinnest layer of the earth’s composition?
a)
mantle
b)
inner core
c)
crust
d)
outer core
74.
What is the thinnest layer of the earth’s composition?
a)
mantle
b)
inner core
c)
crust
d)
outer core
75.
Large pieces of lithosphere that move around on the asthenosphere are called
a)
Crust plates
b)
Tectonic plates
c)
Mantle pieces
d)
Core plates
76.
The four layers that make-up the earth’s composition are
a)
Crust, Lithosphere, Mesosphere and Core
b)
Lithosphere, Asthenosphere, Mantle and Core
c)
Crust, Mantle, Outer Core and Inner Core
d)
Mantle, Outer Core, Lithosphere and Crust
77.
Which layer of the Earth is always a liquid?
a)
Inner Core
b)
Mantle
c)
Crust
d)
Outer Core
78.
What are the three layers of the mantle?
a)
Lithosphere, Asthenosphere, Lower Mantle
b)
Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ecosphere
c)
Mesosphere, Exosphere, Troposphere
d)
Thermosphere, Exosphere, Mesosphere
79.
What are the two types of crust?
a)
Convection and Precision
b)
Continental and Oceanic
c)
Outer crust & inner crust
d)
Land & water
80.
A dense sphere of iron and nickel at the center of the earth.
a)
Crust
b)
Outer Core
c)
Inner Core
d)
Mantle
81.
A layer of molten iron and nickel that surrounds the inner core of the earth.
a)
Outer Core
b)
Inner Core
c)
Mantle
d)
Crust
82.
The layer of hot solid material between Earth's crust and core.
a)
Crust
b)
Inner Core
c)
Mantle
d)
Outer Core
83.
The layer of rock that forms Earth's outer surface.
a)
Inner core
b)
Crust
c)
Mantle
d)
Outer core
84.
How many students are allowed on each team's roster?
a)
a minimum of 2
b)
a minimum of 4; maximum of 5
c)
a maximum of 15, with 2 alternates
d)
unlimited
85.
How many students may be actively competing at any time
a)
a minimum of 2; maximum of 5
b)
4 only
c)
a minimum of 4; maximum of 5
d)
a minimum of 1; maximum of 5
86.
The two types of questions that will be used are
a)
toss up & bonus
b)
toss up & blurt
c)
bonus & speed
d)
speed & blurt
87.
Buzzing in while the moderator is reading a question or answers is called...
a)
a blurt, and is allowed
b)
an interrupt, and is allowed
c)
a blurt, and is NOT allowed
d)
an interrupt and is NOT allowed
88.
_____ may answer a toss up question
a)
Only the team that won the previous toss up question
b)
The first player to buzz in on either team
c)
The captain of the team that buzzed in first
d)
Any player on the team that buzzed in first
89.
_____ may answer a bonus question
a)
Anyone from the team that won the previous toss up question
b)
The first player to buzz in on either team
c)
Only the captain of the team that won the previous toss up question
d)
Any player on the team that buzzed in first
91.
Answering a question AFTER buzzing in, but BEFORE being acknowledged by the moderator...
a)
is called a blurt, and is never allowed
b)
is called a blurt, and is only allowed on interrupts
c)
is called an interrupt, and is allowed
d)
is called a blurt, and is only allowed if you get the answer correct
91.
Answering a question AFTER buzzing in, but BEFORE being acknowledged by the moderator...
a)
is called a blurt, and is never allowed
b)
is called a blurt, and is only allowed on interrupts
c)
is called an interrupt, and is allowed
d)
is called a blurt, and is only allowed if you get the answer correct
92.
A blurt results in...
a)
a point penalty; 4 points added to the opposing team
b)
strike 1 of a 3-strike warning system
c)
a warning; you are only given 1 warning per round
d)
a bonus penalty; the opposing team is given an extra bonus question
93.
You may ask the moderator to re-read a question or the answers...
a)
If someone was talking while the question was read
b)
if you forgot parts of the question or choices
c)
to stall if you are trying to burn time on the clock
d)
never
94.
Participants may answer a multiple choice question with...
a)
choices W, X, Y, Z only
b)
choices W, X, Y, Z or the answer worded EXACTLY as read by the moderator
c)
choices W, X, Y, Z or the answer SIMILAR to the wording as read by the moderator
d)
words that identify the order of choices (eg: the first one, the last one)
95.
Prefacing remarks such as "the correct answer is..."
a)
are good for clarity, and should be used
b)
are good for stalling, and should be used if currently in the lead
c)
are considered arrogant, and should not be used in good sportsmanship
d)
are considered stalling, and are not allowed
96.
The team that is not actively answering a toss-up or bonus question should...
a)
remain quiet and non-disruptive
b)
discuss the answer to be prepared to steal the points
c)
whisper incorrect answers to throw off the other team
d)
use the time to stand up and stretch
97.
The match ends when
a)
either time expires, or all of the questions have been read
b)
one team reaches 20 points
c)
one team has 20 more points than the other team (mercy rule)
d)
one team has been issued three strikes for breaking rules
98.
After buzzing in on a toss-up question...
a)
the player must answer immediately (a natural pause, less than 2 seconds is allowed)
b)
the captain must answer immediately (a natural pause, less than 2 seconds is allowed)
c)
the team has 20 seconds to consult before the captain gives the answer
d)
the player who buzzed in has 20 seconds to give an answer
99.
If the moderator begins reading a toss-up question right before time runs out...
a)
the round ends, and no points are awarded
b)
the question is finished as usual, including the bonus if applicable
c)
the question is finished as usual, however, no bonus question will be read
d)
the question will only be finished if the teams are currently tied
100.
Toss-up questions are worth
a)
1 point
b)
2 points
c)
4 points
d)
10 points
101.
Bonus questions are worth
a)
1 point
b)
2 points
c)
4 points
d)
10 points
102.
The 5th member of the team may substitute in for...
a)
any of the 4 members at any time
b)
any of the 4 members but only at the half
c)
anyone except the captain at any time
d)
anyone except the captain, but only at the half
103.
In the event that two or more members of the team are unavailable on competition day
a)
alternates may be chosen by the coach and added to the roster
b)
alternates may be chosen by the captain and added to the roster
c)
the team is disqualified
d)
a player from team 2 may be promoted to team 1 for the day
104.
2.0 milligrams is
a)
2.0 x 10-3 grams
b)
2.0 x 10-6 grams
c)
2.0 x 10-2 grams
d)
2.0 x 10-9 grams
105.
3.0 Tm
a)
3000 m
b)
3,000,000 m
c)
3 x 109m
d)
3 x 1012m
106.
3.0 microliters is
a)
3.0 x 10-3 liters
b)
3.0 x 10-6 liters
c)
2.0 x 10-2 liters
d)
2.0 x 10-9 grams
107.
True or false 1,000 milligrams in a gram
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
108.
How many milliliters in a liter
a)
100 milliliters
b)
1,000 milil
c)
10,000 milliliters
d)
10 milliliters
109.
How many Meters are in a kilometer
a)
1 meter
b)
10 meters
c)
100 meters
d)
1,000 meters
110.
Convert 10000g to Kg.
a)
10
b)
100
c)
1000
d)
10000
111.
3.0 Mm
a)
3000 m
b)
3,000,000 m
c)
3 x109m
d)
3x 1012m
112.
3.0 km
a)
3000 m
b)
3,000,000 m
c)
3 x 109m
d)
3 x 1012m
113.
Machines made up of only a few atoms are measured in
a)
centimeters
b)
micrometers
c)
nanometers
d)
femtometers
114.
The largest prefix we use is
a)
Peta (p), x 1012
b)
Tera (T), x 1012
c)
Tera (t), x 1015
d)
Peta (P), x 1015
115.
pico is
a)
between nano and femto
b)
smaller than micro
c)
larger than nano
d)
smaller than femto
116.
femto- (f) is a prefix which means
a)
x 10-9
b)
x 109
c)
x10-15
d)
x1012
117.
2.0 x 10-15 g
a)
2.0 pg (picograms)
b)
2.0 ng (nanograms)
c)
2.0 μg (micrograms)
d)
2.0 fg (femtograms)
118.
3.0 kN is
a)
3 x 1012N
b)
3 x 109N
c)
3 x 106 N
d)
3,000 N
119.
convert 9 km to mm
a)
900,000
b)
9,000,000
c)
9,000
d)
90,000
120.
How would you write 4.3756 x 104 in standard form?
a)
437,560,000
b)
0.00043756
c)
43,756
121.
How would you write 0.0005 in scientific notation?
a)
50 x 10-5
b)
5 x 10-4
c)
5 x 10-3
d)
.5 x 10-3
122.
How would you write 82,325,000 in scientific notation?
a)
82.325 x 106
b)
8.2325 x 107
c)
82325 x 103
123.
The diameter of the planet Mercury is 4.87 x 103 kilometers. The diameter of the planet Venus is 1.21 x 104 kilometers. The diameter of Earth is 1.28 x 104 kilometers. The diameter of Mars is 6.79 x 103 kilometers. Which planet has the smallest diameter?
a)
Mercury
b)
Earth
c)
Venus
d)
Mars
124.
Which of the following numbers is the least (smallest)?
a)
7 x 108
b)
7.1 x 108
c)
7 x 109
d)
7.1 x 109
126.
Which number is the greatest?
a)
5.25 x 105
b)
2.55 x 105
c)
5.55 x 105
d)
5 x 105
126.
Which number is the greatest?
a)
5.25 x 105
b)
2.55 x 105
c)
5.55 x 105
d)
5 x 105
127.
Which of the following is correct scientific notation?
a)
20.35 x 104
b)
.2035 x 104
c)
2035 4
d)
2.035 x104
128.
How many significant figures does the following number have: 0.002040
a)
6
b)
4
c)
3
d)
2
129.
How many significant figures does the following number have: 100.00210
a)
7
b)
5
c)
10
d)
8
130.
How many significant figures does the following number have: 100.3
a)
4
b)
3
c)
5
d)
2
131.
How many significant figures does the following number have: 56.040
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
132.
What is the measurement 1042 Liters rounded to 2 significant figures?
a)
1040 L
b)
1.1 x 103 L
c)
1.0 x 103 L
d)
1050 L
133.
What is 98.907 rounded to 1 significant figure?
a)
98.9
b)
90
c)
100
d)
98.91
134.
Calculate 5.50 cm + 5.50 cm and give your answer with the appropriate number of significant figures.
a)
11 cm
b)
11.0 cm
c)
11.00 cm
d)
11.000 cm
135.
Calculate 1.23 m x 0.89 m and give your answer with the appropriate number of significant figures.
a)
1.0 m2
b)
1.1 m2
c)
1.0947 m2
d)
1.09 m2
136.
Calculate 123000 m x 3234 m and give your answer with the appropriate number of significant figures.
a)
3.97 x 10-7 m2
b)
39800000 m2
c)
398 m2
d)
3.98 x 108 m2
137.
Calculate 12.47 m ÷ 3.2 s and give your answer with the appropriate number of significant figures.
a)
4 m/s
b)
3.9 m/s
c)
3.90 m/s
d)
3.897 m/s
138.
Calculate 0.020 cm x 50 cm x 11.1 cm and give your answer with the appropriate number of significant figures.
a)
10 cm3
b)
11.1 cm3
c)
11 cm3
d)
11. cm3
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