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Pre-AP Chemistry Midterm Review

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 2hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What element is Cr?

a)

Copper

b)

Chromium

c)

Cobalt

d)

Calcium

2.

What element is Kr?

a)

Krypton

b)

Kryponite

c)

Kromium

d)

Kromide

3.

What is the symbol for Vanadium

a)

V

b)

Vd

c)

Va

d)

U

4.

What is the symbol for Pottasium

a)

P

b)

Po

c)

K

d)

Na

5.

What polyatomic ion is Ammonium

a)

NH41+

b)

OH1-

c)

NH41-

d)

OH1+

6.

What polyatomic ion is Sulfate?

a)

SO41-

b)

SO32-

c)

SO42-

d)

SO31-

7.

What is the name for NO31-

a)

Nitrite

b)

Nitrogen Trioxide

c)

Heliumate

d)

Nitrate

8.

What is the name for OH1-

a)

Oxygen Hydride

b)

Hydrogen Oxide

c)

Oxidro

d)

Hydroxide

9.

Which of the following relationships in waves are the direct?

a)

Frequency and Wavelength

b)

Frequency and Energy

c)

Energy and Wavelength

d)

Energy and photons

10.

Which of the following relationships in waves are the opposite?

a)

Frequency and Wavelength

b)

Frequency and Energy

c)

Energy and Electromagnetism

d)

Energy and photons

11.

Which of the following waves has the highest energy and frequency?

a)
b)
c)
d)
12.

If this wave has a long wavelength, how could it's frequency and energy be described?

a)

Low energy; High Frequency

b)

High Energy; High Frequency

c)

High Energy; Low Frequency

d)

Low Energy; Low Frequency

13.

Which of the following waves has the lowest energy?

a)
b)
c)
d)
14.

If photon A has 2x the wavelength of photon B, what is the frequency of photon A?

a)

2x frequency of photon B

b)

Same frequency of photon B

c)

2x frequency of Photon A

d)

1/2 frequency of Photon B

15.

If a wave has a wavelength of 100 m, and the frequency is halved, what is the new frequency?

a)

50 m

b)

100 m

c)

200 m

d)

100 g

16.

As a distant star moves away from Earth, the light given off by the star has a measurably

lower frequency. What happens to the wavelength and energy of the photons of light when

the frequency becomes lower?

a)

The wavelength becomes longer, and the energy decreases.

b)

The wavelength becomes shorter, and the energy decreases.

c)

The wavelength becomes longer, and the energy increases.

d)

The wavelength becomes shorter, and the energy increases.

17.

If the frequency of this wave increased, which of the following waves could be true?

a)
b)
c)
d)

None of the above

18.

Which of the following is a particle of energy carrying a quanta of energy

a)

Quantum

b)

Charms

c)

Photons

d)

None of the above

19.

What is the effect on frequency if wavelength is doubled?

a)

1/2x

b)

2x

c)

4x

d)

1x

20.

What causes the effect shown in this picture?

a)

Electrons get angry and lose energy

b)

Electrons go back to their base level

c)

EM spectrum causes loss of electrons

d)

Electrons get excited and gain energy

21.

Why does each element in the EM spectrum have a different color?

a)

Each element has a unique electron configuration

b)

Every element has the same electron configuration

c)

The elements color changes when it loses energy

d)

Light causes elements to change color

22.

What causes the effect shown in the picture?

a)

Electrons get excited and gain energy

b)

Electrons get angry and lose energy

c)

The nucleus attracts electrons to their original state

d)

Unknown reasons

23.

Which of the following quantum leaps absorbs the most energy?

a)
b)
c)
d)
24.

Which of the following quantum leaps emits the most energy?

a)
b)
c)
d)
25.

In this quantum jump, what are the energy levels?

a)

n=1 to n=3

b)

n=3 to n=1

c)

n=3 to n=3

d)

n=1 to n=1

26.

In this quantum jump, what are the energy levels?

a)

n=2 to n=2

b)

n=1 to n=1

c)

n=1 to n=2

d)

n=2 to n=1

27.

Which of the following is correct safety attire for the lab?

a)

Lab coat is always required

b)

Long hair is needed

c)

Safety goggles are required at all times

d)

Homecoming dresses are required to be worn

28.

What should you do if an accident spill or injury occurs?

a)

Take care of it yourself

b)

Tell a teacher

c)

Continue the lab

d)

Tell a teacher ... immediately

29.

When multiplying or dividing numbers in chemistry, the answer has the same number of significant figures as the number in the equation with the least significant figures.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Which of the following shoes 8,192.7592 with 5 significant figures?

a)

8,193

b)

8,192.8

c)

8,192.7

d)

8,192.76

31.

9.19g X 6.936g? Use the correct number of significant figures.

a)

63.7 g

b)

63.74 g

c)

63.8 g

d)

63.7418 g

32.

How many significant figures does 0.0093450 have?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

8

d)

9

33.

How many significant figures does 94,000 have

a)

5

b)

2

c)

3

d)

1

34.

What is 9.875 x 15.87? Use the correct number of significant figures.

a)

156.71625

b)

156.7

c)

156.716

d)

156.71

35.

Convert to standard notation:

5.3 x 10-7

a)

53,000,000

b)

530,000,000

c)

.00000053

d)

.000000053

36.

Convert to scientific notation:

23,000,000

a)

23 x 10-6

b)

2.3 x 106

c)

2.3 x 107

d)

2.3 x 10-7

37.

Convert 560 μm to kg.

a)

56000000 kg

b)

.00000056 kg

c)

5.6 x 10-7 kg

d)

5.6 x 107 kg

38.

Convert 4000 nm to m

a)

.000004 m

b)

4x10-6 m

c)

4x10-9 m

d)

4x10-5 m

39.

Convert 1000 kg to mg.

a)

1000 mg

b)

10x109 mg

c)

10x106 mg

d)

1,000,000,000 mg

40.

Convert 10 g to ng

a)

10x10-10 ng

b)

10x109 ng

c)

10x1010 ng

d)

10x10-9 ng

41.

A student is making a guide for studying measurement rules. Which of the following guides is correct?

a)
b)
c)
d)
42.

What is the formula for density

a)

Mass/Volume

b)

Volume/Mass

c)

Distance/Time

d)

Weight/Volume

43.

What is the density of a substance that has 58 g and 3.45 mL?

a)

11.0144927 g/mL

b)

11.01 g/mL

c)

11.0 g/mL

d)

11 g/mL

44.

Gold has a density of 54.98 g/mL and a mass of 84.7 g. What is the volume of gold?

a)

.649 mL3

b)

1.54 mL3

c)

1.54056 mL3

d)

.649115 mL3

45.

What is the volume of this test tube?

a)

15 mL

b)

14.5 mL

c)

14.0 mL

d)

14.49 mL

46.

Silver has a volume of 56 mL3 and a density of 67.96 g/mL3. What is the mass of Silver?

a)

3,805 g

b)

3,805.76 g

c)

0.824 g

d)

0.824014 g

47.

Which of the following shows the intermolecular forces of phases from greatest to least?

a)

Solid, liquid, gas

b)

Gas, liquid, solid

c)

Liquid, gas, solid

d)

Solid, gas, liquid

48.

With water, which matter phase is the most dense?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

49.

Which of the following would not describe a gas

a)

Weak Intermolecular Force

b)

No definate shape/volume

c)

Least Dense

d)

Strong Intermolecular Force

50.

Which of the following matches the letters

a)

A: Solid

B: Gas

C: Gas

b)

A: Solid

B: Liquid

C: Gas

c)

A: Gas

B: Liquid

C: Solid

d)

All are liquid

51.

A student completed this phase chart to study for the test. Which of the following did he do correctly?

a)

Density

b)

Shape

c)

Kinetic Energy

d)

Inter-molecular Force

52.

Some students used a variety of procedures to investigate four liquid samples. The students recorded the following information.

When Sample W was cooled, solid particles settled out of the liquid.

The mass and volume of Sample X were measured, and the density of Sample X was calculated to be 1.6 g/mL

Sample Y was heated, and the temperature was recorded. All the liquid boiled away at the same temperature and left no residue in the container.

When a dilute acid was added to Sample Z, gas bubbles formed and rapidly rose to the surface of the liquid.

Based on these observations, which sample was clearly identifiable as a pure substance?

a)

Sample W

b)

Sample X

c)

Sample Y

d)

Sample Z

53.

Which of the following describes a chemical property?

a)

Water conducts electrity

b)

The boiling point for beryllium is 2,471°C

c)

Hydrogen is very flammable

d)

A test tube has 4 mL of water

54.

The melting point of Beryllium is 1,287°C.

a)

Physical Property/ Extensive Property

b)

Physical Property/ Intensive Property

c)

Chemical Property/Intensive Property

d)

Physical Change

55.

2 chemicals reacted when they were combined

a)

Chemical Property/ Extensive Property

b)

Physical Property/ Extensive Property

c)

Physical Property/ Intensive Property

d)

Chemical Property/ Intensive Property

56.

Which of the following would categories would mass fall under?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

57.

Which of the following would categories would number of valence electrons fall under

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

58.

Which of the following is not evidence of a chemical change

a)

Percipitation

b)

Phase Change

c)

Temperature Change

d)

Permanent Color Change

59.

When beef is cooked, the beef changes color from red to brown, and the meat turns from mushy to hard. What type of change is described here and why?

a)

Physical Change, heat was applied changing the phase

b)

Physical Change, heat is a intensive property

c)

Chemical Change, there was a precipitate formed

d)

Chemical Change, there was a color change

60.

When cheese gets cooked, it begins to melt and become softer and increase in temperature. Which of the following best describes this change

a)

Physical Change, because the cheese is still cheese

b)

Physical Change, there was a phase change

c)

Chemical Change, the cheese has a permanent change in temperature

d)

Chemical Change, a new substance was made

61.

Which of the following is a difference between tearing a piece of paper vs burning a piece of paper?

a)

Tearing a piece of paper is a chemical change because the paper will never return to its original state while burning a piece of paper is a physical change because it's only change is in appearance

b)

Tearing a piece of paper is a physical change because a there is only a phase change while burning a piece of paper is a chemical change because a new substance was formed

c)

Tearing a piece of paper is a physical change because it is only a change in appearance while burning a piece of paper is a chemical change because there is temperature change and a permanent color change

d)

None of these are correct

62.

Two students were doing a lab. They mixed two chemicals together. The chemicals mixing caused a temperature change, a permanent color change, and evaporation of some liquid. What type of change took place here?

a)

Physical Change, because there was a phase change from liquid to gas

b)

Chemical Change, because there was a phase change from liquid to solid

c)

Chemical Change, because there was a color change and temperature change

d)

Physical Change, because it was just a change in appearance

63.

Everything in this curve is a ...

a)

Physical Change

b)

Physical Property

c)

Chemical Change

d)

Chemical Property

64.

Which of the following is shown in box G?

a)

Compound

b)

Mixture of compounds

c)

A Pure substance

d)

Diatomic Element

65.

Which of the following is shown in box C

a)

Mixture of elements

b)

Mixture of compounds

c)

Mixture of elements and compounds

d)

A pure substance

66.

Which of the following describes a difference between homogeneous solution and a heterogeneous solution?

a)

A homogeneous solution is elements while a heterogeneous solution is compounds

b)

A homogeneous solution is evenly mixed while a heterogeneous solution is unevenly mixed

c)

A homogeneous solution is a compound while a heterogeneous solution is a mixture

d)

A homogeneous solution is unevenly mixed while a heterogeneous solution is evenly mixed

67.

In this image, which of the following represents the solvent and the solute?

a)

Solvent: Water

Solute: Tablet

b)

Solvent: Tablet

Solute: Water

c)

Both are solutes

d)

Both are solvents

68.

What type of mixture could this be?

a)

Homogeneous

b)

Heterogeneous

c)

Ionic

d)

Covalent

69.

When potassium and iodine bond,they make a compound named potassium iodide. Is this a pure substance, and what type of substance is this?

a)

Pure substance; Element

b)

Mixture; Compound

c)

Mixture; Homogeneous

d)

Pure substance; Compound

70.

This is an example of ...

a)

A pure substance and a homogeneous mixture

b)

A non pure substance and a homogeneous mixture

c)

A pure substance and a heterogeneous mixture

d)

A non pure substance and a heterogeneous mixture

71.

Steam is to gas as exothermic is to ...

a)

Solid

b)

Freezing

c)

Evaporation

d)

Melting

72.

Which of the following is not an endothermic process?

a)

Condensation

b)

Melting

c)

Boiling

d)

Vaporization

73.

Where on this graph does melting occur?

a)

Between B and C

b)

Between D and E

c)

B only

d)

D only

74.

A substance that has a melting point of 100 degrees and a boiling/evaporation point of 200 degrees is at 160 degrees right now. Which point on this graph is the substance right now?

a)

C

b)

D

c)

Between D and E

d)

Between C and D

75.

A substance has a melting point of -245 degrees and a boiling point of -8 degrees. If the substance is at -247 degrees, where on the graph would it be?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

F

76.

Which of the following includes an example of a chemical property of an element?

a)

Aluminum is a solid at room temperature and is a poor thermal insulator.

b)

Sulfur is not shiny and is not malleable.

c)

Sodium is a solid at room temperature and reacts with other elements.

d)

Silicon is shiny and is a poor conductor of electricity.

77.

The table below lists some properties of a sample of lauric acid. Which of these is an intensive property?

a)

Volume

b)

Mass

c)

Boiling Point

d)

Number of Moles

78.

The following table lists some properties of copper and sulfur. Samples of copper metal and sulfur powder are placed in the same test tube and heated over

a Bunsen burner. The resulting substance has the following properties.

• Does not conduct electricity

• Has a density of 5.6 g/cm3

• Has a metallic luster

• Is a black brittle crystalline solid

This black substance is classified as —

a)

a heterogeneous mixture

b)

a compound

c)

an element

d)

a homogeneous mixture

79.

How is the periodic table organized?

a)

Increasing electrons

b)

Increasing neutrons

c)

Increasing protons

d)

None of the above

80.

Which of the following are vertical columns not called?

a)

Periods

b)

Energy levels

c)

Series

d)

Groups

81.

Which of the following are vertical columns called?

a)

Period

b)

Groups

c)

Families

d)

Energy Levels

82.

Which element would have similar properties to Calcium and why

a)

Potassium, same period

b)

Strontium, same family

c)

Magnesium, same energy level

d)

Scandium, same group

83.

Which of the following would have the same properties of Astatine and why?

a)

Radon, same family

b)

Iodide, same period

c)

Xenon, same energy level

d)

Bromide, same group

84.

Most elements on the periodic table are ...

a)

Metals

b)

Metalliods

c)

Nonmetals

d)

None of the above

85.

Elements to the right of the staircase on the periodic table are ...

a)

Metals

b)

Metalliods

c)

Nonmetals

d)

None of the above

86.

In this periodic table, which colors correspond with their groups

a)

Gray/orange: Alkaline Earth Metals

Blue: Noble gasses

Red: halogens

b)

Gray: Alkaline Earth Metals

Orange: Alkali Metals

Red: Halogens

Blue: Noble Gas

c)

Gray: Alkali Metals

Orange: Alkaline Earth Metals

Red: Noble Gas

Blue: Halogen

d)

Gray: Halogens

Orange: Alkalinee Earth Metals

Red: Noble gas

Blue: Alkali Metals

87.

Which of the following is not a diatomic molecule?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Iodine

c)

Carbon

d)

Nitrogen

e)

Chlorine

88.

Which of the following describes where the elements with metal and nonmetal properties are on the periodic table?

a)

The staircase

b)

The left

c)

The right

d)

The middle

89.

What is a difference between mass number and atomic number?

a)

Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons while Atomic number is the number of protons only

b)

Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons while Atomic number is the difference between protons and neutrons

c)

Mass number is the number of protons while Atomic number is the sum of protons and neutrons

d)

Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons while atomic number is the sum of electrons and neutrons

90.

Which of the following describes a difference between an ion and a isotope

a)

Ions never have a charge while isotopes always have a charge

b)

Ions always have a charge while isotopes can have a charge

c)

Ions never have a charge while isotopes can have a charge

d)

Ions always have a charge while isotopes always have a charge

91.

What is an isotope?

a)

An element with a charge

b)

Weighted average of naturally occurring isotopes

c)

An isotope with a charge

d)

Same element with different number of neutrons and different mass

92.

What is a average atomic mass?

a)

An element with a charge

b)

Weighted average of naturally occurring isotopes

c)

An isotope with a charge

d)

Same element with different number of neutrons and different mass

93.

Which of the following letters best shows where the neutrons and protons are located in this atom?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

94.

Using the following information, find the average atomic mass.

a)

36 amu

b)

35.45 amu

c)

17 amu

d)

3,545 amu

95.

Using the following information, find the average atomic mass.

a)

12.001 amu

b)

12,001 amu

c)

12.5 amu

d)

6 amu

96.

Atomic number can identify the element?

a)

True

b)

False

97.

When using the Lewis Dot Structure, when must you use brackets?

a)

Always

b)

For elements only

c)

For ions only

d)

Never

98.

What is the Lewis Structure for Cl1-

a)
b)
c)
d)
99.

What is the Lewis dot structure for the Neon element?

a)
b)
c)
d)
100.

What is the Lewis dot structure for the Carbon element?

a)
b)
c)
d)
101.

Based of the given isotope, identify the # of neutrons, protons, and electrons for this isotope.

a)

+ Charged: 50

Neutral Charged: 30

- Charged: 20

Mass: 20

b)

+ Charged: 22

Neutral Charged: 20

- Charged: 18

Mass: 50

c)

+ Charged: 20

Neutral Charged: 30

- Charged: 19

Mass: 50

d)

+ Charged: 50

Neutral Charged: 20

- Charged: 20

Mass: 20

102.

Based of the given isotope, which of the following is the hyphen notation for this isotope?

a)

Carbon-50

b)

Calcium-50

c)

Carbon-20

d)

Calcium-20

103.

If an isotope has 30 neutrons, 26 protons, and 28 electrons, what is the charge of this isotope?

a)

2+

b)

2-

c)

0

d)

1-

104.

A student is trying to identify an isotope with the following information. Which of the following is the correct isotope?

a)
b)
c)
d)
105.

A student is trying to identify an isotope with the following information. Which of the following is the correct hyphen notation for the isotope shown above?

a)

Titanium-22

b)

Scandium-22

c)

Titanium-63

d)

Europium-63

106.

A student made a guide for studying scientists's atoms discoveries. He made a mistake, which of the following would correct his mistake?

a)

Switch Bohr and Rutherford discoveries

b)

Switch Dalton and Rutherford discoveries

c)

Switch Bohr and Thomson discoveries

d)

The student did the chart correctly

107.

Which of the following theories of Dalton are wrong?

a)

All matter is made of tiny particles called atoms

b)

Atoms are indivisible and unchangeable

c)

All atoms of the same element are identical

d)

Atoms can combine in whole number ratios to form compounds

e)

Atoms of different elements can combine with other atoms in whole number ratios

108.

Which of the following models is the modern day atomic theory?

a)
b)
c)
d)
109.

Which of the following matches the correct nuclear particles to their letters?

a)

A. Gamma

B. Beta

C. Alpha

b)

A. Beta

B. Gamma

C. Alpha

c)

A. Alpha

B. Beta

C. Gamma

d)

A. Beta

B. Alpha

C. Gamma

110.

Which of the following matches the following pictures?

a)

A: Fusion

B: Fusion

b)

A: Fission

B: Fission

c)

A: Fission

B: Fusion

d)

A: Fusion

B: Fission

111.

Which of the following equations shows alpha decay?

a)
b)
c)
d)

None of the above

112.

Which of the following equations shows beta decay?

a)
b)
c)
d)

None of the above

113.

Which of the following equations shows gamma decay?

a)
b)
c)
d)

None of the above

114.

Find the missing isotope.

a)
b)
c)
d)
115.

Find the missing isotope and write it in hyphen notation.

a)

Titanium-6

b)

Titanium-22

c)

Carbon-22

d)

Carbon-6

116.

The diagram below represents a nuclear reaction. Which of the following best describes this reaction?

a)

Nuclear fusion is occurring because many smaller nuclei are being fused.

b)

Nuclear fission is occurring because large amounts of energy are being absorbed.

c)

Nuclear fusion is occurring because many energetic neutrons are being emitted.

d)

Nuclear fission is occurring because a nucleus is being split into smaller nuclei.

117.

The equation below represents a nuclear reaction.


What is the mass number of the missing particle in this reaction?

a)

24

b)

23

c)

28

d)

13

118.

In a famous experiment conducted by Ernest Rutherford, positively charged alpha particles

were scattered by a thin gold foil. Which of the following is a conclusion that resulted from

this experiment?

a)

The nucleus is negatively charged.

b)

The atom is a dense solid and is indivisible.

c)

The mass is conserved when atoms react chemically.

d)

The nucleus is very small and the atom is mostly empty space.

119.

Which particle has the lightest mass?

a)
b)
c)
d)
120.

Which of the following correctly matches the correct number of valence electrons of Beryllium, Sulfur, and Xenon in the correct order?

a)

2,6,8

b)

2,3,5

c)

8,6,2

d)

2,3,8

121.

Which of the following trends increase as groups increase?

a)

Atomic Size

b)

Ionization Energy

c)

Reactivity to metals

d)

Reactivity to nonmetals

122.

Which of the following trends increase as periods increase?

a)

Atomic Size

b)

Ionization Energy

c)

Reactivity to metals

d)

Reactivity to nonmetals

123.

Which of the following describes the trend for the energy required to remove an electron from an atom?

a)

Increase across periods; Decrease across groups

b)

Decrease across groups, Increase across periods

c)

Increase across groups; Decrease across periods

d)

All of the above

124.

Which of the following is a similarity with electronegativity and ionization energy?

a)

Both require removing electrons

b)

Both have the same periodic trend

c)

Both require attracting electrons

d)

Both are related to reactivity

125.

Which of the following has the highest Ionization Energy?

a)

Chlorine

b)

Galium

c)

Iron

d)

Barium

126.

Which of the following has the largest atomic radius?

a)

Scandium

b)

Oxygen

c)

Copper

d)

Radium

127.

Which of the following is the most reactive nonmetal?

a)

Zinc

b)

Fluorine

c)

Francium

d)

Helium

128.

Which of the following is the most reactive metal

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Helium

c)

Francium

d)

Fluorine

129.

Which of the following elements is shown with this electron configuration?

1s2 2s2 2p1

a)

Bromine

b)

Beryllium

c)

Boron

d)

Carbon

130.

What is the electron configuration for Potassium?

a)

[Xe] 6s2 5d10 6p5

b)

[Ar] 4s1

c)

[Ne] 3s2 3p3

d)

[Xe] 6s2 6d10 6p5

131.

What is the electron configuration for Copper?

a)

[Ar] 4s1 3d10

b)

[Ar] 4s1 3d9

c)

[Ar] 4s2 3d9

d)

[Ar] 4s2 3d10

132.

How do the arrows in the 2p diagram represent the Hund's rule?

a)

There are 2 electrons for Carbon and all the energy levels before are filled

b)

There are 2 electrons in the 2p level and they are not paired up

c)

The electrons in the 2p level have opposite spins

d)

None of the above

133.

What rule do the arrows in the 1s and 2s box most likely represent?

a)

Pauli Exclusion Principle

b)

Hunds rule

c)

Heisenberg Uncertainty principle

d)

All of the above

134.

Which sublevel has the most energy?

a)

1s

b)

5s

c)

4d

d)

4p

135.

Which sublevel has the least energy?

a)

2s

b)

5s

c)

4d

d)

4p

136.

From top to bottom, what is the order of sublevels based of this given information?

a)

s,p,d,f

b)

p,s,d,f

c)

s,p,f,d

d)

p,s,f,d

137.

Which sublevels are in energy level 4

a)

s

b)

p

c)

d

d)

f

e)

All of the above

138.

Which sublevels are not energy level 3

a)

s

b)

p

c)

d

d)

f

139.

What element's electron configuration is [Ar] 4s23d104p4

a)

Argon

b)

Tin

c)

Selenium

d)

Bromide

140.

Know elements and polyatomic ions for this test?

a)

true

b)

false

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